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From Flashcardlet COPY COPY COPY COPY > Company Officer 3 > Flashcards

Company Officer 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The responsibility for collecting safety related information for a post incident analysis is assigned to the _____according to NFPA 1500.

A

Incident Safety Officer

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2
Q

(post incident analysis)

Two primary areas of analysis are

A

Strategy and tactics

and

Safety Issues

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3
Q

When the investigator takes charge of the investigation, the following evidence information is obtained___________

A

Name/address of both current and prior custodian

Description of any modification, handling, testing or other altercation that occurred while in the custody of the current custodian

Condition of the item, or its packaging when it was transferred to a new custodian.

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4
Q

(Evidence Preservation)

Some of the most common sources of contamination include?

A

Hand tools used

protective equipment worn

Fuel powered equipment

vehicles driving through the scene

Friends/family removing evidence

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5
Q

Evidence must be ____,_____ and _____before the organization releases the scene.

A

Marked, tagged and photographed

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6
Q

What are the 3 command options according to the company officer book?

A

Investigation

Fast attack

Command post

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7
Q

The theory of shelter in place is also called?

A

Safe Haven

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8
Q

______as a firefighting concept refers simply to mitigating a fire.

A

Extinguishment

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9
Q

______ to make an incident scene secure from rekindle or other hazards associated with the incident.

A

Overhaul

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10
Q

The “Operational Planning “P” was initially developed for the __________

A

US Coast Guards

Oil spill

Field operations guide

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11
Q

LLoyd Layman used the term ____ to describe the need to limit the fire or other emergency to the property or area of origin where the emergency began.

A

Exposures

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12
Q

The ____ describes an ICS planning process that focuses on the first five steps of the NIMS-ICS planning process.

A

The operational planning “P”.

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13
Q

_____ are specific statements of measurable outcomes.

A

Tactical objectives

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14
Q

What are the first five steps of the NIMS-ICS planning process?

A

Understand the situation (size up)

Establish incident objectives and strategies

Develop the plan of action

prepare and disseminate the plan

evaluate and revise the plan

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15
Q

_____ is the term Lloyd layman used to describe the need to prevent extension of incident effects to uninvolved areas.

A

Confinement

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16
Q

National Fire Academy Quick Calculation formula

A

L x W divided by 3

add 25% for each exposure

For use by officer at the fire scene

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17
Q

The cubic ft or Iowa state formula is used to estimate the required fire flow for the initial attack on the fire________

A

During preincident Survey

L x H x W divided by 100

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18
Q

Human factors that often contribute to accidents have been classified into three broad categories

A

Improper attitude

Lack of knowledge or skill

Physically unsuited

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19
Q

Several approaches can be taken in risk control, including the following

A

Risk avoidance

Risk Transfer (purchasing insurance)

Control measures (most common)

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20
Q

The greatest failure of both the post incident analysis and post incident critique is

A

The failure to learn from and apply the results and recommendation

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21
Q

_______ is often one of the most dangerous phases in Incident Management

A

Transfer of command

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22
Q

Fires set because of ____ fall into the largest category of Arson fires and account for 50% of the total arson problem.

A

Personal or professional vendettas

revenge

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23
Q

What are the motives for an incendiary fire?

A

Revenge

vandalism

profit (fraud)

Crime concealment

excitement

pyromania

extremism

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24
Q

The classification used when the specific cause has not been determined to a reasonable degree of probability

A

Undetermined

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25
Q

A fire deliberately set under circumstances in which the responsible party knows that the fire should not be ignited_______

A

Incendiary

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26
Q

Fires, such as those that lightening storms, floods cause, where human intervention has not been involved in the ignition process

A

Natural

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27
Q

Fires that do not involve a deliberate human act to ignite or spread the fire into an area where the fire should not be

A

Accidental

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28
Q

What are the 4 generally accepted classifications of fire cause?

A

Accidental

Natural

Incendiary

Undetermined

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29
Q

The first material must have the following three characteristics that parallel the characteristics that parallel the characteristics of the ignition source

A

Capable of being ignited

Close enough to receive the heat/energy

Capable of absorbing and retaining the heat energy

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30
Q

A competent ignition source must have what 3 qualities?

A

Sufficient heat energy transfer to result in the ignition of the first material

Sufficient tempt to ignite the material

Sufficient time to transfer the required heat to the material

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31
Q

Once the origin is identified, the investigator should look for?

A

Heat sources that might be potential sources of ignition

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32
Q

What are the 6 basic Questions that should be asked of every witness?

A

Who

what

when

where

why

how

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33
Q

White Ash is a product of more complete combustion and it appears?

Pg. 418

A

on the exposed sides of the remaining debris

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34
Q

The direction N,S,W,E in which the slope faces?

pg 417

A

Aspect

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35
Q

From its point of origin, a wildland fire burns?

pg 417

A

Outward in all directions

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36
Q

What are the 3 compartments of a vehicle?

pg 413

A

Engine compartment

cargo compartment

passenger compartment
Front passenger
Rear passenger

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37
Q

The vehicle fire scene can be divided into 3 areas for examination?

pg 413

A

The scene around the vehicle

The exterior of the vehicle

The interior of the vehicle

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38
Q

What information should be recorded for each piece of evidence?

pg. 413

A

It’s location

name of the party discovering the item

Where it was discovered

Time and date of acquisition

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39
Q

These patterns are found when fires are extinguished before the fire has reached flashover________

pg 411

A

Hot gas layer

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40
Q

Fire pattern that can very widely in appearance and was created by ventilation introduced to a fire

A

Ventilation generated

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41
Q

Fire pattern left as a result of the way the fire was extinguished during fire suppression efforts

A

suppression generated

42
Q

Fire pattern that occurs after flashover or after a fire has burned for long periods of time. Almost all vertical and horizontal surfaces will show signs of damage.

A

Full Room Involvement

43
Q

Fire pattern found on noncombustible surfaces where there has been direct contact with or intense radiant heat on the surface,

The direct flame contact burns away any accumulated soot or smoke deposits, leaving demarcation lines

A

Clean burns

44
Q

Fire pattern created when structural components are exposed to flame; sharp edges of the component are often burned away on the side that faces the heat source

A

Pointers or arrows

Also refers to a series of burned components that indicate a longer duration on one end of the series to shorter duration on the other

45
Q

Pattern with no common shape in which the fire followed the path of available fuels

A

Irregular patterns on floors

46
Q

Saddle-shaped fire patterns that is the result of fire burning downward through the floor surface above the joint

A

Saddle burns

47
Q

Undamaged surface within an otherwise fire damaged area, possibly resulting from objects shielding the surface from the effects of the fire.

A

Protected areas

Generally used to refer the investigator to where large objects such as furniture were positioned before the pic.

48
Q

Fire pattern that radiant heat forms in the hot gas layer during a fire before flashover

A

Hot gas layer

49
Q

Any of a number of fire patterns created as a result of the plume of hot gases rising above an individual fire

pg. 411

A

Plume generated

50
Q

The typical fire patterns include the following types?

pg 411

A

Plume generated

hot gas layer

ventilation generated

suppression generated

full room involvement

clean burns

pointers/arrows

Irregular

saddle burns

protected areas

51
Q

Rough surfaces are often _____ heavily damaged than smooth surfaces of the same material.

A

more

because of the greater surface area

52
Q

A V-shaped pattern may have been made during the ____ phase of the fire.

A

Incipient

53
Q

Fire patterns are formed on interior surfaces of a structure as a result of__________

pg 410

A

Direct flame contact

or

Exposure to heat

54
Q

NFPA 921, guide for fire and explosion investigations, describe fire patterns as ___________

pg 410

A

the “visible or measurable physical effects that remain after a fire”

55
Q

The goal of analyzing fire patterns is to _________

pg 410

A

Determine fire spread from the area of origin

56
Q

The examination of a structure fire should start with _________

pg 409

A

an examination of the entire incident scene in order to determine its size and scope

57
Q

What are the four basic steps in determining the area of origin?

pg 409

A

Step 1 Examine the exterior

Step 2 Examine the interior

Step 3 Interview witnesses/ First responders

Step 4 Analyze the info using the scientific method.

58
Q

During a wildland fire investigation, where does the fire investigation start?

pg 409

A

Start the examination at the outside edge of the burned area and work inward

59
Q

Company officers should use a methodology that typically involves?

pg 408

A

Working from the least damaged area to the most damaged area

60
Q

The _____is that area where the ignition source and material first ignited actually came together.

pg 408

A

Area of origin

61
Q

The fire investigator must know the following?

pg 408

A

Methods that adult and juvenile firesetters use

common fire causes

Isolation of basic origin and cause determinants

Fire growth and development

Fire investigative documentation procedures

62
Q

A _____is an individual who has demonstrated the skills and knowledge necessary to conduct, coordinate, and complete an investigation.

A

Fire investigator

63
Q

A fire investigation normally ends if___________

pg 407

A

it is determined that an accident or nature caused the incident

there was no loss of life or high content loss

64
Q

Highest level of skill performance when the skill has been internalized due to repetition and experience in performing the skill in actual Incidents_______

pg 391

A

Mastery

65
Q

Higher level of skill performance that is the result of additional practice and experience___________

pg 391

A

Proficiency

66
Q

Basic skills able to meet minimum requirements

pg 391

A

Competency

67
Q

What 3 elements must be identified and entered into a career or professional development plan?

pg 390

A

Current situation

Intermediate Objectives
steps needed to attain final goal

final goal

68
Q

Progressive discipline usually involves the following 3 levels?

pg 387

A

Preventive action (oral reprimand)

Corrective action (written rep)

Punitive action

69
Q

What are the two basic types of discipline?

pg 387

A

Positive

and

Negative

70
Q

Discipline actions should be taken in a manner that is ________

pg 386

A

corrective

progressive

lawful

71
Q

In ______, the company officer or designated subordinate guides the individual through any new activities, reinforces correct behavior, and redirects incorrect behavior.

pg 377

A

Coaching

72
Q

What are the 5 essential group characteristics?

pg 373

A

Common interest

group image

sense of continuity

shared values

roles within the group

73
Q

What are the 5 stages of development?

A

Forming

storming

norming

performing

adjourning

74
Q

Behavior management begins with

pg 377

A

The prevention of disruptive behavior

75
Q

A group is often defined as a collection of people who:

pg 372

A

Share certain traits

Interact with one another

Accept rights and obligations as members of the group

share a common identitiy

76
Q

The change process should be viewed as ______ rather than linear.

A

Cyclical

77
Q

5 step model for change______

pg 364

A

Recognize the need for change

Identify resistance and address it

Plan the change interventions

implement the change

control the change

78
Q

Common reasons to resist change

A

Lack of shared vision

lack of trust

loss of control

learning anxiety

fear of loss

uncertainty

self Interest

79
Q

A _______ is a person who leads a change project or initiative.

pg 363

A

Change agent

80
Q

Business analysts have determined that resistance to change can be overcome using the following 7 basic steps.

A

Create a climate for change

plan for change

communicate the advantages and effects

meet the needs of both the organization and employee

Involve employees in the change

provide support during the change

seek input of “opinion leaders”

81
Q

The types of change that an organization may have to undergo include:

A

Strategic

structure

technology

people

82
Q

The prospect of change may cause people to go through the change process stages:

A

Denial

Resistance

exploration

commitment

83
Q

Change can originate from two forces:

361

A

Internal
within the unit, delegation, organization restructuring.

External
political decision, economic trends

84
Q

An assessment of an employees’ performance that are conducted at the end of a given period of time.

pg 359

A

Summative Evaluation

At the end of the probationary period

Annually as part of a performance review.

For performance improvement and or discipline.

85
Q

_______ is an ongoing, repeated assessment conducted overtime to evaluate an employee’s performance against an organizations standard.

pg 359

A

Formative Evaluation

86
Q

The _____ was created to integrate federal government prevention, preparedness, response, recovery into one all discipline all hazard approach to domestic incident management.

pt 359

A

National response plan

87
Q

______should be used as the model for response management in the are contingency plans to ensure an effective response.

A

NIMS- based ICS

for

Unified Command

88
Q

A procedure to be put into effect should an emergency occur within a given region or area_______

Pg 358

A

Area contingency plan

89
Q

The term______ is also used to describe four states

Kentucky

Massachusetts

Pennsylvania

Virginia

pg 354

A

Common wealth

and

Puerto Rico

90
Q

What prerequisite knowledge should a candidate know prior to testing for fire officer II?

A

The organization of their local government

The enabling and regulatory legislation and the law making process at the local, state and national level.

91
Q

NFPA_____ standard for fire officer professional Qualifications

350

A

NFPA 1021

92
Q

What incident size up considerations are outline in Lloyd Layman’s model?

A

Facts

Probabilities

Own Situation

Decision

Plan of Operation

93
Q

What are the 3 approaches to improving firefighter survivability?

Pg 341

A

Occupant Survivability Profiling

Crew Resource Management

Rules of Engagement

94
Q

The acronym

RECEO VS

stands for?

pg 322

A

Rescue

Exposures

Confinement

Extinguishment

Overhaul

Ventilation

Salvage

95
Q

Receo VS employs the information about the emergency incident that was gathered during______

pg 322

A

Initial Size Up

Info includes

Pre incident survey

Details provided in the alarm dispatch

Visual and odor indicators the officer observes upon arrival

96
Q

Lloyd Laymen created his Receo vs decision making model in the _____ century.

pg 322

A

Mid 20th century

it list strategic goals for an incident

97
Q

In modern fire environments it is common to experience a decay period prior to __________

319

A

Flashover

98
Q

Modern trusses are generally spaced _____ inches apart.

pg 317

A

24 inches apart.

99
Q

Thermal properties of a compartment include:

A

Insulation

heat reflectivity

Retention

100
Q

_______smoke is often present in fires involving material like foam, synthetics and plastics

Pg 313

A

Black smoke

From Flashcardlet COPY COPY COPY COPY (51 decks)

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