L14- Haemopoiesis Flashcards

1
Q

haemopoiesis describes

A

The production of all types of blood cells including formation, development, and differentiation of blood cells.

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2
Q

what do all of the cells in the blood come from

A

bone marrow haemopoetic stem cells

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3
Q

where does prenatal haemopoiesis occur

A

Occurs in the yolk sack then the liver and lastly the bone marrow

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4
Q

stem cells all originate

A

in bone marrow and have the ability to differentiate into many cell types

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5
Q

two main types of progenitor cells that come from multipotent haemtopoietic stem cells

A

o Myeloid and lymphoid progenitors

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6
Q

myeloid cell examples

A
  • thrombocytes (platelets)
  • erythrocytes
  • mast cells
  • basophils
  • neutrophils
  • eosinophils
  • monocytes (macrophages)
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7
Q

lymphoid cell examples

A

T and B cells

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8
Q

not all cells found in the bone marrow

A

will end up int he blood

- apoptose (40% survival in certain stages)

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9
Q

Hemocytoblasts

A

Multipotential hematopoietic stem cells

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10
Q

lifespan of RBC

A

120 days

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11
Q

where are RBC degraded

A

liver/spleen

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12
Q

how many molecules of oxygen can one RBC carry

A

one billion

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13
Q

how many seconds for an RBC to circulate around the whole body

A

20 seconds

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14
Q

width of RBC

A

7um

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15
Q

shape of RBC

A

biconcave

- increase surface area for gas exchange

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16
Q

why do RBC have no nucleus

A

to maximize ability to hold onto oxygen

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17
Q

why do RBC have no mitochondria

A

otherwise cell would be using up oxygen that’s meant to be delivered to tissues

Anaerobic respiration - Glucose —> pyruvate

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18
Q

RBC utilise

A

lactate dehydrogenase to regenerate NAD so that the glycolysis can continue (only source of ATP)

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19
Q

what reaction does lactate dehydrogenase catalyse

A

NADH + H+ + pyruvate —> NAD+ + lactate

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20
Q

how does the body stimulate RBC production after blood loss

A

The kidney senses tissue hypoxia and response by increasing secretion of Erythropoietin.

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21
Q

erythropoietin

A
  • A glycoprotein
  • Stops programmed cell death (apoptosis) of erythrocyte progenitors
  • Made in liver during fetal life
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22
Q

erythropoiesis

A

‘The process which produces red blood cells (erythrocytes), which is the development from erythropoietic stem cell to mature red blood cell.’

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23
Q

outline erythropoiesis

A
  • Erythroblasts start with large nucleus, prominent nucleoli and large amounts of RNA
  • Nucleus gradual shrinks and is removed along with most RNA
  • Becomes reticulocyte before becoming a mature RBC
    o Final step before mature erythrocyte
    o Only small amount of RNA remains to make haem
    o Removed within 1-2 days
    o Clinical use: presents in the blood when the body is recovering from blood loss
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24
Q

granulocytes

A

Sub group of WBC- fight infection and inflammation

- Named due to presence of granules within cytoplasm

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25
Q

granulocytes work by

A

Act by releasing cytokine, interleukins, leukotrienes

o Recruitment of other immune cells

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26
Q

name the granulocytes

A

neutrophils (60%)
basophils
eosinophils

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27
Q

Neutrophils function

A

First responder and first one of defence against bacteria

  • Phagocytosis
  • Signal to other immune cells e.g. antigen presenting
  • Neutrophil Extracellular traps (NETs)
  • DNA nets that the neutrophil sends out to trap bacteria •
  • Intrinsic ability to kill
  • Respiratory burst
  • Makes free radicals which damages the DNA of certain pathogens causing cell death
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28
Q

structure of neutrophil

A

• Multilobed nucleus

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29
Q

which granules do neutrophils produce

A

lysosomes, matrix metalloproteinases (MMP) and gelatinise

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30
Q

basophils release

A

histamine and heparin

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31
Q

histamine causes

A

vasodilation of vessels
• Increasing blood and cells the area
• Hot and swollen

32
Q

structure of basophils

A

bilobed

many purple granules (acid loving)

33
Q

heparin

A

blood thinner- decreases clotting risk that histamine presents

34
Q

eosinophils main functions

A
  • Phagocytosis pathogens

- Fight parasitic worms and have a role in inflammation/ allergy

35
Q

granules in eosinophils contain

A
  • antihelminth proteins

- acid hydrolases

36
Q

structure of eosinophils

A

2 nuclear lobes

37
Q

name some antihelminth proteins eosinophils secrete

A

major basic proteins

eosinophilic cationic protein

38
Q

granulopoiesis general

A

All 3 lineages go through the process of:

1) Nuclear condensation and lobulation
2) Formation/ increased no. of granules

39
Q

when monocytes in the blood enter tissue they mature into

A

macrophages

40
Q

function of macrophages

A
  • Phagocytosis pathogens, cell debris and senescent cells

* Present foreign antigens i.e. raise the alarm to lymphocytes

41
Q

macrophages are the …… of all mature blood cells

A

largest

42
Q

structure of macrophage

A

unilocular (horseshoe) shaped nucleus

43
Q

thrombopoiesis

A

Is the process of thrombocyte generation.

44
Q

Thromobocytes are

A

ligations of the cytoplasm from megakaryocytes.

45
Q

A single megakaryocyte can give rise

A

to thousands of thrombocytes.

46
Q

thrombocytes (platelet) function

A

• Stop bleeding and mediate haemostasis

47
Q

Haemostasis

A

the prevention of blood loss following damage to a blood vessel,

48
Q

shape of platelets

A

biconvex

contain lots of proteins and clotting factors

49
Q

platelets do not have

A

NUCLEUS’

–> not really classes as a cell

50
Q

what do platelets have on their surface

A

Have specialised receptors on surface which causes platelet aggregation (gpIIb/ gbIIIa)

51
Q

what up regulates thrombopoiesis

A

thrombopoietin from the liver

52
Q

cytoplasm of megakaryocytic =

A

platelets

53
Q

1 megakaryocytic =

A

2000-3000 platelets

54
Q

what upregulates lymphopoiesis (production of lymphoid cells)

A

interluekins

55
Q

3 main types of lymphoid cells

A

T cells
B cells
NK cells

56
Q

T lymphocytes make up …… of the lymphoid cells

A

80%

57
Q

B lymphocytes make up…. of the lymphoid cells

A

20%

58
Q

where do T cells mature

A

thymus

- T cell education

59
Q

T cells kill

A

cancer cell (neoplastic)

virally infected cells

transplanted tissue

60
Q

T cells activate

A

B cells to produce antibodies using IL-4

61
Q

T cells proliferation and activation by which interleukin

A

IL-2

62
Q

B and T cells are microscopically

A

indistinguishable

63
Q

structure of T and B cell

A

• Large nucleus with small rim of cytoplasm

64
Q

journey of a T cell

A

1) T cells start off in the bone marrow or fetal liver and migrate to the thymus to mature
2) After this they migrate to secondary lymphoid organs where they wait to be activated

65
Q

B cells basis of

A

humoral adaptive immunity

66
Q

B cells become ….. and produce…..

A

plasma cells

antibodies

67
Q

B cells produce

A

specific antibodies

68
Q

journey of a B cell

A
  • Maturation occurs in bone marrow and then:
  • Intestines (Peters batches)
  • Spleen
  • Lymph nodes (secondary lymphoid organs)
69
Q

where does haemopoeisis start at the beginning ion the foetal period

A

yolk sac

70
Q

during most of the fatal months haemopoeisis occurs in

A

the liver (mainly) and spleen

71
Q

near the end of the foetal period haemopoeisis occurs sole in the

A

bone marrow

72
Q

plasma is…

A

blood without RBC

73
Q

plasma acts as

A

supporting medium for all circulating blood cells

74
Q

composition of plasma

A
  • Mostly composed of :
  • Water (92%)
  • 8% protein
  • Ions

Proteins:
• Albumin
• Clotting factors
• Hormones, cytokines, antibodies

75
Q

serum is

A

plasma without clotting factor

76
Q

Patient presents with

  • Yellow skin
  • Ascites- oedema in the abdomen
  • Bruises easily

Consultant says ‘get bags of blood ready in case- we will be in trouble if he starts bleeding’.

Clinical findings
- Platelets low- 30 (140-400 10^9)
- INR high- 1.6 (0.9-1.1)
o Very thin blood

Doctor says ‘he’s just vomited blood’

WHAT HAS HAPPENED?

A
  • Damaged liver not producing thrombopoietin (Low platelets- thrombocytopenia)
  • Damaged liver not producing clotting factors (blood is not clotting as well i.e. INR raised)
  • Alcohol causes gastritis- greater risk of ulcers
  • Oesophageal varices associated with ALD