All of Andersen Flashcards by Penny Bowser

Structures that are both medial to the biceps tendon and deep to the bicipital aponeurosis include which of the following?

A. Brachial artery only

B. Median nerve only

C. Median cubital vein only

D. Both the brachial artery and the median nerve

Both the brachial artery and the median nerve

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Almost all infrahyoid muscles are characterized by which of the following innervation patterns? A.hypoglossal nerve B. ansa cervicalis C. C2 D. C2-C3

B. ansa cervicalis

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The cervical sympathetic trunk ascends on the anterior surface(s) of which of the following muscles? A. Longus colli and capitis muscles B. Sternocleidomastoid muscle C. Anterior scalene D. Rectus capitis superior and lateralis muscles

A. Longus colli and capitis muscles

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Most potassium reabsorption occurs at which of the following sites?

A. Ascending loop of Henle

B. Distal convoluted tubule

C. Proximal convoluted tubule

D. Collecting duct

C. Proximal convoluted tubule

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Surfactant is a lipoprotein essential to maintain alveolar function. In a healthy fetus, it is formed in the lungs at what time? A. 24 weeks gestation B. 28 weeks gestation C. 34 weeks gestation D. 38 weeks gestation

A. 24 weeks

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If there is a mutation in the growth hormone receptor and growth hormone is unable to bind to liver cells, what would the outcome be? A.Low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure B. High levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure C. low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, no effect on growth D. lowlevels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, accelerated growth

A.Low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure

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Which of the following structures enters the pharynx by passing between the base of the cranium and the superior edge of the superior pharyngeal constrictor? A. Stylopharyngeus muscle B. Auditory tube C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Salpingopharyngeus muscle

B. Auditory tube

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Inhibin inhibits secretion of FSH by the anterior pituitary and is secreted by which of the following: A. Seminal vesicles B. Prostate gland C. Cells of Leydig D. Sertoli cells

D. Sertoli cells

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A bundle of axons in the central nervous system is referred to by which of the following terms? A. Nucleus B. Tract C. Ganglion D. Nerve E. Gray matter

B. Tract

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Cell bodies of sensory neurons carrying general sensory information from the dura of the middle and anterior cranial fossae, the external surface of the ear drum, and the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are located in which of the following cranial ganglia? A. Trigeminal (semilunar) B. Geniculate C. Superior salivatory nucleus D. Inferior salivatory nucleus

A. Trigeminal (semilunar)

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Cell bodies of the parasympathetic preganglionic fibers to the ciliary ganglion (source of cell bodies of postganglionic fibers to the sphincter pupillae muscle) are located in which of the following? A. Semilunar ganglion B. Geniculate ganglion C. Edinger-Westphal nucleus D. Nucleus ambiguus

C. Edinger-Westphal nucleus

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Which of the following scalene muscles attaches to the second rib? A. Anterior B. Middle C. Posterior D. None of the above, all attach to the first rib

C. Posterior

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Which of the following BEST describes the epineurium?

A. It is a membrane composed of type III collagen surrounding a fascicle.

B. It is a membrane composed of type I collagen surrounding a fascicle.

C. It is a membrane composed of type III collagen surrounding a nerve.

D. It is a membrane composed of type I collagen surrounding a nerve.

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The radial artery in the “anatomical snuff box” may be injured when which of the following bones in fractured?

A. Lunate

B. Scaphoid

C. Capitate

D. Hamate

E. Triquetral

Scaphoid

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Q: Which of the following muscles attaches to both the medial aspect of the femur (linea aspera) and the adductor tubercle, creating the adductor hiatus? A. Gracilis B. Pectineus C. Adductor longus D. Adductor magnus

D. Adductor magnus

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Cells that initially lay down cartilage matrix are best identified as which of the following? A. Chondroclasts B. Osteoclasts C. Chondroblasts D. Chondrocytes E. Fibroblasts

C. Chondroblasts

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What woul be the Va/Q ratio for alveolar blood with a PO2 of 104 and a pCO2 or 40?

A. 2.5

B. 0.8

C. 0

D. Infinity

B. 0.8

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Identify the following specific (layer) structure indicated by the arrow.

A. External root sheath

B. Internal root sheath

C. Cuticle

D. Medulla

B. Internal root sheath

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Which of the following muscle groups is lateral to the others listed below?

A. Longissimus group

B. Interspinales

C. Spinalis groups

D. Transversospinalis group

E. Iliocostalis group

Iliocostalis group

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Identify the tissue shown in this slide.

A. Loose connective tissue

B. Hyaline cartilage

C. Dense bone tissue

D. Adipose tissue

D. Adipose tissue

You shouldn’t need slide

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In the myelinated sheath of peripheral axons, which of the following is important in binding together the outer leaflets of the Schwann cell plasmalemma and helping to compact the cytoplasm?

A. Proteolipid protein

B. Myelin basic protein

C. Major protein zero

D. Connection 32

C. Major protein zero

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Increase in sexual activity, compulsive tendency to place objects in mouth, decreased emotionally, changes in eating behavior and visual agnosia are characteristics of the Kluver-Bucy syndrome. This results which of the following is/are bilaterally destroyed? A.substantia nigra B. red nucleus C. amygdala D. thalamus

C. amygdala

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The medullary rhythmicity center is located in the same area of the brain as the cardiac center and the vasomotor center. The pneumotaxic and apneustic centers are located in which of the following parts of the brain? A. Pons B. Medulla C. Mesencephalon D. Thalamus

A. Pons

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which of the following scalene muscles attaches to the second rib? A. anterior B. middle C. posterior D. all attach to the first rib

C. posterior

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Fetal blood from the right ventricle going to the descending aorta is pumped through which opening? A.Foramen ovale B. Ductus arteriosus C. Ductus venosus D. Foramen soventus

B. Ductus arteriosus

Q: Which of the following forms a muscular sling at the anorectal junction? A. Puborectalis B. Pubococcygeus C. Coccygeus D. Iliococcygeus

A. Puborectalis

Which of the following features marks the boundary between the false (greater) pelvis and the true (lesser) pelvis? A. pelvic brim B. pelvic diaphragm C. perineum D. iliac crests

A. pelvic brim

Which of the following kinds of cells are unique to the pancreas and is associated with the intercalated duct? A. Alpha cells B. Paneth cells C. Centroacinar cells D. Acinar cells

C. Centroacinar cells Lecture 26, Slide 9

A median-sagittal plane is described by which of the following two intersecting axes? A. cranial caudal and the left-right axes B. cranial caudal and the anterior-posterior axes C. left-right and the anterior-posterior axes D. none of the above

B. cranial caudal and the anterior-posterior axes

Which of the following represents the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity? A. Infraglottic cavity B. Rima glottidis C. Rima vestibuli D. Space between the vestibular folds

B. Rima glottidis

Q: The endotrochlear potential of +80 mv is largely due to which of the following factors? A. High concentration of potassium in the endolymph B. High concentration of sodium in the endolymph C. High concentration of potassium in the perilymph D. Low concentration of sodium in the perilymph

A. High concentration of potassium in the endolymph

Q: The pectinate line marks the division between the visceral (endodermal) and somatic (ectodermal) arterial, venous, lymphatic, and nerve supply to the anal canal. A. True B. False

A. True

Which of the following types of cells are found only in the bronchioles and secrete a surface-active lipoprotein that prevents collapse of terminal bronchioles during exhalation? A. Type I alveolar cell B. Type II alveolar cell C. Clara cell D. Dust cell

C. Clara cell

Q: The cerebral cortex has been mapped and divided into specific areas known as Brodmann’s areas. The sensory cortex is associated with which of the following Brodmann’s areas? A. 1, 2, 3 B. 4 C. 7A, 40 D. 44

A. 1, 2, 3

Which of the following extrinsic muscles of the eye is not supplied by the oculomotor nerve? A. lateral rectus B. inferior obliques C. medial rectus D. inferior rectus

A. lateral rectus

Which of the following arteries supplies the medial compartment of the thigh? A. femoral B. obturator C. deep femoral D. saphenous

B. obtruator

The tectorial membrane is a superior extension of which of the following ligaments? A. anterior longitudinal ligament B. posterior longitudinal ligament C. ligamentum flavum D. supraspinous ligament

B. posterior longitudinal ligament

Which of the following is the newest addition to the telencephalon in mammals? A. pallium B. mid-ventricular ridge C. neocortex D. palocortex

C. neocortex

Q: Decussation of the auditory pathways occurs in all of the places listed below except…? A. Trapezoid body B. Lateral lemniscal nuclei C. Commissure connecting the inferior colliculi D. Thalamus

D. Thalamus

The common interosseous artery is a branch off which of the following arteries? A. Brachial B. Ulnar C. Radial D. Radial recurrent E. Anterior interosseous

B. Ulnar

Which of the following levels of blood constituents would NOT be observed in a diabetic coma? A. Low blood glucose B. Low keto acids C. High bicarbonate ion D. Low cholesterol

C. High bicarbonate ion

Identify the layer indicated by the arrow. A. Inner plexiform layer B. Outer nuclear layer C. Outer plexiform layer D. Inner nuclear layer

D. Inner nuclear layer

Which of the following sarcomeric bands is composed entirely of actin filaments? (A) A band (B) H band (C) I band (D) J band

The second heart sound is due to which of the following events? A. Closure of the atrioventricular valves at the onset of ventricular systole B. Opening of the atrioventricular valves at the onset of atrial systole C. Closure of semilunar valves at onset of ventricular diastole D. Opening of semilunar valves at onset of ventricular diastole

C. Closure of semilunar valves at onset of ventricular diastole Heart sounds are made by the closing of valves and are numbered by the order in which they occur in a cardiac cycle (systole followed by diastole). The first heart sound occurs at the beginning of ventricular systole when the AV valves close and the second occurs at the beginning of ventricular diastole when the semilunar valves close.

Which of the following represents a substance that is actively secreted into the renal tubules? A. Urea B. Angiotension II C. Creatinine D. ADP

C. Creatinine

Ducks, geese, and many other species of birds may make long migratory trips during which they fly for long periods of time. Which of the following characteristics would be expected of their flight muscles (pectoralis complex)? A. Theirflightmusclefiberswouldhaverelativelysmall numbers of mitochondria. B. Their flight muscle fibers would have relatively small amounts of myoglobin. C. Their flight muscle fibers would have small concentrations of ATPase. D. Theirflightmuscleswouldhaveamoreextensive sarcoplasmic reticulum.

C. Their flight muscle fibers would have small concentrations of ATPase.

A cubitus varas deformity results in a(n) ____ in the normal carrying angle (5 degrees) and may be caused by a stretching of the _____ collateral ligament. A. Decrease, medial B. Decrease, lateral C. Increase, medial D. Increase, lateral

B. Decrease, lateral

The most common cause of pulonary edema is left sided heart failure or mitral valve disease. Pulmonary edema occurs when pulmonary capillary pressure exceeds which of the following levels? A. 7 mmHg B. 15 mmHg C. 20 mmHg D. 25 mmHg

D. 25 mmHg

Identify the structure indicate by the arrow. A. Bowman’s membrane B. Decemet’s membrane C. Bruch’s membrane D. Pigmented layer

B. Decemet’s membrane Lecture 16, Slide 15

Identify the zone indicated by the arrow. A. Calcification B. Hypertorphy C. Reserve D. Ossification

B. Hypertorphy Lecture 11, Slide 27

The maxillary artery is divided into three parts with reference to its branching pattern. Which of the following structures is used to demarcate the three parts? A. Lateral pterygoid muscle B. Medial pterygoid muscle C. Mandibular ramus and masseter muscle D. Superior alveolar process and temporalis muscle

A. Lateral pterygoid muscle

Q: Thermal sensations are carried in pathways that parallel which of the following pathways? A. Pain B. 2-point sensation C. Vibration D. Crude touch

A. Pain

Which of the following muscles of the anterior antebrachial compartment **does not** take its origin from the humerus? A. Palmaris longus B. Flexor digitorum profundus C. Pronator teres D. Flexor carpi radialis E. Flexor carpi ulnaris

B. Flexor digitorum profundus

Which of the following factors is related to primary (essential) hypertension? A. Sedentary life style B. Preeclampsia C. Renal artery constriction D. Coarctation of the aorta

A. Sedentary life style Primary hypertension is hypertension that does not occur secondary to other medical conditions. It is characterized by increased cardiac output, increased sympathetic nerve activity, increased angiotension II and aldosterone levels, impairment of renal pressure naturesis, and inadequate secretion of water and salt.

Which of the following organs would NOT be seen in a mid- sagittal section of the human body? A. heart B. lungs C. intestine D. transverse colon E. brain

B. lungs (anything paired is not seen in midsagittal section)

The medullary rhythmicity center is located in the same area of the brain as the cardia center and the vasomotor center. The pneumotaxic and apneustic centers are located in which of the following parts of the brain? A.pons B. medulla C. mesencephalon D. thalamus

A.pons

During skeletal muscle contraction, myosin heads go through repeated cycles in which they bind to actin, swivel to produce the power stroke, release from actin, and recock to prepare for the next cycle. One ATP molecule is required for each of these cycles. Which of the following events occurs after ATP binds to the myosin? A. The power stroke resulting in the sliding of the actin along the myosin molecule B. Recocking of the myosin head C. Release of the myosin head from the actin binding site D. Binding of the myosin head to an active site on the actin

C. Release of the myosin head from the actin binding site

Which of the following events occurs first during the transmission of a signal from an alpha motor neuron to a skeletal muscle fiber (A) End-plate Depolarization (EPP) (B) Calcium Ion Influx into Axon Terminal (C) Exocytosis of Synaptic Vesicles (D) Sarcolemma Action Potential

(B) Calcium Ion Influx into Axon Terminal

Q: The adductor tubercle is a site for the partial attachment of the adductor magnus muscle and is found on which of the following sites? A. Inferior border of the inferior pubic ramus B. Lateral border of the lateral tibial condyle C. Medial femoral epicondyle D. Lesser trochanter of the femur

C. Medial femoral epicondyle

The thin descending loop of Henle is highly permeable to which of the following? A. Sodium B. Water C. Urea D. Amino acids

B. Water

Q: Multiple layers form the wall of the scrotum. Which of the following is the deepest layer and is a tough fibrous coat adherent to the testes? A. Dartos fascia B. Tunica albuginea C. Internal spermatic fascia D. Parietal tunica vaginalis

B. Tunica albuginea

Which of the following dural sinuses does not connect directly with the confluence of sinuses? A. straight sinus B. transverse sinuses C. superior sagittal sinus D. inferior sagittal sinus

D. inferior sagittal sinus

a higher than normal back pressure in hepatic veins may lead to the following condition? A. jaundice B. cirrhosis C. ascites D. diabetes

C. ascites

Q: Lesions (damage) to which of the following pathways would affect the transmission of temperature stimuli? A. Lateral spinothalamic pathway B. Anterior spinothalamic pathway C. Dorsal column pathway D. Fasciculus cuneatus pathway E. Fasciculus gracilis pathway

A. Lateral spinothalamic pathway

For the first three to four days after birth, the neonate relies on what energy source? A.Glucose from mother’s milk B. Fat from mother’s milk C. Stored glucose D. Stored protein and fat

D. Stored protein and fat

Identify the sturcture indicated by the letter “A”. A. Canaliculi B. Osteocyte C. Lamella D. Lacuna

D. Lacuna

Q: Which of the following characterizes fast pain? A. It begins about 1 second after the stimulus is applied B. It is carried by Aδ fibers C. It can be elicited by mechanical, thermal, and chemical stimuli. D. Fibers carrying fast pain terminate in the substantia gelatinosa

B. It is carried by Aδ fibers

In the photomicrograph below, what structure is indicated by the arrow? A. Bronchiole B. Pulmonary capillary C. Alveolar duct D. Alveolus

C. Alveolar duct

Which of the following BEST describes the location of the vallecular recesses? A. Lateral to the median glossoepiglottic folds B. Lateral to the lateral glossoepiglottic folds C. Inferior to the lateral glossoepiglottic folds D. Superior to the median glossoepiglottic folds

A. Lateral to the median glossoepiglottic folds

Which of the following relationships is correct? A. The greater the amount of elastic tissue in a blood vessel, the higher the compliance and the lower the elastance. B. The greater the amount of elastic tissue in a blood vessel, the higher the compliance and the elastance. C. The greater the amount of elastic tissue in a blood vessel, the lower the compliance and the elastance. D. The greater the amount of elastic tissue in a blood vessel, the lower the compliance and the greater the elastance.

D. The greater the amount of elastic tissue in a blood vessel, the lower the compliance and the greater the elastance. Elastic tissue is responsible for the elasticity of a blood vessel. Elastance is the reciprocal of compliance.

Erythropoietin directs the CFU-E to proliferate and to differentiate into proerythroblasts. Which of the following sites represents the source of erythropoietin? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Bone marrow D. Spleen

B. Kidney

Which of the following muscles of the anterior antebrachial compartment does not take its origin from the humerus A. Palmaris longus B. Flexor digitorum profundus C. Pronator teres D. Flexor carpi radialis E. Flexor carpi ulnaris

Flexor digitorum profundus

During spermatogenesis residual bodies are eliminated. Residual bodies consist of which of the following components? A. Excess cytoplasm, RER, Golgi B. Excess cytoplasm, RER, mitochondria C. Excess cytoplasm, RER, centrioles D. Excess cytoplasm, RER, nuclear membranes

A. Excess cytoplasm, RER, Golgi

Fenestrated capillaries would NOT be characterized by which of the following? A. The endothelium has neumerous openings (fenestrae). B. The fenestrae may have thin diaphragms. C. The basal lamina is discontinuous. D. They are associated with renal glomeruli.

C. The basal lamina is discontinuous. Lecture 22, Slide 30

Which of the following represents the original cephalic boundary of the neural tube and separates the two lateral ventricles of the telencephalon? A. Papez circuit B. Corpus striatum C. Lamina terminalis D. Neocortex

C. Lamina terminalis

Which of the following properties is a measure of the ease with which a hollow structure may be distended? A. Elastance B. Compliance C. Resistance D. Distensibility

B. Compliance Who knows why, but this is what he said we need to remember the answer as.

Which of the following landmarks on the scapula serves as the site of origin for the long head of the biceps brachii? A. Infraglenoid tubercle B. Supraglenoid tubercle C. Scapular tuberosity D. Coracoid process

B. Supraglenoid tubercle

Q: Most output neurons from the cerebral cortex originate from which of the following cortical layers? A. I and II B. II and III C. III and IV D. IV and V E. V and VI

E. V and VI

Cords of Billroth are associated with which of the following? A. Cortex of lymph nodes B. Cortex of thymus C. White pulp of spleen D. Red pulp of spleen

D. Red pulp of spleen Lecture 18 - Immune Lymphatic System Slide 67

Ryanodine-sensitive calcium ion release channels are part of which of the following structures? (A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (B) Plasmalemma (C) T tubules (D) Z discs

(A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

Kupffer cells are found in which of the following spaces? A.Space of Disse B. Hepatic sinusoids C. Bile canaliculi D. Space of Wirsung

B. Hepatic sinusoids

Which of the following represents the first thing that happens after Ach binds to the ligand-gated channels on the sarcolemma? A. An action potential is created on the sarcolemma. B. Dihydropyridine channels allow entry of calcium ions. C. An end-plate potential is created on the muscle fiber. D. Ryanodingaling channels allow calcium to escape into the myoplasm

C. An end-plate potential is created on the muscle fiber.

Q: Transmission in the foveal region of the retina can be grouped into two different categories: three-neuron and four-neuron. Both types of pathways share the same types of neurons. The four-neuron pathway differs from the three-neuron pathway because it also utilizes which of the following types of neurons? A. Cones B. Bipolar cells C. Ganglion cells D. Amacrine cells

D. Amacrine cells

Flexed arms and legs that resist extension would result in which of the following on the Apgar test? A.A score of 0 B. A score of 1 C. A score of 2 D. Not measured on the Apgar test

C. A score of 2

Identify the types of cells indicated by the arrow. A. Cardiac muslce cells B. Hyaline cartilage cells C. Adipocytes D. Striated cuboidal epithelial cells E. Purkinje cells

E. Purkinje cells

Compounds that dissociate incompletely into hydrogen ions and a conjugate base are members of which of the following compounds? A. Strong acids B. Weak acids C. Strong bases D. Weak bases

B. Weak acids

Which of the following infrahyoid muscles is NOT supplied through the ansa cervicalis? A. Thyrohyoid B. Sternothyroid C. Sternohyoid D. Omohyoid

A. Thyrohyoid

The otolithic membrane of the middle ear is associated with which of the following structures? A. Macula of saccule B. Crista of ampullares C. Semicircular canals D. Organ of Corti

A. Macula of saccule Lecture 17, Slide 13

Cranial-caudal and left-right axes define which of the following kinds of planes? A: coronal B: Sagittal C: parasagittal D: transverse

A. coronal

Which of the following is not part of a Haversian system? A. Lamellae B. Volkmann canals C. Periosteum D. Canaliculi E. Lacunae

C. Periosteum

Cranial nerve nuclei V, VI, and VII are found in which of the following subdivisions of the brain? A. Medulla B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Diencephalon

B. Pons

Which of the following nerves innervate(s) the lumbrical muscles? A. Ulnar nerve B. Median nerve C. Both the ulnar nerve and the median nerve D. Neither the ulnar nerve or the median nerve

Both the ulnar nerve of the median nerve

The Frank-Starling law is based on which of the following principles? A. The greater the stretching of cardiac muscle, the greater the force of contraction. B. The more calcium returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the greater the force of contraction. C. The amount of blood received by each tissue is directly related to the immediate needs of the that tissue. D. The faster the heart rate, the more likely that the period of diastasis will be eliminated.

A. The greater the stretching of cardiac muscle, the greater the force of contraction.

Q: Which of the following is found in the femoral triangle but not the femoral sheath? A. Femoral artery B. Femoral vein C. Femoral nerve D. Lymphatics

C. Femoral nerve

the muscle of the suboccipital triangle are innervated by which of the following nerves? A. occipital nerve B. cervical nerve 1 C. cervical nerve 2 D. cervical nerve 3

B. cervical nerve 1

Which of the following sequences best describes the flow of red blood cells through the spleen? A. Trabecular arteries, central arteries, splenic arteries, penicillius, venous sinuses B. Splenic artery, central arteries, trabecular arteries, venous sinuses, penicillus C. Trabecular arteries, splenic arteries, central arteries, peniccillus, venous sinuses D. Splenic artery, trabecular arteries, central arteries, penicillus, venous sinuses

D. Splenic artery, trabecular arteries, central arteries, penicillus, venous sinuses Lecture 18 - Immune Lymphatic System Slide 68

Q: The ejaculatory ducts open into which of the following regions? A. Bulbourethral duct B. Seminal colliculus C. Prostatic sinus D. Bulbourethral glands

B. Seminal colliculus

The thalamus is a paired complex of many nuclei, some of which are associated with relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex. Others relay motor information from the cerebral cortex, and some serve to integrate the others. Which of the following relay information to the primary auditory cortex of the cerebral cortex? A. Medial geniculate B. Lateral geniculate C. Ventral posterior D. Anterior

A. Medial geniculate

The oocyte maturation-inhibiting factor that keeps ovum suspended in its primordial state prior to puberty is secreted by which of the following? A. anterior pituitary B. hypothalamus C. granulosa cells D. corpus luteum

C. granulosa cells

Laceration of the recurrent branch of the median nerve will paralyze which of the following muscles of the thumb? A. Flexor pollicis brevis B. Abductor pollicis longus C. Abductor pollicis brevis D. Extensor pollicis brevis E. Extensor pollicis longus

Flexor pollicis brevis

Cardiac muscle cells are characterized by the pressence of intercalated discs. These structures provide structural integrity to the cardiac muscle tissue and also facilitate transmission of impulses from one cell to another. Which of the following membrane specialization areassociated with the longitudinal component of the disc? A. Macula adherentes B. Gap junctions C. Fascia adherentes D. Actin and desmin filaments

B. Gap junctions

Identify the following type of tissue. A. Skeletal muscle B. Fibrous connective tissue C. Cardiac muscle D. Smooth muslce

C. Cardiac muscle

During exercise, total peripheral resistance decreases because of the effect of which of the following? A. The sympathetic nervous system on splanchnic nerve B. The parasympathetic nervous system on the skeletal muscle arterioles C. Local metabolites of the skeletal muscle arterioles D. Local metabolites on the cerebral arteries

C. Local metabolites of the skeletal muscle arterioles The most important factor regulating vasomotion (which directly effects peripheral resistance) is the local oxygen (a metabolite) concentration in the tissues. The factors regulating blood flow control specifically in muslce tissues include oxygen, adenosine, potassium, ATP, lactic acid, and CO2.

Which of the following is the most important means for the exchange of substances between the blood and interstitial fluid? A. Blood hydrostatic pressure B. Capillary oncotic pressure C. Diffusion D. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure E. Osmotic pressure

C. Diffusion Lipid souble substances diffuse through capillary cell membranes. Non-lipid-soluble substances diffuse through intercellular pores/clefts.

Which of the following represent the spinal cord levels of origin for the phrenic nerve? A. C1-4 B. C2-5 C. C3-5 D. C3-7

C. C3-5

What is the glomerular filtration rate if the urine concentration rate of a substance is 125 mg/mL; the flow rate is 2 mL/min; and the plasma concentraiton of the substance is 1mg/mL? A. 10 B. 25 C. 125 D. 250

D. 250

Which of the following areas of the brainstem is thought to be involved in emotional and visceral responses to odors? A.red nucleus B. restiform bodies C. pineal body D. habenular nuclei

C. pineal body

Q: The greater sciatic notch is converted into superior and inferior parts by which of the following features? A. Sartorius muscle B. Iliacus muscle C. Ilioinguinal ligament D. Piriformis muscle

D. Piriformis muscle

All of the following muscles elevate the mandible EXCEPT? A. Temporalis B. Masseter C. Lateral pterygoid D. Medial pterygoid

C. Lateral pterygoid

Lesions affecting the trigeminal nerve resulting in loss of general sensation to the face on the same side and paralysis to muscles of mastication occur in which brain subdivision? A. telencephalon B. diencephalon C. mesencephalon D. metencephalon E. myelencephalon

D. metencephalon

Which of the following types of cells are associated with the blood-brain barrier. A. Astrocytes B. Oligodendrocytes C. Schwann cells D. Microglial cells

A. Astrocytes

Q: Which of the following association areas plays the greatest single role of any part of the cerebral cortex for intelligence? A. Broca’s area B. Postcentral gyrus C. Precentral gyrus D. Wernicke’s area

D. Wernicke’s area

Compared to non-progressive shock, which of the following is one of the most important features of progressive shock? A. Sympathetic reflexes B. Hemorrhagic in origin C. Cardiac depression D. Increased vascular permeability

B. Hemorrhagic in origin Continued loss of blood volume counteracts the bodies attempts to compensate for cardiac output. Eventually levels of cardiac output get low enough that they are not able to provide adequate blood supply to the heart through the coronary arteries which leads to a positive feedback mechanism resulting in progressive loss of cardiac output.

Q: What muscle attaches to blue # 30 in the photograph below? (See lecture 4, slide 13 of the femur: proximal posterior) A. Quadratus femoris B. Vastus medialis C. Iliopsoas D. Gluteus maximus

C. Iliopsoas

Addison’s disease is due to a deficiency of which of the following? A. Glucocorticoids B. Mineralocorticoids C. Androgenic hormones D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

Extensive bilateral lesions involving the mid-pons and the midbrain reticular formation are associated with which of the following conditions? A.consciousness but quadriplegic B. coma C. hypotonia D. unconscious regulation and coordination of motor activities

B. coma

Q: Axons of which of the following cells make up the optic nerve? A. Bipolar cells B. Amacrine cells C. Interplexiform cells D. Ganglion cells E. Rod and cone cells

D. Ganglion cells

Which of the following characteristics would be true for cortical nephrons? A. Glomeruli lie deep in the cortex near the medulla of the kidney and have short loops of Henle. B. Glomeruli lie deep in the cortex near the medulla of the kidney and have long loops of Henle. C. Glomeruli lie in the outer cortex and have short loops of Henle. D. Glomeruli lie in the outer cortex and have long efferent arterioles.

C. Glomeruli lie in the outer cortex and have short loops of Henle. Glomeruli that are in the cortex near the medulla with long loops of Henle which extend into the medulla are called juxtamedullary nephrons.

Identify the muscle indicated by the arrow. A. Latissimus dorsi B. Trapezius C. Rhomboid major D. rhomboid minor

Trapezius

In the early stages of development, the trophoblast will give rise to which of the following structures? A.Amnion and placenta only B. amnion, embryo, and yolk sac only C. placenta only D. placenta and yolk sac only

C. placenta only

Q: Which of the following represents the lateral boundary of the femoral triangle? A. Adductor magnus B. Adductor longus C. Sartorius D. Pectineus

C. Sartorius

Identify the reddish hollow structure in the center of the attached photomicrograph. A, Vein B. Trachea C. Bronchiole D. Alveolar duct

C. Bronchiole

Increase in sexual activity, compulsive tendency to place objects in mouth, decreased emotionality, changes in eating behavior and visual agnosia are characteristics of the Kluver-Bucy syndrome. This results when which of the following is/are bilaterally destroyed? A. substantia nigra B. red nucleus C. amygdala D. thalamus

C. amygdala

Fertilization occurs in the upper third of the fallopian tube. By the time the blastocyst reaches the uterus, it consists of approximately how many cells? A. 11 B.48 C.100 D.1,000

C.100

Which of the following is part of the pyramidal system of motor pathways? A. rubrospinal tract B. vestibulospinal tract C. corticospinal tract D. reticulospinal tract

C. corticospinal tract

Which of the following cells play a major role in the secretion of potassium? A. Intercalated cells B. Principal cells C. Chief cells D. Podocytes

B. Principal cells

Which of the following infrahyoid muscles is NOT supplied through the ansa cervicalis? A. Thyrohyoid B. Sternothyroid C. Sternohyoid D. Omohyoid

A. Thyrohyoid

the spinal cord proper ends at which of the following levels? A. L5/S1 B. S5 C. L2 D. L4

C. L2

Q: Although a small number of fibers in the slow-chronic paleospinothalamic pathway pass all the way to the thalamus, most fibers terminate in which of the following areas? A. Somatosensory cortex B. Basal nuclei C. Reticular formation D. Ventrobasal nuclei

C. Reticular formation

Cranial nerves characterized by the special visceral motor modality supply which of the following? A. Smooth muscles of the gut tract B. Skeletal muscles C. Muscles derived from pharyngeal arches D. Autonomic motor muscles

C. Muscles derived from pharyngeal arches

Q: Which of the following structures attach the menisci to the rims of the tibial plateaus? A. Coronary B. Cruciates C. Collaterals D. Fibular collateral ligament

A. Coronary

Flow of nutrients and oxygen to osteocytes depends on a system of passageways within the bone matrix itself. Which of the following are responsible for conducting these nutrients directly to the osteocytes embedded within the bone? A. Haversian canal B. Volkmann canal C. Canaliculi D. Capillaries

C. Canaliculi

dihydropyridine (DHP) channels are part of which of the following structures? A. sarcoplasmic reticulum B. plasmalemma C. T tubules D. Z discs

C. T tubules

Using the Flick principle for calculating the cardiac output, the patient’s oxygen consumption volume could be divided by which of the following? A. The difference between the oxygen concentration in the systemic arterial blood and the systemic mixed venous blood. B. The difference between the oxygen concentration in the systemic arterial blood and the pulmonary vein. C. The difference between the oxygen concentration in the systemic mixed venous blood and the pulmonary vein. D. The difference between the oxygen concentraiton in the systemic mixed venous blood and the pulmonary artery.

A. The difference between the oxygen concentration in the systemic arterial blood and the systemic mixed venous blood. Flick’s principle: cardiac output = oxygen absorption per minute / the difference in arteriovenous oxygen concentration Arterial oxygen concentraiton - venous oxygen concentration is how much oxygen the body used from the blood as it fully circulated. Oxygen absorption from the blood will fully replenish this.

Which part of the cerebral cortex develops a "motor image" of the total muscle movement that is to be performed? A. primary motor cortex B. supplemental motor cortex C. premotor cortex D. supplemental sensory cortex

C. premotor cortex

Floccular lobes in the cerebellum of reptiles may correspond to restiform bodies in cartilaginous fishes. This function is most likely related to which of the following? A. Taste B. Sight C. Memory D. Equilibrium

D. Equilibrium

Two small cartilages possess two processes each, a muscular process and a vocal process. The vocal attachments of the two small cartilages are attached to the vocal ligaments. These cartilages are able to swivel by way of ball and socket type of joint, allowing them to increase or decrease tension on the vocal ligaments. The ball and socket joints allow these cartilages to swivel on which of the following? A. arytenoid cartilages B. corniculate cartilages C. cricoid cartilage D. cuneiform cartilages

C. cricoid cartilage

Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT exit the cranial cavity through the superior orbital fissure? A. Oculomotor nerve B. Abducens nerve C. Maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve D. Trochlear nerve

C. Maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve

Which of the following characterize postganglionic neurons in the ANS? A. They are myelinated; cell bodies are located in the CNS; they all use acetylcholine B. They are myelinated; cell bodies are located in the PNS; they all use norepinephrine. C. Cell bodies are located in the PNS, they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine. D. Cell bodies are located in the CNS; they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine.

C. Cell bodies are located in the PNS, they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine.

Which of the following conditions increases the systemic filling pressure by decreasing vascular compliance? A. Lying down B. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system C. Burn trauma D. Inhibition of the sympathetic system

A. Lying down

Decreased concentrations of calcium ion in the plasma would have a direct effect on which of the following? A. Activation of vitamin D3 B. Increase in interstitial calcium ion reabsorption C. Increased release of parathyroid hormone D. Release of calcium ion from bones

C. Increased release of parathyroid hormone

The anterior belly of the digastric nerve is derived from the first pharyngeal arch and is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Glossopharyngeal D. Hypoglossal

B. Trigeminal

High resistance in which of the following groups of vessels results in a disappearance in the phasic pressure pattern such as is seen in the aorta? A. Pulmonary arteries B. Systemic arterioles C. Systemic veins D. Pulmonary capillaries

B. Systemic arterioles Resistance is the inverse of conductance/compliance and the less compliant a vessel is the less its volume changes with changes in pressure, such as those seen in the aorta. The equation for pulse pressure is: (stroke volume) / (arterial compliance).

Identify the structure seen in the photo micrograph below. A. Meissner’s corpuscle B. Hassal’s corpuscle C. Arteriole D. Pacini corpuscle

D. Pacini corpuscle

Q: Which of the following layers of the uterus undergo the most pronounced changes during the menstrual cycle? A. Endometrium B. Myometrium C. Perimetrium D. Mensometrium

A. Endometrium

Reynolds number is a measure of which of the following parameters? A. Tendency for turbulence B. Blood pressure C. Conductance D. Resistance

A. Tendency for turbulence A higher Reynolds number indicates a higher tendency for turbulence.

Which of the following may be considered to be the center for homeostasis? A.epithalamus B. hypothalamus C. thalamus D. RAS

B. hypothalamus

The infraorbital foramina (notches) are associated with which of the following? A. maxillary bone B. frontal bone C. zygomatic bone D. parietal bone

A. maxillary bone

Which of the following muscles is most important in rotating the greater tubercle from under the acromion during full arm elevation? A. Teres minor B. Infraspinatus C. Supraspinatus D. Subscapularis E. Pectoralis minor

B. Infraspinatus

Coordination of skilled movement and speech is primarily associated with which of the following divisions of the cerebellum? A. vestibulocerecellum B. spinocereceullum C. cerecrocerecellum D. vermis

C. cerevrocerebellum

Q: The ligamentum teres attaches to the fovea of the head of the femur and supports a small artery that supplies the head of the femur. This small artery is a branch of which of the following? A. Femoral B. Obturator C. Superficial iliac D. Pudendal

B. Obturator

Special visceral motor (SVM) modality supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle via which of the following cranial nerves? A. Cranial nerve IX B. Cranial nerve X C. Cranial nerve XI D. Cranial nerve XII

A. Cranial nerve IX

a median-sagital plane is described by which of the following two intersecting axes? A. cranial caudal and the left-right axes B. cranial caudal and the anterior -posterior axes C. left-right and anterior-posterior axes D. none of the above

B. cranial caudal and the anterior-posterior axes

Which of the following nerves enters the forearm by passing between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris? A. Ulnar B. Median C. Radial D. Musculocutaneous E. Axillary

A. Ulnar

Q: The thalamus is derived from which of the following brain divisions? A. Telencephalon B. Diencephalon C. Mesencephalon D. Metencephalon E. Myelencephalon

B. Diencephalon

Identify the larger, reddish cells below. A. Pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex B. Purkinje cells of the cerebral cortex C. Psuedounipolar cortex D. Neuroglial cells

A. Pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex Lecture 15, Slide 29

Which of the following nerves does not innervate the intrinsic muscles of the plantar surface of the foot? A. tibial B. deep fibular C. superficial fibular D. lateral plantar

B. deep fibular

Which of the following arteries branches from the third part of the maxillary artery? A. Posterior superior alveolar B. Buccal C. Inferior alveolar D. Middle meningeal

A. Posterior superior alveolar

The chorda tympani carries branches of which of the following nerves inside the petrous portion of the temporal bone? A. Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve B. Facial nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Vagus nerve

B. Facial nerve

The anterior and middle superior alveolar arteries are direct branches of which of the following? A. Second part of the maxillary artery B. Mandibular artery C. Infraorbital artery D. Buccal artery

C. Infraorbital artery

Which of the following BEST represents the most important function of insulin in the body? A. Activates phosphorylase and phosphatase necessary for the uptake of glucose by the liver. B. Controls from moment to moment whether fat or carbohydrate will be used by cells for energy. C. Activates lipoprotein lipase to split triglycerides into fatty acids. D. Activates the ornithine transport mechanism.

B. Controls from moment to moment whether fat or carbohydrate will be used by cells for energy.

the anterior compartment of the brachium (arm) contains the biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, and brachialis muscles. which of the following nerves suppolies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the brachium? A. ulnar nerve B. median nerve C. radial nerve D. musculocutaneous nerve E. axillary nerve

D. musculocutaneous nerve

Lesions affecting the trigeminal nerve resulting in loss of general sensation to the face on the same side and paralysis to muscles of mastication occur in which brain subdivision? A. Telencephalon B. Diencephalon C. Mesencephalon D. Metencephalon E. Myelencephalon

D. Metencephalon

Blood flow resistance is inversely (indirectly) proportional to which of the following? A. Viscosity B. Vessel diameter C. Density D. Both A and C

B. Vessel diameter An equation for blood flow resistance is: (8 x vessel length x viscosity) / (π x R^4).

Without autoregulation, a slight increase in blood pressure could increase GFR up to 225 L/day. How much would this increase urine flow (excretion). A. 20L/day B. 32.7 L/day C. 46.5 L/day D. 180 L/day

C. 46.5 L/day

In the photomicrograph below, identify the specific type of cell indicated by the arrow. A. Chief cell B. Paneth cell C. Parietal cell D. Goblet cell

B. Paneth cell Lecture 24, Slide 30

about two-thirds of filtered electrolytes are reabsorbed in which part of the kidney tubule? A. proximal convoluted tubule B. thin descending loop of Henle C. thick ascending loop of Henle D. distal convoluted tubule

A. proximal convoluted tubule

Postganglionic fibers associated with which of the following cranial nerves provide parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular glands? A. Occulomotor nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Facial nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

C. Facial nerve

Identify the type of tissue shown in this slide. A. Areolar connective tissue B. Hyaline cartilage C. Nervous tissue D. Irregular dense connective tissue

A. Areolar connective tissue Lecture 8, Slide 13

Identify the following type of tissue. A. Dense irregular connective tissue B. Fibrous connective tissue C. Cardiac muscle D. Smooth muslce

D. Smooth muslce Lecture 14, Slide 13

In order for an acetylcholine-gated ion channel to open, how many Ach molecules are necessary to attach to its alpha subunits? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four.

B. Two.

which of the following heart activities is represented in the attached ECG A. sinus tachycardia B. sinus bradycardia C. complete AV block D. incomplete second degree block with dropped beats

C. complete AV block

identify the muscle indicated by the arrow A. latissimus dorsi B. trapezius C. thomboid major D. rhomboid minor

B. trapezius

This protein extends from the Z band of a sarcomere and serves as a template to regulate the length of an actin filament. A. Titin B. Z-actin C. Troponin D. Nebulin E. Plectin

D. Nebulin

The inferior alveolar nerve passes through the mandibular canal and terminates as the mental nerve. The inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of which cranial nerve? A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Hypoglossal D. Glossopharyngeal

C. Hypoglossal

The origin of the axons that make up the optic nerve originate from which of the following? A. Rod cells of the retina B. Amacrine cells of the retina C. Ganglion cells of the retina D. Cone cells of the retina

C. Ganglion cells of the retina

postganglionic fibers from which of the following region of the sympathetic trunk supply all the smooth muscles and glands of the head? A. superior sympathetic ganglion B. middle sympathetic ganglion C. inferior sympathetic ganglion D. stellate ganglion

A. superior sympathetic ganglion

The skin over the hypothenar eminence is supplied by which of the following nerves? A. Superficial radial B. Deep radial C. Ulnar D. Median E. Posterior interosseous

C. Ulnar

Prothrombin is the inactive form of thrombin. It is activated by which of the following factors when the factor comes into contact with collagen in the damaged vessel wall? A. Factor V B. Factor X C. Factor XII D. Factor XIII

C. Factor XII

The vesicles for acetylcholine are transported to the axon terminal from where? A. Rough ER B. Smooth ER C. The axon terminal membrane D. Golgi

D. Golgi

Which of the following conditions may result in tachycardia? A. Toxic conditions of the heart B. Increased body temperature C. Sympathetic nerve stimulation D. All of the above E. B and C only

D. All of the above (toxic conditions of the heart, increased body temperature, and sympathetic nerve stimulation)

the output from the cerebellar cortex is from which of the following types of neurons? A. Golgi type I B. Purkinje C. Stellate D. Basket

B. Purkinje

Q: Most of the nerves of the lumbar plexus extend lateral to the psoas major muscle. Which of the following nerves pierces the psoas major and lies on its anterior surface? A. Femoral B. Obturator C. Ilioinguinal D. Iliohypogastric E. Genitofemoral

E. Genitofemoral

Which of the following acts as an antihypertensive agent by being uptaken by adrenergic neurons and replacing norepinephrine in the synaptic vesicles? A. Methoxamine B. Albuterol C. Guanethidine D. Phenoxybenzadine

C. Guanethidine

Identify the tissue type. A. Fibrous cartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. Hyaline cartilage D. Membranous bone

C. Hyaline cartilage

Q: Which of the following structures passes through both the greater and the lesser sciatic foramina? A. Piriformis muscles B. Sciatic nerve C. Pudendal nerve D. Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve

C. Pudendal nerve

Normally, how much hydrogen ions must be secreted each day in order to reabsorb 4320 mEq of filtered bicarbonate? A. 2160 mEq B. 4320 mEq C. 8640 mEq D. The two processes are independent of one another

B. 4320 mEq

Which of the following represents the area of the highest visual acuity? A. Ora serrata B. Optic disc C. Foeva centralis D. Macula densa

C. Foeva centralis

Which of the following areas of the brain stem is thought to be involved in pain suppression? A.red nucleus B. restiform bodies C. periaquaductal gray D. vagal lobes

C. periaquaductal gray

The cranial end of the embryonic neural tube becomes subdivided into five subdivisions, each of which forms specific parts of the adult brain. The thalamus is derived from which of the following subdivisions? A. Telencephalon B. Diencephalon C. Mesencephalon D. Metencephalon E. Myelencephalon

B. Diencephalon

the thalamus is derived from which of the following brain divisions? A. telencephalon B. diencephalon C. mesencephalon D. metencephalon E. myelencephalon

B. diencephalon

Blood supply to the larynx is through superior and inferior laryngeal arteries. These are direct branches of which of the following? A. Inferior thyroid arteries B. Middle branches of the maxillary arteries C. Laryngeal branches of the external carotid artery D. Pharyngeal branches of the external carotid artery

A. Inferior thyroid arteries

Which of the following reflects the maximum urine concentration that can be produced by the kidneys? A. 6000-7000 mOsm/L B. 5500-6000 mOsm/L C. 1200-1400 mOsm/L D. 2000-2400 mOsm/L

C. 1200-1400 mOsm/L

Which of the following spaces separates hepatocytes from the endothelial cells in hepatic lobules? A. Space of Disse B. Space of Mall C. Space of Herring D. Space of Cholangiocele

A. Space of Disse Lecture 26, Slide 21

Under normal conditions at rest, which of the following patterns regarding pulmonary blood flow would be most likely? A. Apices: zone 1; middle part of lungs: zone 1; lower part of lungs: zone 3 B. Apices: zone 2; middle part of lungs: zone 2; lower part of lungs: zone 3 C. Apices: zone 2; middle part of lungs: zone 3; lower part of lungs: zone 3 D. Apices: zone 3; middle part of lungs: zone 2; lower part of lungs: zone 1

C. Apices: zone 2; middle part of lungs: zone 3; lower part of lungs: zone 3

Death due to hypoparathyroidism is often due to which of the following effects? A. Massive losses of calcium from the skeletal system. B. Excessive reabsorption of sodium followed by tetany. C. Laryngeal muscle spasms. D. Vitamin D deficiency

C. Laryngeal muscle spasms.

Q: Which of the following is the neurotransmitter used by many areas of the cerebral cortex and is always excitatory? A. Serotonin B. Glutamate C. Dopamine D. GABA E. Glycine

B. Glutamate

Two small cartilages possess two processes each, a muscular process and a vocal process. The vocal attachments of the two small cartilages are attached to the vocal ligaments. These cartilages are able to swivel by way of a ball-and-socket type of joint, allowing them to increase or decrease tension on the vocal ligaments. The ball-and-socket joints allow these cartilages to swivel on which of the following? A. Arytenoid cartilages B. Corniculate cartilages C. Cricoid cartilage D. Cuneiform cartilages

C. Cricoid cartilage

Floccular lobes in the cerebellum of reptiles may correspond to restiform bodies in cartilaginous fishes. This function is most likely related to which of the following? A.taste B.sight C. memory D. equilibrium

D. equilibrium

Which of the following are anchored to the presynaptic membrane and associated with synaptic vesicles to which they are tethered by short filaments? A. Synaptic vesicles B. Calcium channels C. Dense bars D. Dihydropyridine channel

C. Dense bars

Which of the following reflects the maximum urine concentration that can be produced by the kidneys? A. 6000-7000 mOsm/L B. 5500-6000 mOsm/L C. 1200-1400 mOsm/L D. 2000-2400 mOsm/L

C. 1200-1400 mOsm/L

in a typical ECG, which of the following waves occurs at the beginning of the contraction of the atria? A. T B. S C. P D. Q

C. P

The nucleus cuneatus and nucleus gracilis are found in which of the following brain subdivisions? A. telencephalon B. diencephalon C. mesencephalon D. metencephalon E. myelencephalon

E. myelencephalon

Electrotonic conduction is utilized predominantly by the: A. Axon B. Dendrite C. Axon hillock D. Synapse

B. Dendrite

The calcaneus bone is a component of which of the following subdivisions of the foot? A. hindfoot B. midfoot C. forefoot D. mortise and tenon joint

A. hindfoot

Which of the following describes a valid change in potassium distribution due to an acid-base abnormality? A. Metabolic acidosis decreases extracellular K+ concentration B. Metabolic alkalosis increases extracellular K+ concentration C. Metabolic acidosis increases extracellular K+ concentration D. Both A and B

C. Metabolic acidosis increases extracellular K+ concentrationV

The electrocardiogram shown indicates which of the following conditions? A. Tachycardia B. Bradycardia C. SA node block D. AV block

D. AV block There are several P waves present without a QRS segment. This means that the electrical activity generated from the SA node is not reaching the ventricle. This is characteristic of an AV block

extrensive bilateral lessions involving the mid-pons and the midbrain reticular formation are associated with which of the following conditions? A. consciousness of quadriplegic B. coma C. hypotonia D. unconscious regulation and coordination of motor activities

B. coma

Which of the following represents the lateral boundary of the femoral triangle? A. adductor magnus B. adductor longus C. sartorius D. pectineus

C. sartorius

Which of the following areas of the brain secretes melatonin and is involved in regulating circadian rhythms? A.thalamus B. hypothalamus C. pineal body D. inferior colliculi

C. pineal body

Which of the following conditions describes the effects of the ANS on sweat glands in the hands and feet? A. Parasympathetic; cholinergic B. Parasympathetic; adrenergic C. Sympathetic; cholinergic D. Sympathetic; adrenergic

C. Sympathetic; cholinergic

ADH (anti-diuretic hormone) is formed in the supraoptic and paraventriacular nulcei. It is secreted by specialized neurons from which of the following areas? A. Adrenal cortex B. Adrenal medulla C. Anterior pituitary D. Posterior pituitary

D. Posterior pituitary

What is the approximate angle of inclination in the average young adult? A. 175 B. 150 C. 125 D. 74 E. 15

C. 125

The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial cavity via which of the following foramina? A. Ovale B. Rotundum C. Spinosum D. Lacerum

C. Spinosum

Identify muscle in the drawing indicated by the number “1”. A. Flexor digitorum profundus B. Flexor digitorum superficialis C. Extensor pollicis longus D. Flexor carpi radialis longus

A. Flexor digitorum profundus

Which of the following represents the first thing that happens after Ach binds to the ligand-gated channels on the sarcolemma? A. an action potential is created on the sarcolemma B. dihydropyridine channels allow entry of calcium ions C. an end-plate potential is created on the muscle fiber D. ryanodingaling channels is allow calcium to escape into the myoplasm

C. an end-plate potential is created on the muscle fiber

What type of cell is depicted in the following photomicrograph? A. Oligodendrocyte B. Golgi type II cell C. Astrocyte D. Golgi type I cell

C. Astrocyte

In neuromuscular spindles, intrafusal fibers within the neuromuscular spindles are supplied by which of the following fibers? A. Alpha fibers B. Gamma fibers C. Delta fibers D. Beta fibers E. None of the above

B. Gamma fibers

in the photomicrograph below, the arrow is pointing to which of the following layers? A. stratum basale (germinativum) B. stratus spinosum C. stratum granulosum D. stratum corneum

A. stratum basale (germinativum)

The thoracolumbar fascia is a triangular-shaped sheet of tough connective tissue covering the lower back. It is the partial site of origin of the latissimus dorsi and abdominal oblique muscles. This fascia can be divided into three layer or laminae. Which of the laminae attaches to the lumbar spinous processes? A. Posterior B. Middle C. Anterior D. All three layers attach to the lumbar spinous process

Posterior

The innervation of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles would be described by which of the following modalities? A. General visceral motor B. General somatic motor C. Special visceral motor D. Special somatic motor

C. Special visceral motor

Which of the following inserts onto the tubercle of the first rib between the shallow groove for the subclavian artery and vein? A. Middle scalene B. Anterior scalene C. Posterior scalene D. Sternocleidomastoid

Anterior scalene

Sequentially flexing, abducting, extending, and adducting your arm (brachium) in such a manner that the elbow describes a circular pattern is referred to by which of the following terms? A. Rotation B. Supination C. Circumduction D. Reposition E. Protraction

C. Circumduction

Cranial nerve nuclei V, VI, VII are found in which of the following subdivisions of the brain? A. medulla B. pons C. midbrain D. diencephalon

B. pons

nerve supplhy to the latissimus dorsi is through which of the following nerves? A. lateral pectoral nerve B. medial pectoral nerve C. long thoracic nerve D. spinal accessory nerve E. thoracodorsal nerve

E. thoracodorsal nerve

How many cervical vertebrae are present in the human vertebral column? A. five B. six C. seven D. eight E. nine

C. seven

The posterior belly of the digastric muscle is derived from the second pharyngeal arch and is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Glossopharyngeal D. Hypoglossal

A. Facial

The photomicrograph below is taken from which of the following organs? A. Fundic stomach B. Ureter C. Renal cortex D. Tongue

B. Ureter

Which of the following nerves supplies the anterior brachium? A. Ulnar nerve B. Median nerve C. Radial nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve E. Axillary nerve

Musculocutaneous

Ventral rami from which of the following levels of the spinal cord make up the cervical plexus? A. C1-C3 B. C1-C4 C. C1-C5 D. C2-C4

B. C1-C4

Which of the following types of cells stain with toluidine blue and are characterized by large metachromatic granules containing histamine, ECF-A, SRS-A, and heparin? A. Fibrocyte B. Plasma cells C. Mast cells D. Macrophages

C. Mast cells

which of the following landmakrs demarcates the sensory cortex from the motor cortex? A. lateral sulcus B. central sulcus C. insala D. angular gyrus

B. central sulcus

In the progression from primordial germ cells to mature sperm cells, which of the following would be the first cells to have a haploid genome? A. Primary spermatocytes B. Secondary spermatocytes C. Spermatids D. Mature sperm cells

B. Secondary spermatocytes

The aryepiglottic ligament and the corniculate cartilages form boundaries for which of the following? A.rima glottidis B. laryngeal inlet C. esophagus D. trachea

B. laryngeal inlet

Which muscle is contained within the superficial cervical fascia? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Platysma C. Pectoralis major D. Pectoralis minor E. Axillary muscle

B. Platysma

Phase 4 of the cardiac muscle action potential is the resting phase. Which of the following cardiac tissues will depolarize fastest during this phase and eventually reach threshold? A. SA node B. AV node C. purkinje fibers D. ventricular myocytes

A. SA node

Q: Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the external sphincter? A. It extends the entire length of the anal canal. B. It is a thick ring of smooth muscle. C. It is controlled voluntarily via the pudendal nerve. D. It is supplied by the inferior rectal artery.

B. It is a thick ring of smooth muscle.

The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial cavity via which of the following foramina? A. Ovale B. Rotundum C. Spinosum D. Lacerum

C. Spinosum

The photomicrograph below depicts a section from which of the following organs? A. Jejunum B. Olfactory epithelium C. Lip D. Trachea

D. Trachea

Q: Which of the following functions as the major area for language comprehension? A. Broca’s area B. Medial geniculate nucleus C. Thalamus D. Wernicke’s area

D. Wernicke’s area

identify the reddish hollow structure in the center of the attached photomicrograph A. vein B. trachea C. bronchiole D. alveolar duct

C. bronchiole

Baroreceptors are extremely abundant in carotid sinuses and the walls of the aortic arch. Which of the following transmit signals from baroreceptors to cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve)? A. Mueller nerves B. Hering nerves C. Starling nerves D. Purkinje nerves

B. Hering nerves

If the end-diastolic volume is 120 ml, and the end-systolic volume is 50 ml, what is the approximate value of the ejection fraction? A. 42% B. 60% C. 214% D. 240%

B. 60%

Q: In the slow-chronic paleospinothalamic pathway a small number of fibers pass all the way to the thalamus, but most fibers terminate where? A. In the somatosensory cortex B. In the basal nuclei C. In the reticular formation D. In the ventrobasal nuclei

C. In the reticular formation

Which of the following orient themselves on the outside of micelles? A.cholesterol B. Free fatty acids C. Carbohydrates D. Bile Salts

D. Bile Salts

Which cranial nerve supplies parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland? A. Vagus nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Facial nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

Identify the type of cell indicated by the arrow. A. Lymphocyte B. Neutrophil C. Monocyte D. Basophil E. Eosinophil

C. Monocyte Lecture 12, Slide 30

Approximately 40% of plasma calcium is bound to plasma proteins and is not filtered by the kidneys. What effect does acidosis have on plasma calcium ion concentration (unbound)? A. There is an increase in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases. B. There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration decreases. C. There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases. D. There is an increase in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration decreases.

C. There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases.

In the ovarian follicle, both thecal cells and granulosa cells possess receptors for LH and LDL. Which of the following statements BEST characterizes the secretory activities of these cells? A.both thecal and granulosa cells secrete estrogens but not androgens B.both thecal and granulosa cells secrete estrogens and androgens C.thecal cells secrete androgens and granulosa cells secrete estrogens D.thecal cells secrete estrogens and granulosa cells secrete androgens

C.thecal cells secrete androgens and granulosa cells secrete estrogens

Approximately how much of the total cardiac output is received by the kidneys? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

A. 25%

Which of the following represents the viscosity of blood with a hematocrit of 38-42? A. 1.5 B. 3.0 C. 38 D. 42

B. 3.0 The viscosity of blood plasma (blood minus the formed elements, essentially a hematocrit of 0%) is 1.5 due to plasma proteins. The viscosity of blood with a hematocrit of 60-70% is ≈10.

During pregnancy, syncytiotrophoblast cells secrete estrogens. These estrogens are derived from androgens secreted by which of the following sources? A. granulosa cells B. cytotrophoblast cells C. maternal adrenal cortex D. maternal and fetal adrenal cortices

D. maternal and fetal adrenal cortices

identify tissue

adipose tissue

identify type of epithelium

stratified squamous non-keratinized

Identify the tissue type. A. Smooth muscle B. Dense fibrous connective tissue C. Cardiac muslce D. Stratified squamous epitheliumm E. Kidney tubules

A. Smooth muscle

Q: Synaptic delay refers to the time it takes to transmit a signal from a presynaptic neuron to a postsynaptic neuron. It depends on a number of factors. Which of the following would NOT be associated with synaptic delay? A. Time it takes to release the neurotransmitter from the presynaptic neuron. B. Time it takes for the neurotransmitter to diffuse across the synaptic cleft. C. Time it takes to “jump” from one node of Ranvier to the next one. D. Time it takes for the receptor to increase membrane permeability.

C. Time it takes to “jump” from one node of Ranvier to the next one.

Which of the following hypaxial muscles is attached to the hyoid bone but is not part of the infrahyoid group? A. Sternothyroid B. Thyrohyoid C. Geniohyoid D. Omohyoid

C. Geniohyoid

Afferent sensory neurons with cell bodies found in the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves are best described according to which of the following categories? A. Multipolar neurons B. Bipolar neurons. C. Golgi type II neurons D. Pseudounipolar neurons

D. Pseudounipolar neurons

Branches off the external carotid artery are grouped into terminal, anterior, posterior, or medial, depending on which direction they branch from the external carotid. Which of the following branches is a medial branch? A. Facial B. Maxillary C. Ascending pharyngeal D. Superior thyroid

C. Ascending pharyngeal

Which of the following respresnts the oxygen utilization coefficient at rest? A. 15% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75%

B. 25%

Which of the following values (mm Hg) represents the mean diffusion gradient pressure between the PO2 of the mother and the PO2 of the fetus? A.10 B.20 C.30 D.40

B.20

Which of the following structures would not be found in the superior mediastinum? A. esophagus B. azygos vein C. vagus nerves D. thymus E. trachea

B. azygos vein

Q: Which of the following features marks the boundary between the false (greater) pelvis and the true (lesser) pelvis? A. Pelvic brim B. Pelvic diaphragm C. Perineum D. Iliac crests

A. Pelvic brim

The anterior belly of the digastric nerve is derived from the first pharyngeal arch and is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Glossopharygeal D. Hypoglossal

B. Trigeminal

The hormone response element is best characterized by which of the following? A. An intracellular protein that binds to a lipid soluble hormone to form the hormone-receptor complex B. A regulatory sequence of DNA C. Phosphatidylinositol biphosphate component of a second-messenger system D. A tyrosine-binding protein for thyroxine

B. A regulatory sequence of DNA

Excessive variations in blood glucose gasses normally seen in neonates is typically due to which of the following? A.Residual fluid in the lungs B. Underdeveloped central nervous system respiratory center C. High heart rate D. Frequent periods of apnea

D. Frequent periods of apnea

How many pairs of cervical spinal nerves are present in the human? A. five B. six C. seven D. eight E. nine

D. eight

which of the following cell types respond to rapid changes in the visual image? A. bipolar cells B. amacrine cells C. X type ganglion cells D. Y type ganglion cells E. Z type ganglion cells

D. Y type ganglion cells

Nerve supply to the latissimus dorsi is through which of the following nerves? A. Lateral pectoral nerve B. Medial pectoral nerve C. Long thoracic nerve D. Spinal accessory nerve E. Throacodorsal nerve

E. Throacodorsal nerve

Idenitify the type of cell shown in this slide. A. Monocyte B. Lymphocyte C. Neutorphil D. Basophil

B. Lymphocyte Lecture 12, Slide 27

A sharp surge in which of the following hormones preceded ovulation by about 24 hours? A. LH B. FSH C.estrogen D. progesterone

A. LH

Identify muscles indicated by the number 1-3. A. Dorsal interossei B. Palmar interossei C. Lumbricals D. Flexor digitorum breves

Palmar interossei

In the photomicrograph below, the arrow is pointing to which of the following layers? A. Stratum basale (germinativum) B. Stratum spinosum C. Stratum granulosum D. Stratum corneum

A. Stratum basale (germinativum)

Identify the tissue type. A. Hyaline cartilage B. Adipose tissue C. Areolar connective tissue D. Dense bone

A. Hyaline cartilage

What is the lowest limit of pH that can be achieved in the normal kidney? A. 6.5 B. 5.0 C. 4.5 D. 2.5

C. 4.5

The sensory layer of the ciliary body produces aqueous humor. This fluid is first secreted into which of the following chambers? A. Vitreous body B. Anterior chamber C. Posterior chamber D. Canal of Schlemm E. Choroid layer

C. Posterior chamber

The lesser and greater sciatic notches are separated by which of the followign landmarks? A. PSIS B. PIIS C. ischial tuberosity D. ischial spine

D. ischial spine

Q: An eyeball that is too short will cause the light rays coming from distant objects to be focused behind the retina. This condition is referred to as which of the following? A. Emmetropia B. Hyperopia C. Myopia D. Astigmatism E. Presbytropia

B. Hyperopia

A 1-sodium, 2-chloride, and 1-potassium co-transporter is found in the luminal membrane of which part of the renal tubule? A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Thin descending limb of Henle C. Thick ascending limb of Henle D. Distal convoluted tubule

C. Thick ascending limb of Henle

the vagus nerves pass through the diaphragm at which vertebral level? A. T6 B. T8 C. T10 D. T12

C. T10

Aldosterone is an important regulator of sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion; one of its main targets is...? A. Podocytes B. Principle cells C. Intercalated cells D. Cells of the macula densa

B. Principle cells

Which of the following types of cells possess prominent Golgi and extensive RER and that are described as having pale nuclei with a “clock-face” distribution of heterochromatin? A. Fibrocytes B. Plasma cells C. Mast cells D. Macrophages

B. Plasma cells

identify type of gland shown in the photomicrograph below A. submandibular B. sebaceous C. parotid D. Bowman's

B. sebaceous

Which of the following lingual papillae are located along the sulcus terminalis of the tongue as projections surrounded by a moat (circular furrow)? A. Lingual B. Fungiform C. Filiform D. Cicrumvallate

D. Cicrumvallate

Approximately how much of the body’s supply of calcium is stored in bone? A. 1% B. 47% C. 78% D. 99%

D. 99%

Which of the following transcription factors induces proliferation and self-renewal of satellite cells allowing them to become mitotic in times of stress? A. MyoD B. Erythropoietin C. Myogenic regulatory factor My5 D. α7β1 integrin

A. MyoD

Which of the following nerves innervate(s) the adductor pollicis muscle? A. Ulnar nerve only B. Median nerve only C. Both the ulnar nerve and te median nerve D. Neither the ulnar nerve or the median nerve.

Ulnar nerve only

Identify the tissue shown in this slide. A. Areolar connective tissue B. Elastic cartilage C. Nervous tissue D. Irregular dense connective tissue

A. Areolar connective tissue Lecture 8, Slide 12

Which of the following forms a muscular sling at the anorectal junction? A. puborectalis B. pubococcygeus C. coccygeus D. iliococcygeus

A. puborectalis

the axis of rotation for flexion and extension is...? A. longitudinal or cranial-caudal B. left-right or transverse C. anterior-posterior D. none of the above

B. left-right or transverse

Which of the following sarcomeric bands does not undergo a change in length during the contraction of a skeletal muscle? (A) A band (B) H band (C) I band (D) J band

(A) A band

Most of the filtered electrolytes are reabsorbed in which of the following regions of the kidney tubule? A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Descending loop of Henle C. Ascending loop of Henle D. Early collecting duct

A. Proximal convoluted tubule

approximately what percent of the body's calcium is stored in extracellular fluids? A. less than 1 percent B. 25 percent C. 50 percent D. more than 75 percent

A. less than 1 percent

Identify the tissue type. A. Hyaline cartilage B. Dense bone C. Trabecular bone D. Warton’s jelly

C. Trabecular bone

Which of the following areas of the brain stem is thought to be involved in pain suppression? A. Red nucleus B. Restiform bodies C. Periaquaductal gray D. Vagal lobes

C. Periaquaductal gray

Identify the layer indicated by the arrow. A. Inner plexiform layer B. Outer nuclear layer C. Outer plexiform layer D. Ganglion nuclear layer

B. Outer nuclear layer Lecture 16, Slide 33

Proper chewing (mastication) requires that the mandible be moved from side to side and to be retracted and protracted. Which of the following muscles of mastication functions to retract the mandible? A. Temporalis B. Lateral pterygoid C. Medial pterygoid D. Temporalis

D. Temporalis

The human immunodeficiency virus selectively binds to the CD4 antigens. Which of the following types of lymphocytes would be most directly affected by this virus? A. Cytolytic T cells B. Helper T cells C. Natural killer T cells D. Macrophages

B. Helper T cells Lecture 18, Slide 18-19

Q: Which of the following is a measure of how much a lens bends light waves and is equal to 1 meter divided by the focal length of the lens? A. Refractive index B. Visual acuity C. Refractive power D. Depth of focus

C. Refractive power

Q: The medial boundary of the linea aspera is a continuation of which of the following landmarks? A. Pectineal line B. Gluteal tuberosity C. Soleal line D. Intertrochanteric crest E. Intertrochanteric line

A. Pectineal line

An inability to oppose the thumb to the little finger can result from damage to which of the following nerves? A. Ulnar nerve B. Anterior interosseous nerve C. Deep radial nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve E. Median nerve

Median nerve

respiratory alkalosis due to a decrease in carbon dioxide concentration caused by hyperventilation is compensated for by which of the following mechanisms? A. increased ventilation rate B. decreased ventilation rate C. renal excretion of bicarbonate ion D. renal addition of new bicarbonate ion to extracellular fluid (this is a phys I question)

C. renal excretion of bicarbonate ion

Collaterals from the auditory tracts activate the entire nervous system in response to loud noises. Where would you expect these collaterals to terminate? A. Cerebral cortex B. Thalamus C. Red nucleus D. Reticular activating system

D. Reticular activating system

which of the following sarcomeric bands does not undergo a change in length during the contraction of a skeletal muscle? A. A band B. H band C. I band D. J band E. sgt. pepper's lonely hearts club band

A. A band

The range in the pressure change (in cm of water) in alveolar pressure during inspiration is expressed by which of the following? A. 0 to -1 B. -5 to -7.5 C. -7.5 to -5 D. -1 to 0

A. 0 to -1

Which of the following extrinsic muscles of the eye is NOT supplied by the oculomotor nerve? A. Lateral rectus B. Inferior oblique C. Medial rectus D. Inferior rectus

A. Lateral rectus

Insertion of the extensor carpi radialis brevis is on the: A. Base of the second metacarpal B. Tubercle of the scaphoid C. Base of the third metacarpal D. Hamulus of the hamate

C. Base of the third metacarpal

The mandibular branch of the trigeminal exits the cranial cavity through which of the following foramina? A. Foramen ovale B. Foramen spinosum C. Foramen rotundum D. Foramen lacerum

A. Foramen ovale

Which interneurons are responsible for inhibition of antagonistic muscle groups? A. Renshaw cells B. Ia inhibitory interneurons C. Ib inhibitory interneurons D. Gamma motor neurons

B. Ia inhibitory interneurons

Which of the following forms the anterior boundary of the infratemporal fossa? A. TMJ and styloid process B. Sphenoid bone C. Maxilla D. Zygomatic arch

C. Maxilla

Q: Collaterals from the auditory tracts activate the entire nervous system in response to loud noises. Where would you expect these collaterals to terminate? A. Cerebral cortex B. Thalamus C. Red nucleus D. Reticular activating system

D. Reticular activating system

baroreceptors are a type of stretch receptor located in the arterial walls of the carotid system. They sense an increase in arterial pressure. Which of the following statements might best describe the purpose of these receptors? A. they act as part of a positive feedback system that results in blood vessels dilation and an increase in heart pumping capacity B. they act as part of a negative feedback system that results in blood vessel dilation and a decrease in heart pumping capacity C. they act as part of a positive feedback system that results in blood vessel constriction and a decrease in heart pumping capactiy D. they act as part of a negative feedback system that results in blood vessel constriction and an increase in heart pumping capacity

B. they act as part of a negative feedback system that results in blood vessel dilation and a decrease in heart pumping capacity

A selectivity filter with carbonyl oxygens is associated with which of the following kinds of ion channels? A. Gated sodium B. Non-gated sodium C. Potassium D. Chloride

C. Potassium

Aldosterone is the major mineralcorticoid and is secreted by which of the following regions of the adrenal cortex? A. Zona glomerulosa B. Zona fasciculata C. Zona reticularis D. Zona medullaris

A. Zona glomerulosa

Excess potassium in the extracellular fluid would have which of the following effects on heart activity? A. Heart will become dilated. B. Heart rate will increase. C. Heart will go toward spastic contraction. D. Heart action potential will increase

A. Heart will become dilated.

The axilla is generally described as a truncated pyramid with a quadrangular base. The anterior and posterior borders can be palpated and are created by muscles. The anterior border (anterior axillary fold) of the base of the axilla is formed by which of the following muscles or muscle groups? A. Pectoralis major B. Latissimus dorsi C. Latissimus dorsi and teres major D. Pectoralis minor E. Pectoralis major and pectoralis minor

A. Pectoralis major

The bicarbonate buffer system consists of a bicarbonate salt and which of the following? A. Weak acid B. Strong acid C. Weak base D. Strong base

A. Weak acid

Which of the following mechanisms would most likely serve as the major immediate factor in compensating for an acute myocardial infarction? A. Renin-angiotensin system B. Aldosterone C. Sympathetic response D. Intravenous fluid therapy

C. Sympathetic response Myocardial infarction results in localized weakening of cardiac muscle tissue and decreases cardiac output. Sympathetic stimulation will increase the force of contraction of muscle tissue and constrict most vessels resulting in increased venous return. Both of these act to compensate for the decrease in cardiac output.

Which of the following is the newest addition to the telencephalon in mammals? A. pallium B. mid-ventricular ridge C. neocortex D. paleocortex

C. neocortex

In females, a sharp rise of gonadotropins to almost 60 percent times that at birth occurs during which of the following periods? A. menopause B.just prior to each ovulation phase C. puberty D. old age

A. menopause

The connective tissue membrane that surrounds each fascicle of a skeletal muscle and physically supports blood vessels and nerves supplying the fascicles is referred to by which of the following terms? A. Perimysium B. Endomysium C. Epimysium D. Endotendineum

A. Perimysium

olfactory fibers making up the olfactory nerves pass from the olfactory mucosa to the olfactory bulbs through which of the following? A. sphenoethmoidal recess B. cribiform plate C. optic canals D. lateral pterygoid foraminae

B. cribiform plate

Q: The Pacinian corpuscle is a specialized pressure receptor built around the axon of a sensory neuron. Local potentials are created when layers around the sensory nerve ending are deformed as a result of the application of pressure to the skin. Where in the transmission pathway are these local potentials converted to an axon potential? A. Axon hillock B. Cell body of the neuron C. First node of Ranvier D. Within the capsule surrounding the end of the neuron

C. First node of Ranvier

ADH (anti-diuretic hormone) is found in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei. It is secreted by specialized neurons from which of the following areas? A. Adrenal cortex B. Adrenal medulla C. Anterior pituitary D. Posterior pituitary

D. Posterior pituitary

Histocytes, dust cells, microglia, and Kupffer cells are forms of which of the following? A. Fibrocytes. B. Plasma cells C. Mast cells D. Macrophages

D. Macrophages

Which of the following events is generally not seen on a typical ECG? A. atrial depolarization B. atrial repolarization C. ventricular depolarization D. ventricular depolarization

B. atrial repolarization Atrial repolariztaion is hidden by the QRS complex.

Using the Flick principle for calculating the cardiac output, the pateient’s resting oxygen consumption volume should be divided by which of the following? A. The difference between oxygen concentration in the systemic arterial blood and the systematic mixed venous blood. B. The difference between the oxygen concentration in the systemic arterial blood and the pulmonary vein. C. The difference between the oxygen concentraiton in the systemic mixed blood and the pulmonary vein. D. The difference between the oxygen concentration in the systemic mixed venous blood and the pulmonary artery.

A. The difference between oxygen concentration in the systemic arterial blood and the systematic mixed venous blood.

Humidification of air in the alveoli has which of the following effects on the partial pressure of nitrogen and oxygen in the alveoli? A. It increases the partial pressure of each of the other gases. B. It decreases the partial pressures of each of the other gases. C. It has no effect on the partial pressure pressures of each of the other gases. D. It increases the partial pressure of oxygen but decreases partial pressure of nitrogen in the alveolar air.

B. It decreases the partial pressures of each of the other gases.

The resting potential for a typical neuron, such as a motor neuron, is best represented by which of the following potentials? A. 74mV B. -74 mV C. 90mV D. -90 mV

D. -90 mV

The proximal attachment of the serratus anterior muscle is the external surfaces of the lateral parts of ribs 1-9. The distal attachment is the anterior surface of the medial border of the scapula. Damage to the nerve that supplies this muscle results in “winging” of the scapula. Which of the following innervates the serratus anterior muscle? A. Long thoracic nerve B. lateral pectoral nerve C. Median pectoral nerve D. Intercostal nerves 1-9

Long thoracic nerve

“Adrenal diabetes” may occur due to excess of which of the following? A. Aldosterone B. Mineralocorticoids C. Glucocorticoids D. Androgenic hormones

C. Glucocorticoids

84% of the blood volume is in the systemic circulation. Of this, 64% is in which of the following vessels? A. capillaries B. systemic arteries C. veins D. arterioles

C. veins

Signals from peripheral baroreceptors have which of the following effect(s) on the cardiac centers in the brain stem? A. Inhibit vasoconstrictor and excite vasodilator centers B. Inhibit both vasoconstrictor and vasodilator centers C. Inhibit vasodilator and excite vasoconstrictor centers D. Excite both vasoconstrictor and vasodilator centers

A. Inhibit vasoconstrictor and excite vasodilator centers Peripheral baroreceptors increase stimulation of the vagus nerve and Herring’s nerves with increased blood pressure. Increased stimulation of these nerves lead to stimulation of the vasodilator center which then inhibits the vasoconstrictor center resulting in vasodilation. A decrease in blood pressure has the opposite effect as long as blood pressure remains above 60 mmHg in the carotid artery.

Olfactory fibers making up the olfactory nerves pass from the olfactory mucosa to the olfactory bulbs through which of the following? A.sphenoethmoidal recess B. cribriform plate C. optic canals D. lateral pterygoid foraminae

B. cribriform plate

The navicular bone is a component of which of the following subdivisions of the foot? A. hindfoot B. midfoot C. forefoot D. mortise and tenon joint

B midfoot

Which of the following muscles attaches to the coracoid process? A. Short head of the biceps brachii B. Triceps lateralis C. Pectoralis major D. Long head of the biceps brachii E. Subclavius

Short head of the biceps brachii

Q: Which of the following is one of the major functions of the thalamus? A. Control large skeletal muscle movement B. Initiate cognitive processes C. Relay all sensory information, except smell, to the cerebral cortex D. Connect the nervous system to the endocrine system

C. Relay all sensory information, except smell, to the cerebral cortex

control functions for muscle movements of the axial body, neck, shoulders , and hips is located in which of the following areas of the cerebellum? A. vermis B. intermediate zone C. lateral zone D. cerebroverebellum

A. vermis

Q: The medial boundary of the linea aspera on the posterior surface of the femur continues inferiorly as which of the following landmarks? A. Lateral supracondylar line B. Posterior boundary of popliteal fossa C. Medial boundary of popliteal fossa D. Medial supracondylar line

D. Medial supracondylar line

Characteristics of primary hypertension would NOT include which of the following? A. Sympathetic nerve activity B. Increased cardiac output C. Activation of renal-pressure naturesis mechanism D. Increased levels of angiotension II and aldosterone in obese patients

C. Activation of renal-pressure naturesis mechanism Activation of renal-pressure naturesis mechanism would correct for hypertension by increasing release of water and sodium which decreases blood volume.

Which of the following nerves are terminal branches of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus? A. Median and ulnar B. Radial and ulnar C. Axillary and radial D. Long thoracic and medial E. Ulnar and axillary

C. Axillary and radial

An increase in which of the following factors will result in a decrease in glomerular hydrostatic pressure? A. Arterial pressure B. Afferent arteriolar pressure C. Efferent arteriolar pressure D. Both B and C E. All of the above

B. Afferent arteriolar pressure Lecture 17 - Micturition and Glomerular Filtration

Q: The popliteal fossa is formed by the borders of four muscles. Which of the following pairs of muscles forms the inferior boundaries of the popliteal fossa? A. Semimembranosus and biceps femoris B. Semitendinosus and semimembranosus C. Medial and lateral heads of the gastrocnemius D. Popliteus and peroneus

C. Medial and lateral heads of the gastrocnemius

Circus movements are the basis of heart fibrillation. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Fibrillation may occur when the refractory period of the muscle is greatly shortened. B. Fibrillation may occur when the pathway around the circle is too short. C. Fibrillation may occur when the conduction velocity slows down. D. Fibrillation may occur when the heart become dilated.

B. Fibrillation may occur when the pathway around the circle is too short. Circus movements occur when the point where a wave of depolarization in cardiac tissue originates from has repolarized by the time the wave of depolarization has returned to that spot. This causes the tissue to depolarize again but this time out of sync with the hearts pacemaker.

Identify the layer indicated by the arrow. A. Inner plexiform layer B. Outer nuclear layer C. Outer plexiform layer D. Inner nuclear layer

B. Outer nuclear layer

Which of the following resists stress, resists inflammation, and stimulates gluconeogenesis but may lead to “adrenal diabetes”? A. Aldosterone B. Cortisol C. Angiotensin II D. Pregnenolone

B. Cortisol

Q: Which of following muscles of the anterior thigh inserts on the lesser trochanter of the femur? A. Sartorius B. Iliopsoas C. Pectineus D. Adductor brevis

B. Iliopsoas

Precapillary sphincters are associated with which of the following types of vessels? A. Small arteries B. Arterioles C. Metarterioles D. Capillaries

C. Metarterioles Metarterioles lack a smooth muslce coating that is found on most other vessels excluding capillaries. Capillaries are found beyond the precapillary sphincters.

Which of the following factors would decrease venous return and increase right atrial pressure? A. Hemorrhage B. Vasodilation C. Decreased venous compliance D. Increased ADH secretion

A. Hemorrhage

Cell bodies of sensory neurons carrying general sensory information form the dura of the middle and anterior cranial fossae, the external surface of the ear drum, and the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are located in which of the following cranial ganglia? A. Trigeminal (semilunar) B. Geniculate C. Superior salivatory nucleus D. Inferior salivatory nucleus

A. Trigeminal (semilunar)

Which of the following muscles is not part of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg? A. plantaris B. gastrocnemius C. soleus D. peroneous (fibularis) tertius

D. peroneous (fibularis) tertius

The dorsal interosseous muscles are found in which of the following layers of the sole of the foot? A. first B. second C. third D. forth

D. forth

cells that initially lay down cartilage matrix are best identified as which of the following? A. chondroblasts B. osteoclasts C. chondroblasts D. chondrocytes E. fibroblasts

C. chondroblasts

Q: Which of the following landmarks demarcates the sensory cortex from the motor cortex? A. Lateral sulcus B. Central sulcus C. insula D. Angular gyrus

B. Central sulcus

Q: In typical sensory pathways, decussation occurs at what level? A. Primary (first order) neurons B. Secondary (second order) neurons C. Tertiary (third order) neurons D. None of the above

B. Secondary (second order) neurons

In the ECG shown, which of the following heart activities is represented? A. Sinus tachycardia B. Sinus bradycardia C. Complete AV block D. Incomplete second degree block

B. Sinus bradycardia

Which of the following nerves innervate(s) the dorsal interosseous muscles? A. Ulnar nerve only B. Median nerve only C. Both the ulnar nerve and the median nerve D. Neither the ulnar nerve or the median nerve

Ulnar nerve only

Which of the following factors is NOT quantitatively expressed on the venous return curve? A. Mean systemic filling pressure B. Right atrial pressure C. Blood flow resistance between peripheral vessels and right atrium D. Cardiac output

D. Cardiac output Cardiac output is a sperate curve from the venous return curve. The x-axis represents right atrial pressure, the intersection of the graph with the x-axis represents mean systemic filling pressure, and blood flow resistance can be calculated using mean systemic filling pressure, right atrial pressure, and venous return. (See slide 30 of cardiac output lecture)

The superior oblique extrinsic muscle of the eye is innervated by which of the following cranial nerves? A.occulomotor B. trochlear C. abducens D. opthalmic branch of cranial nerve V

B. trochlear

Alpha-actinin in smooth muscle cells is associated with anchoring actin filaments. It is found in which of the following structures in smooth muscle cells? A. Caveolin monomers B. Sphigolipids C. Dense bodies D. Dystrophin

C. Dense bodies

Which of the following areas of the brain stem is thought to be involved in pain supression? A. red nucleus B. restiform bodies C. periaquaductal gray D. vagal lobes

C. periaquaductal gray

Which of the following nerves wraps around the neck of the radius? A. ulnar B. median C. radial D. musculocutaneous E. axillary

C. radial

while standing in the anatomical position, the palms of the hand are supinated A. true B. false

A. true

Identify the structure indicated by the arrow. A. Bowman’s layer B. Decement’s layer C. Bruch’s membrane D. Pigmented layer

A. Bowman’s layer Lecture 16, Slide 15

identify the structure seen in the photomicrograph shown below A. Meissner's corpuscle B. Hassall's corpuscle C. arteriole D. pacini corpuscle

D. pacini corpuscle

The axis of rotation for flexion and extension is...? A. longitudinal or cranial-caudal B. left-right or transverse C. anterior-posterior D. none of the above

B. left-right or transverse

Glucose transporters (GLUT transporters) employ which of the following kinds of transport? A. Diffusion B. Primary active transport C. Secondary active transport D. Facilitated diffusion

D. Facilitated diffusion

Which of the following represents the spinal cord levels of origin for the phrenic nerve? A. C1-4 B. C2-5 C. C3-5 D.C3-7

C. C3-5

The medullary rhythmicity center is located in the same area of the brain as the caridac center and the vasomotor center. The pneumotaxic and apneustic centers are located in which of the following parts of the brain? A. pons B. medulla C. mesencephalon D. thalamus

A. pons

The suprascapular nerve is a direct branch from which of the following subdivisions of the brachial plexus? A. Root of C5 B. Superior trunk C. Middle trunk D. Lateral cord E. Medial cord

B. Superior trunk

Which of the following extrinsic muscles of the eye abducts the eyeball? A. Superior oblique B. Medial rectus C. Lateral rectus D. Inferior oblique

C. Lateral rectus

Melanin containing, dopaminergic neurons and iron-containing cells that secrete serotonin and GABA are major components of which of the following? A.substantia nigra B. thalamus C. RAS D. superior colliculi

A.substantia nigra

Q: Reissner’s membrane separates which of the following pairs of chambers? A. Scala tympani/scala media B. Scala vestibuli/scala media C. Scala tympani/scala vestibule D. None of the above

B. Scala vestibuli/scala media

C. Ascending pharyngeal

the malleoli of the tibia and fibula form the mortise component of the ankle joint. Which of the following forms the tenon? A. calcaneus B. cuboid C. talus D. medial cuneiform

C. talus

During the menstrual cycle, the early growth of a follicle is primarily stimulated by which of the following? A. LH B.FSH C. estrogen D. progesterone

B.FSH

the heart is found in which of the following locations? A. anterior superior mediastinum B. middle superior mediastinum C. anterior inferior mediastinum D. middle inferior mediastinum E. posterior inferior mediastinum

D. middle inferior mediastinum

Identify the structure/membrane indicated by the arrow in the photomicrograph. A. Scala tympani B. Stria vascularis C. Scala vestibuli D. Cochlear duct

D. Cochlear duct Lecture 17, Slide 26

which of the following structures/spaces is associated with the spinal cord but not the brain? A. arachnoid membrane B. pia mater C. subdural space D. epidural space

D. epidural space

Which of the following describes the major function of the muscles that make up the lateral compartment of the leg? A. toe extension B. foot eversion C. toe adduction D. ankle plantar flexion

B. foot eversion

Which of the following muscles is necessary to "unlock" the knee from its extended position? A. plantaris B. popliteus C. soleus D. lateral head of the gastrocnemius

B. popliteus

Identify the following type of tissue. A. Dense irregular connective tissue B. Dense regular (white fibrous) connective tissue C. Cardiac muslce D. Smooth muslce

B. Dense regular (white fibrous) connective tissue Lecture 8, Slide 15

which of the following kinds of cells is unique to the pancreas and is associated with the intercalated ducts? A. alpha cells B. paneth cells C. centroacinar cells D. acinar cells

C. centroacinar cells

Which of the following statements is true for the period of rapid ejection? A. It occurs when the left ventricular pressure is above 80 mm Hg. B. The semilunar valves are closed during this phase. C. It occurs during the last two-thirds of ejection. D. It results in the ejection of about 90% of the total volume of blood.

A. It occurs when the left ventricular pressure is above 80 mm Hg.

Which of the following terms does NOT refer to mature bone? A. Lamellar B. Spongy C. Compact D. Woven E. Cancellous

D. Woven

Identify the type of cell shown in this slide. A. Lymphocyte B. Neutrophil C. Monocyte D. Basophil E. Eosinophil

B. Neutrophil

Which of the following structures passes through Guyon’s canal? A. Median nerve only B. Radial artery only C. Ulnar nerve only D. Ulnar artery only E. Both the ulnar nerve and artery

E. Both the ulnar nerve and artery

In a skeletal muscle fiber, which of the following extends from one myofibril to another and to the sarcolemma? A. Desmin B. Plectin C. Alpha-beta-crystallin D. Dystroglycan complex

A. Desmin

Which of the following factors results in decreased peripheral resistance (vessel dilation) leading to decreased blood pressure? A. Increased production of angiotension II B. Increased release of thromboxane C. Increased release of catecholamines D. Increase in atrionatriuretic peptide (ANP)

D. Increase in atrionatriuretic peptide (ANP) ANP is released due to atrial stretch (increase atrial pressure) and increases renal naturesis which results in decreased

The non-photosensitive area of the retina lies anterior to which of the following landmarks? A. Limbus B. Ciliary body C. Canal of Schlemm D. Ora serrata

D. Ora serrata

Improper use of axillary crutches (crutch palsy) may damage which of the following nerves? A. Radial B. Axillary C. Median D. Ulnar E. Musculocutaneous

B. Axillary

Q: Which of the following muscles is part of the posterior compartment of the thigh and attaches to the ischial tuberosity proximally and is capable of externally rotating the knee? A. Semimembranosus B. Semitendinosus C. Biceps femoris (both heads) D. Adductor longus

C. Biceps femoris (both heads)

Pits coated with which of the following are often associated with endocytosis? A. Clathrin B. COPI C. COPII D. Coatamers E. Vinculin

A. Clathrin

Postganglionic fibers from which of the following region of the sympathetic trunk supply all the smooth muscles and glands of the head? A. Superior sympathetic ganglion B. Middle sympathetic ganglion C. Inferior sympathetic ganglion D. Stellate ganglion

A. Superior sympathetic ganglion

A patient arrives at the emergency department of a large hospital with a kitchen knife protruding from his left anterior shoulder, just above his armpit. What artery is likely lacerated? A. Subclavian artery B. Axillary artery C. Brachial artery D. Cephalic artery

B. Axillary artery

alsosterone is an important regulator of sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion; one of its main targets is...? A. podocytes B. principal cells C. intercalated cells D. cells of macula densa

B. principal cells

Which of the following factors results in hypokalemia? A. Cell lysis B. Excess secretion of aldosterone C. Strenuous exercise D. Increased extracellular fluid osmolarity

B. Excess secretion of aldosterone

Fructose, which provides energy for sperm, is secreted by which of the following: A. Seminal vesicles B. Prostate gland C. Cells of Leydig D. Sertoli cells

A. Seminal vesicles

The major constituent of the pelvic diaphragm is the levator ani complex. Which of the following is NOT part of the levator ani complex?\ A. puborectalis B. pubococcygeus C. coccygeus D. iliococcygeus

D. iliococcygeus

A 24-year old woman presents to the emergency department with severe diarrhea. When she is supine, her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg (decreased) and her heart rate is 100 beats per minute (increased). When she is moved to a standing position, her heart rate increases to 120 beats per minute. Which of the following accounts for the further increase in heart rate upon standing? A. Decreased total peripheral resistance B. Increased vasoconstriction C. Increased afterload D. Decreased venous return

D. Decreased venous return

Almost all infrahyoid muscles are characterized by which of the following innervation patterns? A. Hypoglossal nerve B. Ansa cervicalis C. C2 D. C2-C3

B. Ansa cervicalis

"Winging of the scapula" may be the result of injury to which of the following nerves? A. thoracodorsal B. axillary C. long thoracic D. thoracoacromial E. suprascapular

C. long thoracic

Which of the following represents the spinal cord levels of origin for the phrenic nerve? A. C1-4 B. C2-5 C. C3-5 D. C3-7

C. C3-5

Q: The membranous fascia of the scrotum is also referred to as which of the following? A. Buck fascia B. Dartos fascia C. Camper fascia D. Scarpa fascia

B. Dartos fascia

Which of the following nerves passes around the medial epicondyle of the humerus? A. Ulnar B. Median C. Radial D. Musculocutaneous E. Axillary

A. Ulnar

The anterior compartment of the leg is supplied by which of the following nerves? A. deep fibular (peroneal) nerve B. superficial fibular (peroneal) nerve C. tibial nerve D. obturator nerve

A. deep fibular (peroneal) nerve

B. Afferent arteriolar pressure

All of the following muscles elevate the mandible EXCEPT? A. Temporalis B. Masseter C. Lateral pterygoid D. Medial pterygoid

C. Lateral pterygoid

Which of the following types of cells are found only in the bronchioles and secrete a surface-active lipoprotein that prevents collapse of terminal bronchioles during exhalation? A. Type I alveolar cells B. Type II alveolar cells C. Clara cells D. Dust cells

C. Clara cells Lecture 21, Slide 37

White fibrous (dense regular) connective tissue is characterized by highly ordered bundles of collagen fibers separated by narrow compressed nuclei. This type of connective tissue would be most characteristic of which of the following anatomical structures? A. The matrix of organs such as the spleen and lymph nodes B. Tendons and ligaments C. Tunica adventitia of blood vessels D. Umbilical cord

B. Tendons and ligaments

Which of the following is the direction of bipolar lead III? A. 0 degrees B. 60 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 120 degrees

D. 120 degrees The connections of bipolar lead III are the left arm and the left leg.

Isovolumic contraction of the ventricles occurs: A. at the beginning of systole B. at the end of systole C. at the beginning of diastole D. after the opening of the semilunar valves

A. at the beginning of systole

84% of the blood volume is in the systemic circulation. Of this, 64% is in which of the following? A. Capillaries B. Systemic arterioles C. Veins D. Arterioles

C. Veins

Which of the following descriptions best describes the location of the piriform fossae? A.lateral to the median glossoepiglottic fold B. inferior to the lateral glossoepiglottic folds C. between the tonsillar pillars D. posterior to the uvula

B. inferior to the lateral glossoepiglottic folds

Which of the following hormones would be predominate at about day 22 of the human female sexual cycle? A.LH B.FSH C.estrogen D.progesterone

D.progesterone

which of the following statements is true? A. the liver has a low blood flow and high vascular resistance B. the liver has a low blood flow and low vascular resistance C. the liver has a high blood flow and high vascular resistance D. the liver has a high blood flow and a low vascular resistance

D. the liver has a high blood flow and low vascular resistance

The action potential for both a ventricular cardiomyocyte and a Purkinje fiber exhibit a plateau phase (phases 1 and 2). Conductance of which of the following ions is responsible for phase 0? A. Calcium ions B. Potassium ions C. Sodium ions D. Both sodium and calcium ions

D. Both sodium and calcium ions

The sternal angle marks the union of the manubrium and sternebrae. It can be used to identify the location of which of the following landmarks? A. Clavicular-manubrium joint B. Site of the first ribs C. Site of the second ribs D. Site of the third ribs E. The apex of the hear

C. Site of the second ribs

Q: Which of the following areas is almost completely insensitive to visceral pain? A. Ureter B. Bile dict C. Liver parenchyma D. Parietal pleura

C. Liver parenchyma

Osmoreceptor cells are located in which of the following regions? A. Adjacent to carotid bodies B. In the macula densa C. In the anterior part of the third ventricle D. In the distal collecting ducts

C. In the anterior part of the third ventricle

The foramen lacerum is found in which of the following regions of the skull? A. anterior cranial fossa B. sella turcica C. middle cranial fossa D. posterior cranial fossa

C. middle cranial fossa

Identify the large cell in the center. A. Pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex B. Purkinje cell of the cerebellar cortex C. Pseudounipolar cell D. Neuroglial cell

B. Purkinje cell of the cerebellar cortex Lecture 15, Slide 30

Reabsorption of bone matrix by osteoclasts involves removal of both the organic and the inorganic component of the matrix. Which of the following is secreted by osteoclasts to degrade the organic matrix of the bone? A. Hydrogen and chloride ions B. Osteopontin C. Cathespin K D. Osteoprotegrin

C. Cathespin K

Shrinkage of osmoreceptor cells in the anterior hypothalamus in response to an increase in extracellular fluid osmolarity leads to the release of which of the following? A. Aldosterone B. Angiotension I C. Angiotension II D. ADH

D. ADH

The basal membranes of thyroid cells contain symporters for iodide. What ion is co-transported with iodine by these symporters? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Chloride D. Hydrogen

A. Sodium

Interstitial cells of Leydig are almost non-existent in the testes during which of the following stages? A. At birth B. Early childhood C. After puberty D. Adulthood

B. Early childhood

which muscle separates the exit of the superior and inferior gluteal arteries from the pelvic cavity? A. quadratus femoris B. obturator internus C. superior gemellus D. ingerior gemellus E. piriformis

E. piriformis

Which of the following has antihypertensive actions as a result of its ability to deplete norepinephrine and other monoamine neurotransmitters by blocking its synthesis and storage from peripheral sympathetic nerve endings? A. Methoxamine B. Reserpine C. Hexamethionium D. Isoproteronal

B. Reserpine

Renin is secreted by which of the following? A. Liver B. Macula densa cells C. Atrial cells of the heart D. Mesangial cells E. Juxtaglomerular cells

E. Juxtaglomerular cells

identify the structure/membrane indicated by the arrow in the photomicrograph A. scala tympani B. stria vascularis C. tectorial membrane D. vestibular membrane

D. vestibular membrane

Which of the following descriptions best describes the location of the piriform fossae? A. Lateral to the median glossoepiglottic fold B. Inferior to the lateral glossoepiglottic folds C. Between the tonsillar pillars D. Posterior to the uvula

B. Inferior to the lateral glossoepiglottic folds

identify the layer indicated by the arrow A. inner plexiform layer B. outer nuclear layer C. outer plexiform layer D. ganglion nuclear layer

B. outer nuclear layer

Q: Stereocilia (hairs) of the auditory hair cells are embedded in which of the following? A. Reissner’s membrane B. Basilar membrane C. Tectorial membrane D. Reticular lamina

C. Tectorial membrane

during the menstrual cycle, the early growth of a follicle is primarily stimulated by which of the following? A. LH B. FSH C. estrogen D. progesterone

B. FSH

Hypocalcemia usually becomes lethal at which of the following levels? A. 12 mg/dl B. 9.5 mg/dl C. 6 mg/dl D. 4 mg/dl

D. 4 mg/dl

Respiratory alkalosis due to a decrease in carbon dioxide concentration caused by hyperventilation is compensated for by which of the following mechanisms? A. Increased ventilation rate B. Decreased ventilation rate C. Renal excreatoin of bicarbonate ion D. Renal addition of new bicarbonate ion to extracellular fluid

C. Renal excreatoin of bicarbonate ion

identify large cell in the center of the photomicroraph A. motor neuron n anterior horn of spinal cord B. astrocyte in cerebral cortex C. olifodendrocyte in paravertebral ganglion D. pseudounipolar neuron in dorsal root ganglion

D. pseudounipolar neuron in dorsal root ganglion

The structural component of the blood brain barrier consists of which of the following components? A. The tight junctions of the capillary endothelium. B. The end feet of the astrocytic processes. C. The fenestrated endothelium of the choroid capillaries. D. Foot processes of the tanycytes.

A. The tight junctions of the capillary endothelium.

the tendon of which of the following muscles passes between two sesamoid bones located at the base of the first metatarsus? A. adductor hallucis B. peroneus longus C. flexor hallucis longus D. abductor hallucis

C. flexor hallucis longus

Which of the following reflects the amount of urine that the kidneys can excrete per day when there is a large excess of water? A. 180 liters B. 75 liters C. 20 liters D. 4 liters

C. 20 liters

Endolymph is found in which of the following structures? A. Ampullae of the semicircular canals B. Scala vestibuli C. Scala tympani D. Middle ear chamber

A. Ampullae of the semicircular canals Lecture 17, Slide 17

C. Ascending pharyngeal

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the metabolic syndrome associated with diabetes? A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Obesity C. Fasting hyperglycemia D. Hypertension

A. Peripheral neuropathy

A mother who has not received adequate prenatal care and who does not have current medical records delivers her first baby. The baby is tested and found to be Rh-negative. The mother’s blood is typed prior to delivery. Which of the following would be appropriate advice for the new mother? A. Whether the mother is Rh-negative of Rh-positive, no further treatment is required with regards to Rh antigen. B. If the mother is Rh-positive, she needs to be given the anti-D globulin to mask the antigenic sites on the fetal RBCs that may have leaked into maternal circulation during childbirth. C. If the mother is Rh-negative, she needs to be given the anti-D globulin to mask the antigenic sites on the fetal RBCs that may have leaked into the material circulation during childbirth. D. If the mother is Rh-positive, the baby needs to be given the anti-D globulin to mask the anti-D antibodies that may have leaked into the baby’s blood stream during delivery.

A. Whether the mother is Rh-negative of Rh-positive, no further treatment is required with regards to Rh antigen.

Mammary glands would NOT receive blood from which of the following arteries? A. Internal thoracic B. Nearby intercostal arteries C. Thoracoacromial artery D. Lateral thoracic artery

Thoracoacromial artery

Which of the following structures serves as the entry point by which circulating lymphocytes seed the lymph node? A. Afferent lymphatics B. Efferent lymphatics C. High endothelial venules D. Subcapsular space

C. High endothelial venules Lecture 18 - Immune Lymphatic System Slide 40

Identify the secretory product of the cell indicated below by the arrow. A. Pepsin B. Hydrochloric acid C. Renin D. Sodium bicarbonate

B. Hydrochloric acid Lecture 23, Slide 58

Identify muscle whose tendon passes through groove 13 as shown in the photograph of the distal end of the radius. a. abductor pollicis longus b. Extensor pollicis brevis c. Extensor carpi radialis longus d. Extensor carpi radialis brevis

Extensor carpi radialis longus

cranial-caudal and left-right axes define which of the following kinds of planes? A. coronal B. sagital C. parasagital D. transverse

A. coronal

Which of the following is the primary controller of coronary artery blood flow? A. Sympathetic innervations B. Parasympathetic innervations C. Local muscle metabolism D. Systemic venous resistance

C. Local muscle metabolism “Rate of blood flow to each tissue in the body is almost always precisely controlled in relation to the tissue need.”

Identify the structure the arrow is pointing to. A. Central arteriole in splenic white pulp B. Splenic red pulp C. Intercalated pancreatic duct D. High endothelial vein in lymph node

A. Central arteriole in splenic white pulp Lecture 18, Slide 72

In the photomicrograph below, the arrow points to which of the following structures? A. Splenic arteriole B. Splenic red pulp C. Lymph node trabecula D. Trabecula of thymus

C. Lymph node trabecula Lecture 18 - Immune Lymphatic System Slide 44

The granulocyte/macrophage colony forming unit gives rise to monocytes and also to which of the following kinds of mature blood cells? A. Basophils B. Eosinophils C. Neutrophils D. Erythrocytes

C. Neutrophils

Blocking of the renin-angiotensin mechanism would have which of the following effects on arterial pressure? A. It would have no effect on arterial pressure B. It would result in sodium and water retention and increased arterial pressure. C. It would result in sodium and water retention and decreased arterial pressure. D. It would result in sodium and water loss and increased arterial pressure. E. It would result in sodium and water loss and decreased arterial pressure.

E. It would result in sodium and water loss and decreased arterial pressure. The renin-angiotensin mechanism is a response to low blood pressure in the kidney and results in increased blood pressure. This occurs via activation of angiotensin II which, on its own, stimulates vasoconstriction and also causes secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal gland which causes retention of water and salt in the kidney resulting in increased blood volume.

Q: Which of the following separates the scala media from the scala vestibule, thereby maintaining a special fluid within the scala media? A. Tectorial membrane B. Reissner’s membrane C. Stria vascularis D. Organ of Corti

B. Reissner’s membrane

A hydrogen—transporting ATPase is first encountered in which of the following parts of the renal tubule? A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Descending limb of Henle C. Ascending limb of Henle D. Distal convoluted tubule

D. Distal convoluted tubule

Q: The lesser and greater sciatic notches are separated by which of the following landmarks? A. PSIS B. PIIS C. Ischial tuberosity D. Ischial spine

D. Ischial spine

Q: In which of the following forms of spina bifida are only meninges found in the sac? A. Occulta B. Meningocele C. Meningomyelocele D. Myeloschisis

B. Meningocele

What of the following structures participates in the formation of endolymph? A. Tectorial membrane B. Stria vascularis C. Subarachnoid space D. Subdural space

B. Stria vascularis Lecture 17, Slide 20

Which cranial nerve supplies parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland? A. Vagus nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Facial nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

The arrow in the photomicrograph below is pointing to which of the following structures? A. Bowman’s membrane B. Decemet’s membrane C. Bruch’s membrane D. Pigmented layer

A. Bowman’s membrane

As a result of the Bohr effect there is an increase in the capacity of the fetal blood to combine with oxygen and a decrease in the capacity of the maternal blood to combine with oxygen. This is mostly due to which of the following: A.the mother’s blood becomes more alkaline B. the mother’s blood becomes more acidic C. the fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than the maternal blood D. the fetal blood has a higher hemoglobin concentration

B. the mother’s blood becomes more acidic

Norepinephrine is synthesized from which of the following? A. Glycine B. Tyrosine C. Threonine D. Alanine

B. Tyrosine

A patient arrives at the emergency department of a large hospital with a kitchen knife protruding from her left anterior shoulder, just above her armpit. The responding clinicians determine the laceration is in the third part of the patient’s axillary artery, just proximal to its large tributary, the subscapular artery. Although this injury potentially threatens the patient’s blood supply to her upper extremity, the clinicians are not overly concerned because collateral blood supply to the rest of the upper limb is possible via what anatomosis? A. Cubital B. Brachial C. Axillary D. Scapular

D. Scapular

The vestibular nuclear complex, associated with balance and equilibrium is located in which of the following subdivisions of the brain? A. Telencephalon B. Diencephalon C. Metencephalon D. Myelencephalon

D. Myelencephalon

Q: Many drugs are known to increase the excitability of neurons reducing the threshold for excitation of the neuron, while others are known to decrease excitability. Which of the following is one of the best known agents for increasing excitability by inhibiting the action of some normally inhibitory transmitter substances? A. Caffeine B. Theophylline C. Theobromine D. Strychnine

D. Strychnine

Identify muscle shown in red. A. Supraspinatus B. Subscapularis C. Teres minor D. Teres major

Teres minor

Much of the oxygen consumed by the kidneys is related to which of the following factors? A. High rate of glucose reabsorption B. High rate of active sodium reabsorption C. High rate of active potassium reabsorption D. High rate of active amino acid reabsorption

B. High rate of active sodium reabsorption

Which of the following structures enters the pharynx by passing between the base of the cranium and superior edge of the superior pharyngeal constrictor? A. Stylopharyngeus muscle B. Auditory tube C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Salpingopharyngeus muscle

B. Auditory tube

glands characterized by sebaceous glands in which the entire secretory cell is lost as part of the secretion are classified as which of the following? A. merocrine B. serous C. eccrine D. apocrine E. holocrine

E. holocrine

Q: Which of the following structures does not exit the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen? A. Superior gluteal artery B. Inferior gluteal artery C. Sciatic nerve D. Obturator nerve E. Inferior gluteal nerve

D. Obturator nerve

Almost 90 percent of glucose reabsorption occurs in the early proximal tubule. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for moving glucose from the tubular lumen into the cytoplasmic compartment? A. Primary active transport via a glucose ATPase pump. B. Secondary active transport via a sodium/glucose cotransporter. C. Secondary active transport via a sodium glucose antiporter. D. Diffusion due to concentraiton differences between tubular fluid and cytoplasm.

B. Secondary active transport via a sodium/glucose cotransporter.

Q: Which of the following are paired, double membrane folds formed by peritoneal extensions that help to suspend the uterus and support it during pregnancy? A. Mesosalpinx B. Mesovarium C. Broad ligament D. Round ligament

C. Broad ligament

Which of the following arteries branches from the third part of the maxillary artery? A. Posterior superior alveolar B. Buccal C. Inferior alveolar D. Middle meningeal

A. Posterior superior alveolar

Which of the following cell types releases tumor necrosis factor, which is directly capable of killing tumor cells? A. CD4+ B. CD8+ C. CD16+ D. Neutrophils E. CD62+

C. CD16+ Lecture 18 - Immune Lymphatic System Slide 19

The true intrinsic muscles of the back are innervate by dorsal (posterior) rami and are divided into three groups. Which of the following groups of true intrinsic back muscles includes the splenius capitis and splenius cervicus? A. Spinotransversalis B. Sacrospinalis C. Erector spinae D. Transversospinalis

Spinotransversalis

cell bodies of sensory neurons carrying general sensory information from the dura of the middle and anterior cranial fossae, the external surface of the ear drum, and the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are located in which of the following cranial ganglia? A. trigeminal (semilunar) B. geniculate C. superior salivatory nucleus D. inferior salivatory nucleus

B. geniculate

Proper chewing (mastication) requires that the mandible be moved from side to side and to be retracted and protracted. Which of the following muscles of mastication functions to retract the mandible? A. temporalis B. lateral pterygoid C. medial pterygoid D. temporalis

D. temporalis

Q: Which of the following arteries supplies the medial compartment of the thigh? A. Femoral B. Obturator C. Deep femoral D. Saphenous

B. Obturator

a person on serotonin reuptake inhibitors may experience decreased GI motility. The reason for this is primarily due to which of the following reasons? A. secretory neurons of the submucosal plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter B. motor neurons of the myentric plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter C. interneurons of the myenteric plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter D. sensory neurons of the submucosal plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter

C. interneurons of the myenteric plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter

In the classic hepatic lobule the central venule receives blood from which of the following? A. From a branch of the hepatic artery B. From a branch of the portal vein C. From a branch of the hepatic vein D. From branches of both the hepatic artery and the portal vein E. From branches of both the hepatic artery and the hepatic vein

D. From branches of both the hepatic artery and the portal vein Lecture 26, Slide 40

Which of the following is the fontanelle located at the junction of the coronal and sagittal sutures? A. anterior B. posterior C. anterolateral D. posterolateral

A. anterior

The major hormonal product of the thyroid gland is thyroxine. How many iodinated tyrosine residues are found in thyroxine? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

D. Four

Because of paracellular diffusion of ions back into the tubule, what is the upper limit of the concentraiton gradient created by the countercurrent mechanism? A. 1200 mOsm/L B. 600 mOsm/L C. 400 mOsm/L D. 200 mOsm/L

D. 200 mOsm/L

The sodium-calcium pump is an example of which of the following kinds of transport? A. Diffusion B. Primary active transport C. Secondary active transport D. Facilitated diffusion

C. Secondary active transport

Cranial nerves characterized by the special visceral motor modality supply which of the following? A.smooth muscle of the gut tract B. skeletal muscles C. muscles derived from the pharyngeal arches D. autonomic motor muscles

C. muscles derived from the pharyngeal arches

Hassal’s corpuscles are characteristic only of which of the following areas? A. Cortex of the lymph nodes B. Medulla of the lymph nodes C. Cortex of the thymus D. Medulla of the thymus

D. Medulla of the thymus Lecture 18 - Immune Lymphatic System Slide 58

This posterior compartment of the brachium (arm) contains the triceps complex. Which of the following nerves supplies the muscles of the posterior compartment of the brachium? A. Ulnar nerve B. Median nerve C. Radial nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve E. Axillary nerve

C. Radial nerve

A. Superior sympathetic ganglion

Vagal lobes are found in which of the following groups of organisms? A.fish B. amphibians C. reptiles D. mammals

A.fish

Taste sensation from the posterior third of the tongue is carried by which of the following cranial nerves? A. Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve B. Facial nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Vagus nerve

C. Glossopharyngeal nerve

Q: In the rods, cGMP sodium gates are closed when phosphodiesterase is activated by which of the following? A. Transducin B. Metarhodopsin C. Scotopsin D. 11-cis retinol E. All-trans retinol

A. Transducin

Q: What is the maximum visual acuity of the human eye for a two-point source of light? A. 1 nm B. 2 μm C. 10 mm D. 20 cm

B. 2 μm

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fibrocartilage? A. Type II collagen B. Not surrounded by a perichondrium C. Found in intervertebral discs D. Increased collagen in the matrix E. Neither A nor B are characteristic of fibrocartilage

A. Type II collagen Fibrocartilage contains type I collagen B and E are incorrect because not being surrounded by a perichondrium is a characteristic of fibrocartilage.

Q: Which of the brain’s cerebral lobes is responsible for interpreting olfactory and auditory sensations? A. Occipital lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Temporal lobe

D. Temporal lobe

The least amount of damping of pressure pulses would occur in which of the following components of the circulatory system? A. Femoral artery B. Arterioles C. Capillaries D. Venules

A. Femoral artery Pulse pressures are more prominent in arteries and therefore harder to dampen.

In order to gain motility, sperm cells must be stored in which of the following for at least 18-24 hours? A. Seminal vesicles B. Prostate gland C. Epididymis D. Rete testis

C. Epididymis

Which of the following cranial nerves supplies extrinsic and intrinsic muscle of the tongue? A. cranial nerve IX B. cranial nerve X C. cranial nerve XI D. cranial nerve XII

D. cranial nerve XII

The osmolar gap can be determined from the basic metabolic profile and helps to narrow the differential diagnosis. Which of the following can elevate the osmolar gap? A. Ethanol B. Glycerol C. Sucrose D. Glucose

A. Ethanol He just wants you to remember that this is the answer. Glucose does this as well but ignore that fact.

which of the following histological staining techniques would be most useful in diagnosing glycogen storage diseases? A. toludine blue B. H&E C. PAS D. fuelgen

C. PAS

the patella is an example of which of the following types of bones? A. short B. long C. irregular D. sesamoid

D. sesamoid

Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for the prevention of "winging" of the scapula? A. Pectoralis major B. Pectoralis minor C. Rhomboideus major D. Serratus anterior E. Serratus posterior superior

Serratus anterior

Which of the following represent the spinal cord levels of origin for the phrenic nerve? A. C1-4 B. C2-5 C. C3-5 D. C3-7

C. C3-5

which of the following groups of cells are capable of breaking down bone matrix? A. chondroclasts B. osteoclasts C. chondroblasts D. chondrocytes E. fibroblasts

B. osteoclasts

A higher than normal back pressure in hepatic veins may lead to the following condition. A. Jaundice B. Cirrhosis C. Ascites D. Diabetes

C. Ascites

Q: The total refractive power of the human eye is about which of the following? A. 10 diopters B. 25 diopters C. 40 diopters D. 60 diopters

D. 60 diopters

hypocalcemia usually becomes lethal at which of the following levels? A. 12 mg/dl B. 9.5 mg/dl C. 6 mg/dl D. 4 mg/dl

D. 4 mg/dl

Which of the following represents an example of an eccentric contraction? (A) The triceps muscle during the throwing of a ball. (B) The triceps muscle while raising the body from the floor during a push-up. (C) The triceps muscle while lowering the body to the floor during a push-up. (D) The biceps muscle while raising the body during a pull- up.

vital capacity does not include which of the following volumes? A. inspiratory reserve B. expiratory reserve C. residual D. tidal

C. residual

The medial sural cutaneous nerve is a branch of which of the following nerves? A. tibial nerve B. saphenous nerve C. common fibular (peroneal) nerve D. popliteal

A. tibial nerve

in a diarthrosis, which component is more vascularized than the others? A. outer fibrous capsule B. articular cartilage C. ligaments D. synovial membrane

D. synovial membrane

Almost all of the pharyngeal musculature is supplied by the vagus nerve. Which of the following muscles is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve? A. Superior pharyngeal constrictor B. Stylopharyngeus muscle C. Salpingopharyngeus muscle D. Palatopharyngeus muscle

B. Stylopharyngeus muscle

Down regulation of receptors may occur as a result of which of the following? A. Inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules. B. Activation of some of the receptor molecules. C. Increased production of receptors D. Increase in the target cell’s responsiveness to the hormone.

A. Inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules.

Which of the following would not occur as a result of a mass discharge of the sympathetic system during exercise? A. Strong contraction of coronary arteries B. Increase in the mean systemic filling pressure due to contraction of the muscle walls of veins C. Increase in heart rate D. Strong contraction of most peripheral arteries

A. Strong contraction of coronary arteries The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart. Strong contraction of the coronary artieres would cause decreased blood flow to the heart and result in weakening of the heart and decreased cardiac output. This is bad for you.

The aortic opening fo the diaphragm is located at which vertebral level? A. T6 B. T8 C. T10 D. T12

D. T12

Which of the following scalene muscles attaches to the second rib? A. Anterior B. Middle C. Posterior D. All attach to the first rib

C. Posterior

In a typical ECG, which of the following waves occurs at the beginning of the contraction of the atria? A. T B. R C. S D. P E. Q

D. P

Which of the following represents the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity? A. Infraglottic cavity B. Rima glottidis C. Rima vestibuli D. Space between the vestibular folds

B. Rima glottidis

cranial nerves characterized by the special visceral motor modality supply which of the following? A. smooth muscles of the gut tract B. skeletal muscles C. muscles derived from pharyngeal arches D. autonomic motor muscles

C. muscles derived from pharyngeal arches

Which of the following muscles is a single-joint muscle and would not be involved in active/passive insufficiency? A. Long head of the biceps B. Short head of the biceps C. Long head of the triceps D. Flexor digitorum superficialis E. Brachialis

Brachialis

The subtalar joint allows for inversion and eversion. Which of the following movements is associated with inversion? A. Abduction B. Pronation C. Extension D. Plantarflexion

D. Plantarflexion

The facial nerve is responsible for which of the following? A.motor control of the muscles of the eyes B. motor control of the heart C. motor control of the muscles of facial expression D. taste in the posterior third of the tongue

C. motor control of the muscles of facial expression

identify type of duct shown by arrow A. interlobar B. intterlobular C. intralobular D. main duct

B. interlobular

Odorant binding proteins are produced by which of the following? A. Sebaceous glands B. Sudoriferous glands C. Glands of Moll D. Bowman’s glands E. Glands of Zeiss

D. Bowman’s glands

a connexon is a structural component of the: A. adhesion belt B. macula adherens C. gap junction D. tight junction E. desmosome

C. gap junction

Which of the following types of cells serve as interneurons that interconnnect ganglion cells and bipolar cells? A. Mueller cells B. Amacrine cells C. Brunner cells D. Horizontal cells

B. Amacrine cells

C. Glossopharyngeal nerve

A number of hormones are involved in the control of glomerular filtration rate. Which of the following preferentialy constricts the efferent arterioles but has little to no effect on the afferent arterioles? A. Bradykinin B. Angiotensin II C. Endothelial-derived nitric oxide D. Endothelin

B. Angiotensin II Lecture 17 - Micturition and Glomerular Filtration

Q: In most individuals the left cerebral hemisphere is considered dominant. Which of the following areas in the left hemisphere does not display dominance in either hemisphere? A. Wernicke’s area B. Primary sensory cortex C. Broca’s area D. Angular gyrus

B. Primary sensory cortex

if the end-diastolic volume is 120 ml, and the end-systolic volume is 50 ml, what is the approximate ejection fraction? A. 42% B. 60% C. 214% D. 240%

B. 60%

Which of the following structures attaches to the membrane over the oval window? A. Malleus B. Incus C. Stapes D. None of the above

C. Stapes Leccture 17, Slide 8

Which of the following factors is most responsible for controlling the rate of blood flow to each tissue of the body so that it is precisely controlled in relation to tissue need? A. Sympathetic system B. Renin-aldosterone-angiotensinogen system C. Oxygen and accumulation of tissue waste products D. Constriction of large venous resevoirs

C. Oxygen and accumulation of tissue waste products

GFR (glomerular filtration rate) is determined by the net filtration pressure and the glomerular capillary filtration coefficient. which of the following factors has the greatest effect on increasing GFR? A. glomerular capillary colloid osmotic pressure B. BOwman's capsule hydrostatic pressure C. BOwman's capsule colloid osmotic pressure D. glomerular hydrostatic pressure

D. glomerular hydrostatic pressure

fenestrated capillaries would not be characterized by which of the following? A. the endothelium has numerous openings (fenestrae) B. the fenestrae may have thin diaphragm C. the basal lamina is discontinuous D. they are associated with renal glomeruli

C. the basal lamina is discontinuous

Identify the structure/layer on the photomicrograph below that is marked with an asterisk. A. Tunica media B. External elastic lamina C. Internal elastic lamina D. Tunica adventitia E. Smooth muscle

D. Tunica adventitia

which of the following organs would not be seen in a mid-sagital section of the human body? A. heart B. lungs C. intestines D. transverse colon E. brain

B. lungs

identify type of epithelium A. transitional B. stratified cuboidal C. simple columnar D. stratified squamous keratinized E. stratified squamous non-keratinized

C. simple columnar

Vagal lobes are found in which of the following groups of organisms? A. Fish B. Amphibians C. Reptiles D. Mammals

A. Fish

Which of the following nerves innervate(s) the flexor digitorum profundus muscle? A. Ulnar nerve B. Median nerve C. Both the ulnar and the median nerve D. Neither the ulnar nerve of the median nerve

Both the ulnar nerve and median nerve

Which of the following scalene muscles attaches to the second rib? A. Anterior B. Middle C. Posterior D. None of the above, all attach to the first rib

C. Posterior

identify the type of cell shown in this slide A. lymphocyte B. neutrophil C. monocyte D. basophil E. eosinophil

B. neutrophil

The resting potential of -85 mv is characteristic of which of the following phases of the cardiac fast action potential? A. Stage 1. B. Stage 2. C. Stage 3. D. Stage 4.

D. Stage 4.

At the time of fertilization, the oocyte has reached which of the following stages of development? A. prophase I of meiosis with no polar bodies B. metaphase II of meiosis with one polar body C. prophase II of meiosis with no polar bodies D. it has completed meiosis and has two polar bodies

B. metaphase II of meiosis with one polar body

Which of the following arteries branches from the third part of the maxillary artery? A. Posterior superior alveolar B. Buccal C. Inferior alveolar D. Middle meningeal

A. Posterior superior alveolar

Calcium carbonate crystals, known as otoliths, are found associated with which of the following structures? A. Scala tympnai B. Cristae ampulares of the semicircular canals C. Macula of the utricle and saccule D. Cochlear duct

C. Macula of the utricle and saccule Lecture 17, Slide 13 & 14

The infraorbital, anterior superior alveolar, zygomatic, palatine, nasal, and posterior superior alveolar nerves are all branches of which of the following? A. ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve B. facial nerve C. maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve D. mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve

C. maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve

During the conduction of a signal from the SA node to the ventricular fibers, there is a .16 second delay from the initial origin of the signal until onset of ventricular contraction. More than half of this delay occurs in which of the following areas of the transmission? A. SA node B. AV node C. SA node D. penetrating bundles

B. AV node Delay in the AV node is .09 seconds.

identify the type of tissue shown in the following photomicrograph A. hyaline cartilage B. dense fibrous connective tissue C. areolar connective tissue D. compact bone E. spongy bone

D. compact bone

identify layer indicated by arrow A. tunica media B. external elastic lamina C. internal elastic lamina D. tunica adventitia

C. internal elastic lamina

The forces that determine whether fluid will move out of the blood into the interstitial fluid or in the opposite direction are referred to as Starling forces. Which of the following forces tends to move fluid inward at the arterial end of the capillary? A. Capillary hydrostatic pressure B. Negative interstitial free fluid pressure C. Plasma colloid osmotic pressure D. Interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure

C. Plasma colloid osmotic pressure Plasma colloid osmotic pressure is the force generated by proteins in the plasma which draws water into the vessel. Capillary hydrostatic pressure pushes water out of the vessel. Interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressue draws water out of the vessel. A positive interstitial free fluid pressure would push fluid into the vessel, however, it is negative so it pulls fluid out.

Identify the structure indicated by the arrow in the attached photomicrograph. A. Germinal center B. Proximal convoluted tubule C. Glomerulus D. GALT

C. Glomerulus

Which of the following is the longest and widest part of the uterine tube? A. isthmus B. ampulla C. intramural D. fimbriae

B, ampulla

which of the following cells play a major role in the secretion of potassium? A. intercalated cells B. principal cells C. chief cells D. podocytes

B. principal cells

which of the following muscles is most important in rotating the great tubercle from under the acromion during full arm elevation? A. teres minor B. infraspinatus C. supraspinatus D. subscapularis E. pectoralis minor

B. infraspinatus

Which of the following processes does not require the presence of mitochondria? A. Oxidative phosphorylation B. Production of carbon dioxide and water C. Breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid D. Electron transfer between cytochromes E. Utilization of oxygen as a final electron receptor

C. Breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid

if arterial blood carries 19.4 ml of oxygen per deciliter, and returning venous blood carries 14.4 ml of oxygen per deciliter, the utilization coefficient is approximately ..? A. 25% B. 40% C. 50% D. 75%

A. 25%

Identify the type of cell shown in this slide. A. Lymphocyte B. Neutrophil C. Monocyte D. Basophil E. Eosinophil

A. Lymphocyte

the cardiac muscle fast action potential occurs inthe atria, ventricles and conduction system. it is typically divided into five phases, numbered from 0 to 4. the resting potential of -85 mV is characteristic of which of the following phases? A. phase 0 B. phase 1 C. phase 2 D. phase 3 E. phase 4

E. phase 4

In the photomicrograph below identify the specific structure indicated by the arrow. A. Axon B. Axon hillock C. Dendrite D. Telodendrite

A. Axon

The magnocellular zone of the RAS is characterized by a specific type of neuron with long radiating dendrites spread out in a plane perpendicular to the long axis of the brainstem. It has been suggested that the function to this area of the brain stem may be associated with which of the following? A.carrying information from the pineal body to the RAS B. connecting the superior and inferior colliculi C. picking up information from a variety of sources D. linking olfactory and taste sensations to the autonomic nervous system

C. picking up information from a variety of sources

Identify the specific type of cell indicated by the arrow in the attached photomicrograph. A. Podocyte B. Paneth cell C. Parietal cell D. Mesangial cell

A. Podocyte

How many pairs of cervical spinal nerves are present in the human? A. five B. six C. seven D. eight E. nine

D. eight

identify the following type of tissue A. dense irregular connective tissue B. fibrous connective tissue C. cardiac muscle D. smooth muscle

D. smooth muscle

Testosterone that is not fixed in tissues is converted into other compounds and conjugated to be excreted in the gut or urine. The initial conversion to other compounds occurs in which of the following structures? A. Epididymis B. Liver C. Spleen D. Gallbladder

B. Liver

which of the following heart activities is represented in the attached ECG (lead I)? A. sinus tachycardia B. sinus bradycardia C. complete AV block D. incomplete second degree block with dropped beats

A. Suns tachycardia

Which of the following types of receptors are found at the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle cells? A. Nicotinic B. Muscarinic C. Alpha-1 D. Beta-1

A. Nicotinic

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of lack of aldosterone? A. Reduction in blood volume B. Hypernatremia C. Hyperkalemia D. Reduction in blood pressure

B. Hypernatremia

the photomicrograph below is taken from which of the following organs? A. fundic stomach B. ureter C. renal crotex D. tongue

B. ureter

which of the following cranial nerves supplies motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles? A. IX B. X C. XI D. XII

C. XI

the hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric vein and which of the following? A. inferior mesenteric vein B. splenic vein C. left gastropiploic vein D. right gastroepiploic vein E. gastroduodenal vein

B. splenic vein

Which of the following muscles consists of two bellies, originating from the body of the hyoid and the superior border of the scapula? A. omohyoid B. digastric C. geniohyoid D. cervicohyoid

A. omohyoid

Melanin-containing, dopaminergic neurons and iron-containing cells that secrete serotonin and GABA are major components of which of the following? A. Substantia nigra B. Thalamus C. RAS D. Superior colliculi

A. Substantia nigra

Extensive bilateral lesions involving the mid-pons and the midbrain reticular formation are associated with which of the following conditions? A. Consciousness but quadriplegic B. Coma C. Hypotonia D. Unconscious regulation and coordination of motor activities

B. Coma

Beta-3 receptors are involved in which of the following functions? A. Adrenergic, thermogenesis B. Adrenergic, glycogenolysis C. Adrenergic, cardiac acceleration D. Adrenergic, vasoconstriction

A. Adrenergic, thermogenesis

Angiotensionogen is converted to angiotensin I by renin. Angiotensin I is then converted to angiotension II, which then results in an increase in extracellular fluid volume. Angiotensinogen is derived from which of the following sources? A. Kidney B. Liver C. Adrenal cortex D. Adrenal medulla

B. Liver Most (not all) proteins that are always present in the blood stream are secreted by the liver.

The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial cavity via which of the following foramina? A. Ovale B. Rotundum C. Spinosum D. Lacerum

C. Spinosum

Which of the following lobes would not be found in the right lung? A. upper (superior) B. middle C. lower (inferior) D. lingula

D. lingula

Which of the following factors affect(s) pulse pressure? A. Vascular elastance B. Arterial complaince C. Stroke volume D. All of the above E. B and C only

E. B and C only (arterial compliance and stroke volume) Pulse pressure = stroke volume / arterial compliance.

the anterior belly of the diagastric muscle is derived from the first pharyngeal arch is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. facial B. trigeminal C. glossopharyngeal D. hypoglossal

B. trigeminal

Of the three bipolar leads, which one is connected to both the left and right arm? A. Lead I B. Lead II C. Lead III D. All leads are connected to only one arm each

A. Lead I

Which of the following is a vasodilator that may help to offset the effects of vasoconstrictors, especially on afferent arteriole? A. Bradykinin B. Endothelin C. Angiotension II D. Norepinephrine

A. Bradykinin

Which of the following muscles is necessary for the first few degrees of arm elevation? A. Infraspinatus B. Subscapularis C. Teres major D. Teres minor E. Supraspinatus

E. supraspinatus

In the photomicrograph below, he arrow is pointing to which of the following structures? A. Pigmented layer of the retina B. Sensory layer of the retina C. Choroid D. Sclera

B. Sensory layer of the retina

The greater splanchnic nerve originates from spinal cord levels T5-T9. Which of the following statements concerning this nerve is correct? A. It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the superior mesenteric ganglion. B. It is composed of postganglionic fibers and terminates within the wall of the gut tube. C. It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the celiac ganglion. D. It is composed of preganglionic fibers and synapses in the superior mesenteric ganglion.

C. It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the celiac ganglion.

The conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-hydroxychoolecalciferol occurs in which of the following? A. Bone B. Liver C. Blood D. Kidney

D. Kidney

The rate and depth of breathing is mainly controlled through which of the following brain centers? A. dorsal respiratory group B. pneumotaxic center C. ventral respiratory center D. carotid body

B. pneumotaxic center

Parathyroid hormone stimulates osteoblasts to secrete/express which of the following? A. Osteoprotegerin B. M-CSF C. RANKL D. All of the above E. Only B and C

E. Only B and C (M-CSF and RANKL)

Q: Which of the following nerve actions would be least affected in an individual with Arnold Chiari defect? A. Hearing B. Movement of the tongue C. Movement of eye upward D. Facial expression

C. Movement of eye upward

Which of the following muscles is not part of the rotator cuff? A. Teres major B. Subscapularis C. Teres minor D. Supraspinatus E. Infraspinatus

A. Teres major

Q: The gluteus medius and minimus are actually the same muscle separated by which of the following? A. Femoral nerver B. Iliotibial tract C. Superior gluteal nerve D. Inferior gluteal artery

C. Superior gluteal nerve

Most bicarbonate reabsorption occurs in which of the following parts of the renal tubule? A. Proximal tubule B. Descending limb of Henle C. Ascending limb of Henle D. Distal tubule

A. Proximal tubule

The pressure difference between pleural pressure and alveolar pressure is referred to as: A. atmospheric pressure B. compliance C. thoracic pressure D. transpulmonary pressure

D. transpulmonary pressure

A high potassium intake would have which of the following effects on potassium excretion associated with increased renal tubular flow rate? A. Potassium excretion would increase with increased tubular flow rate. B. Potassium excretion would decrease with increased tubular flow rate. C. There would be little effect. D. Tubular flow rate would be decreased.

A. Potassium excretion would increase with increased tubular flow rate.

Which of the following cell types have a bilobed nucleus and specific granules containing major basic protein that disrupts parasite membranes? A. Basophils B. Eosinophils C. Neutrophils D. Monocytes E. Lymphocytes

B. Eosinophils

Pregnenolone is an intermediate in the synthesis of progesterone from cholesterol. It is synthesized in which of the following? A.granulosa cells only B. granulosa and theca cells C.thecal cells only D. none of the above

B. granulosa and theca cells

The following photomicrograph shows a portion of an epiphyseal plate. The specific region of the growth plate indicated by the letter “B” represents which of the following growth plate zones? A. Calcification zone B. Proliferative zone C. Reserve zone D. Hypertrophic zone

D. Hypertrophic zone

The photomicrograph below is taken from which of the following organs? A. Jejunum B. Fundic stomach C. Renal medulla D. Duodenum

B. Fundic stomach Lecture 23, Slide 62

Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of layers III-VI of the lateral geniculate nucleus? A. They constitute the magnocellular region of the lateral geniculate nucleus. B. They are associated with accurate point-to-point transmission. C. Almost all their input is via X type ganglion cells. D. They transmit color.

A. They constitute the magnocellular region of the lateral geniculate nucleus.

"Oil glands" (sebaceous glands) secreting their product directly into the hair follicle are classified with regard to their method of secretion by which of the following terms? A. Sudoriferous B. Eccrine C. Merocrine D. Holocrine E. Apocrine

D. Holocrine

In the attached photomicrograph, identify specific types of cells indicated by arrow and the type of bone formation shown here. A. Chondroblasts and endochondral bone growth B. Osteoclasts and endochondral bone growth C. Osteoclasts and intramembrane bone formation D. Osteoblasts and intramembrane bone formation

D. Osteoblasts and intramembrane bone formation

Shortly after birth in the ovaries of the human female, all the germ cells in the ovaries are in which of the following developmental stages? A. metaphase stage of meiosis II B. first polar body stage C. granulosa cell stage D. diplotene stage of meiosis I

D. diplotene stage of meiosis I

Which of the following buffer systems is most important in buffering renal tubular fluid? A. Phosphate buffer system B. Carbonate buffer system C. Bicarbonate buffer system D. Hemoglobin buffer system

A. Phosphate buffer system

Remnants of the umbilical arteries are associated with which of the following landmarks on the posterior aspect of the anterior abdominal wall? A. falciform ligament B. medial umbilical folds C. median umbilical folds D. lateral umbilical folds E. ligamentum teres

B. medial umbilical folds

Q: All of the following features except one are characteristic of the male pelvis in comparison with the female pelvis. Which one is characteristic of the female pelvis? A. Deeper greater pelvis B. Round obturator foramen C. Wide pubic arch D. Large acetabulum

C. Wide pubic arch

How much filtered calcium is excreted by the kidneys? A. 1% B. 47% C. 78% D. 99%

A. 1%

Spironolactone blocks mineralocorticoid receptors. This would probably have which of the following effects? A. Hypernatremia B. Increase in extracellular fluid volume C. Reduction in cardiac output D. Anemia

C. Reduction in cardiac output

Identify the later indicated by the arrow. A. Tunica meida B. External elastic lamina C. Internal elastic lamina D. Tunica adventitia

C. Internal elastic lamina Lecture 20, Slide 18

name the boundaries of the anatomical snuff box

1. extensor pollicis longus 2. extensor pollicis brevis 3. abductor pollicis brevis hint: he said imagine this one as a which of the following are not part of the anatomical snuff box

Voltage-gated channels are found on which of the following kinds of membranes? A. Epineurium B. Neurolemma C. Perineurium D. Endoneurium

B. Neurolemma

approximately what percentage of total cardiac output is received by the kidneys? A. 15% B. 22% C. 34% D. 47%

B. 22%

ADH acts on which of the following regions of the nephron? A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Descending loop of Henle C. Ascending loop of Henle D. Distal convoluted tubule

D. Distal convoluted tubule

Which of the following maintains an optimum calcium concentration gradient to facilitate return of calcium to SR? (A) Calsequestrin (B) SERCA (C) DHP (D) Ryanodine

(A) Calsequestrin

The head of the radius articulates with which of the following landmarks? A. Capitulum of the humerus B. Scaphoid and lunate bones of the carpus C. Trochlea of the humerus D. Fovea of the trochlear process

A. Capitulum of the humerus

Which of the following may be considered to be the center for homeostasis? A. Epithalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Thalamus D. RAS

B. Hypothalamus

Q: What muscle attaches to red area indicated? (See Lecture 1, Slide 7 of pelvic bones) A. Gluteus maximus B. Iliacus C. Gluteus medius D. Gluteus minimus

C. Gluteus medius

The Trendelenburg test is used to evaluate which of the following muscles? A. pectineus B. gluteus medius C. gluteus maximus D. quadriceps femoris

B. gluteus medius

Which of the following ligaments is the primary support for the medial longitudinal arch of the foot? A. long plantar B. plantar calcaneonavicular C. plantar calcaneocubod D. deltoid

B. plantar calcaneonavicular

Identify the type of gland shown in the photomicrograph below. A. Submandibular B. Sebaceous C. Parotid D. Bowman’s

B. Sebaceous Lecture 19, Slide 34

Which of the following is the major parasympathetic nerve to thoracic and most abdominal organs? A. Trigeminal nerve B. Spinal accessory nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Hypoglossal nerve

C. Vagus nerve

Q: What is the approximate angle of inclination in the average young adult? A. 175 B. 150 C. 125 D. 74 E. 15

C. 125

The cerebral hemispheres consist of large areas of gray matter such as the cortices and the striatum. In addition, there are many myelinated tracts comprising the white matter of the cerebrum. Which group of tracts connects gyri to gyri within the same hemisphere? A.commissural B. arcuate C. longitudinal D. unicate

B. arcuate

The sodium-potassium pump is an example of which of the following kinds of transport? A. Diffusion B. Primary active transport C. Secondary active transport D. Facilitated diffusion

B. Primary active transport

almost 90 percent of glucose reabsorption occurs in the early proximal tubule. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for moving glucose from the tubular lumen intoo the cytoplasmic compartment? A. primary active transport via a glucose ATPase pump B. secodary active transport via a sodium/glucose cotransporter C. secondary active transport via a sodium/glucose antiporter D. diffusion due to concentration differences between tubular fluid and cytoplasm

B. secondary active transport via a sodium/glucose cotransporter

Which of the following characteristics of Addison’s disease is due to a glucocorticoid deficiency? A. Muscle weakness B. Decrease in cardiac output C. Rise in RBC concentration D. Mild acidosis

A. Muscle weakness

Which cranial nerve is responsible for taste on the posterior portion of the tongue? A.III B.V C.VII D.IX

D.IX

Primary active hydrogen secretion involves a hydrogen-transporting ATPase. It occurs in which of the following parts of the renal tubule? A. Descending limb of Henle B. Ascending limb of Henle C. Late distal tubules in intercalated cells D. Early collecting tubules in principal cells

C. Late distal tubules in intercalated cells

Gamma motor neurons are associated with which of the following structures? A. Golgi tendon organs B. Secondary myfibers C. Muscle spindles D. Purkinje fibers

C. Muscle spindles

Which of the following represents the original cephalic boundary of the neural tube and separates the two lateral ventricles of the telencephalon? A. papez circuit B. corpus striatum C. lamina terminalis D. neocortex

C. lamina terminalis

Pancreatic acini secrete enzymes and a bicarbonate-rich alkaline fluid. Release of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the acinar ductal cells is stimulated by which of the following? A. Cholecystokinin B. Gastrin C. Secretin D. Hydrochloric acid

C. Secretin Lecture 26, Slide 9 & 11

which of the following plays a major role in stimulating potassium excretion by the kidney tubules? A. aldosterone B. angiotensin II C. sodium ion D. PTH

A. alodosterone

Stroke volume output can be increased by which of the following mechanisms? A. Decreasing EDV. B. Increasing EDV. C. Increasing ESV. D. By decreasing EDV and increasing ESV.

B. Increasing EDV.

which of the following represents the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity? A. infraglottic cavity B. rima glottidis C. rima vestibuli D. space between the vestibular folds

B. rima glottidis

Which of the following areas of the brain is normally inhibitted by signals from the heat center but is activated by cold signals from the skin and spinal cord and is responsible for the activation of shivering responses? A. anterior hypothalamus B. preoptic area C. posterior hypothalamus D. thalamus

C. posterior hypothalamus

Q: The major constituent of the pelvic diaphragm is the levator ani complex. Which of the following is NOT part of the levator ani complex? A. Puborectalis B. Pubococcygeus C. Coccygeus D. Iliococcygeus

C. Coccygeus

Which of the following characteristics is TRUE for the plantar interosseous muscles of the foot? A. they are abductors B. they utilize the third toe for their axis of adduction/abduction C. they are unipennate D. they are adductors

D. they are adductors

Identify the tendon of the muslce indicated by the arrow. A. Extensor pollicis brevis B. Extensor pollicis longus C. Abductor pollicis longus D. Abductor pollicis brevis

B. Extensor pollicis longus

Which of the following represents the mean electrical axis of the normal ventricle? A. 59 degrees B. 67 degrees C. 120 degrees D. 157 degrees E. 270 degrees

A. 59 degrees The mean axis of the heart is a sum of all the mean electrical vectors that occur during ventricular depolarization. The more muslce present in a region will result in a larger deviation of the axis towards that muscle. The left ventricle is more muscular than the right ventricle resulting in the mean axis pointing more to the left.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of “X” ganglion cells? A. They have the smallest axion diameters of all the ganglion cells. B. They have broad fields in the peripheral retina. C. They make up approximately 5 percent of all the ganglion cells. D. They are probably responsible for all color vision.

D. They are probably responsible for all color vision.

Blood supply to the larynx is through superior and inferior laryngeal arteries. These are direct branches of which of the following? A. inferior thyroid arteries B. middle branches of the maxillary arteries C. laryngeal branches of the external carotid artery D.pharyngeal branches of the external carotid artery

A. inferior thyroid arteries

The helicotrema connects which of the two compartments listed below? A. Middle ear chamber and the scala media B. Scala vestibuli and scala tympani C. Scala tympani and the cochlear duct D. Round window and the cochlear duct

B. Scala vestibuli and scala tympani Lecture 17, Slide 23

Which of the following substances move across the placental membranes via facilitated diffusion? A.creatinine B. urea C. fats D. glucose

D. glucose

Prolactin promotes milk secretion. It has full effects on milk secretion after birth due to which of the following physiological reasons? A.The corpus luteum produces an extra surge of estrogen B. Levels of oxytocin have increased considerably C. progesterone and estrogen effects on placenta have been eliminated D. human chorionic gonadotropin levels increase considerably after birth

C. progesterone and estrogen effects on placenta have been eliminated

The abdominal aorta gives off three pairs of visceral branches. Which of the following would not be included in this group? A. renal B. gonadal C. middle suprarenal D. phrenic

D. phrenic

Wharton’s jelly is an example of which category of connective tissue? A. Special B. Areolar C. Embryonic D. Adult E. Cartilaginous

C. Embryonic

The nucleus cuneatus and nucleus gracilis are found in which of the following brain subdivisions? A. Telencephalon B. Diencephalon C. Mesencephalon D. Metencephalon E. Myelencephalon

E. Myelencephalon

in the photomicrograph below, identify the group of cells A. juxtaglomerular apparatus B. collecting duct C. ascending loop of Henle D. macula densa

D. macula densa

Which of the following statements is/are correct concerning the dorsal interossei? A. They are innervated by the ulnar nerve B. They are adductors of digits 2, 3, and 4 C. They are unipennate D. The middle finger (Digit 3) is not supplied by these muscles.

A. They are innervated by the ulnar nerve

Q: How much of the signal allowed to pass to the visual cortex (gating control) is determined by which of the following? [Which of the following determines how much of the signal is allowed to pass to the visual cortex (gating control)?] A. Amacrine cells B. Ganglion cells C. Lateral geniculate nucleus D. Interplexiform cells E. Color blobs in the visual cortex

C. Lateral geniculate nucleus

Which of the following cranial nerves supplies extrinsic and intrinsic muscle of the tongue? A. cranial nerve IX B. cranial nerve X C. cranial nerve XI D. cranial nerve XII

D. cranial nerve XII

A. Lateral pterygoid muscle

The large reddish blood cell shown in this photomicrograph represents which of the following kinds of cells? A. Neutrophil B. Basophil C. Eosinophil D. Lymphocyte

C. Eosinophil

Which of the following segment of the nephron is NOT permeable to water? A. Proximal convoluted tubule in the pressence of ADH B. Descending loop of Henle in the pressence of ADH C. Ascending loop of Henle in the pressence of ADH D. Distal convoluted tubule in the pressence of ADH

C. Ascending loop of Henle in the pressence of ADH

A certain dietary deficiency condition weakens the heart. Under these conditions, if the systemic filling pressure is 11.5, the right atrial pressure is 9 mmHg, and the cardiac output is 8 L/min, this type of heart failure would be best referred to as which of the following? A. Low-output cardiac failure B. Left-right cardiac shunt C. Right-left cardiac shunt D. High-output cardiac failure

D. High-output cardiac failure The question states that it is a dietary deficiency causing heart weakening which is responsible for the changes (this eliminates the cardiac shunts). Cardiac output is higher than normal (5 L/min) indicates high-output cardiac failure.

Which of the following muscle groups is part of the intrinsic musculature of the back? A. Trapezius B. Erector spinae group C. Latissimus D. Serratus posterior group

Erector spinae group

Q: Which of the following statement concerning lymphatic drainage from the lower limb is correct? A. Lymphatics draining the lateral foot ascend with the great saphenous vein. B. Lymphatics draining the lateral foot end in the superficial lymph nodes. C. Lymphatics draining the lateral foot end in lymph nodes in the popliteal fossa. D. Lymphatics draining the lateral foot also drain the external genitalia and perineum.

C. Lymphatics draining the lateral foot end in lymph nodes in the popliteal fossa.

In the pituitary gland, somatotropes (acidophils) secrete which of the following tropic hormones? A. Thyroid stimulating hormone B. Human growth factor C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone D. Luteinizing hormone

B. Human growth factor

"Winging of the scapula" may be the result of injury to which of the following nerves? A. Thoracodorsal B. Axillary C. Long thoracic D. Thoracoacromial E. Suprascapular

Long Thoracic

Which of the following muscles consists of two bellies, which originate from the body of the hyoid and the superior border of the scapula? A. Omohyoid B. Digastric C. Geniohyoid D. Cervicohyoid

A. Omohyoid

Identify the type of epithelium shown in this slide. A. Simple cuboidal B. Stratified cuboidal C. Simple squamous D. Stratified squamous keratinized E. Stratified squamous non-keratinized

E. Stratified squamous non-keratinized Lecture 4, Slide 4

The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial cavity via which of the following foramina? A. ovale B. rotundum C. spinosum D. lacerum

C. spinosum

Q: Which of the following statements regarding ion flow through rod membranes in the dark is FALSE? A. The outer rod segment is leaky to sodium ions B. The inner rod segment continually pumps sodium ions to the outside. C. The inner rod segment is leaky to potassium ions D. cGMP gated channels are open in the outer rod segment E. The inside of the rod membrane has a potential of -70 mV.

E. The inside of the rod membrane has a potential of -70 mV.

Which of the following receptors are sensory endings (C fibers) in the alveolar wall next to the pulmonary capillaries that are sensitive to pulmonary edema? A. Slow-adapting pulmonary stretch receptors B. Rapidly-adapting pulmonary stretch receptors C. J receptors D. Hering Breuer receptors

C. J receptors

Which of the following characterizes pancreatic secretions under low flow rates? A.isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride ions B. Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and bicarbonate ions C. Hypotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride ions D. Hypotonic, composed mostly of sodium and bicarbonate ions

A.isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride ions

Which of the following represents an example of an eccentric contraction? A. The triceps muscle during the throwing of a ball. B. The triceps muscle while raising the body from the floor during a push-up. C. The triceps muscle while lowering the body to the floor during a push-up. D. The biceps muscle while raising the body during a pull-up.

C. The triceps muscle while lowering the body to the floor during a push-up.

The solubility of oxygen = 0.024; the solubility of carbon dioxide = 0.57. Because carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than oxygen, it will exert a partial pressure (for a given concentration) that is less than 1/20^th that of oxygen. This relationship between partial pressures and solubility illustrates which of the following gas laws? A. Henry’s B. Boyle’s C. Dalton’s D. Euclid’s

A. Henry’s

ADH is primarily formed in which of the following locations? A. supraoptic nuclei B. acidophils of adenohypophysis C. paraventricular nuclei D. basophils of adenohypophysis

A. supraoptic nuclei

Following injury to a nerve at the wrist, the thumb is laterally rotated and adducted. The hand has a flattened appearance and is “ape-like.” Which of the following nerves is damaged? A. Ulnar B. Axillary C. Radial D. Median

D. Median

in the photomicrograph below, identify the structure indicated by the red star. A. trochlea B. lateral supracondylar ridge C. medial supracondylar ridge D. capitulum E. olecranon fossa

A. trochlea

B. Auditory tube

Which of the following cell types is associated with merocrine sweat glands secrete water and electrolytes? A. Apical dark cells B. Myoepithelial cells C. Basal cells D. Glands of Moll

C. Basal cells

Q: Which of the following principles states that the nervous system detects sound frequencies by determining positions along the basilar membrane that are most stimulated? A. Attenuation reflex B. Impedance matching C. Principle of Corti D. Place principle

D. Place principle

Which of the following statement(s) concerning the anatomy of a typical rib is correct? A. The sternal end of each rib lies at a higher level than the vertebral ends. B. The tubercle of a typical rib articulates with the transverse process of the vertebra with the same number. C. Ribs 1-7 are referred to as vertebrocondral ribs. D. The costal groove contains from superior to inferior: nerve, artery, vein. E. The head of a typical rib articulates with the demifacets of its own number vertebra and the vertebra below.

The tubercle f a typical rib articulates with the transverse process of the vertebra with the same number.

Which of the following statement(s) is true? A. The radial nerve travels medial to the radial artery in the forearm. B. The ulnar nerve accompanies the ulnar artery in the forearm. C. The anterior ulnar recurrent artery anastomoses with the superior ulnar collateral. D. The recurrent radial artery anastomoses with the ascending brachial artery.

B. The ulnar nerve accompanies the ulnar artery in the forearm.

How many cervical vertebrae are present in the human vertebral column? A. five B. six C. seven D. eight E. nine

C. seven

which of the following is the direction of bipolar lead III? A. 0 degrees B. 60 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 120 degrees

D. 120 degrees

Q: The lateral compartment of the leg is supplied by which of the following nerves? A. Deep fibular (peroneal) nerve B. Superficial fibular (peroneal) nerve C. Tibial nerve D. Obturator nerve

B. Superficial fibular (peroneal) nerve

Which of the following would NOT be a function of the liver? A. Gluconeogenesis B. Formation of urea C. Synthesis of prothrombin D. Synthesis of calbindin

D. Synthesis of calbindin

The boundaries of the anatomical snuff box include all of the following **except**: A. Abductor pollicis brevis B. Extensor pollicis longus C. Extensor pollicis brevis D. Abductor pollicis longus

A. Abductor pollicis brevis

Q: Growth hormones adenomas that develop in adulthood can result in what condition? A. gigantism B. dwarfism C. acromegaly D. none of these

C. acromegaly

Which of the following terms refers to an aggregation of nerve cell bodies, dendrites, and synapses in the central nervous system? A. synapse B. ganglion C. nerve D. nucleus

D. nucleus

Which of the following nerves supplies parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland? A. Facial nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Vagus nerve

C. Glossopharyngeal nerve

Which of the following types of collagen forms a meshwork in basement membranes? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV E. Type V

D. Type IV

Parasympathetic fibers that control the shape of the lens and pupil are carried by which of the following nerves? A. Ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Facial nerve D. Abducens nerve

B. Oculomotor nerve

Which of the following ligaments extends from the base of the zygomatic process to the mandibular neck? A. Temporomandibular B. Stylomandibular C. Sphenomandibular D. Pterygopalatine

A. Temporomandibular

Q: The superior colliculi for visual reflexes and the inferior colliculi for auditory and olfactory reflexes are located in the tectum (roof) of which of the following subdivisions of the brain? A. Telencephalon B. Diencephalon C. Mesencephalon D. Metencephalon E. Myelencephalon

C. Mesencephalon

The anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of which of the following? A. Ulnar nerve B. Radial nerve C. Median nerve D. Posterior cord

C. Median Nerve

Approximately 60 percent of the total volume of semen is derived from which of the following sources? A. Bulbourethral glands B. Epididymis C. Prostate gland D. Seminal vesicles

D. Seminal vesicles

which of the following is not part of a portal triad? A. hepatic arterial branch B. portal venule C. hepatic sinusoid D. bile duct

C. hepatic sinusoid

In the photomicrograph below, identify the group of cells indicated by the arrow. A. Juxtaglomerular apparatus B. Collecting duct C. Ascending loop of Henle D. Macula densa

D. Macula densa

the specific type of epithelium covering the true vocal folds is: A. stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelial tissue B. stratified squamous keratinized epithelial tissue C. respiratory epithelium D. olfactory epithelium E. simple low cuboidal epithelium

A. stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelial tissue

B. Facial nerve

Magnesium and calcium are reabsorbed from the tubular lumen through which of the following mechanisms? A. Antiport with sodium ions B. Active transport via transporters in the basal membrane C. Paracellular transport due to positive charge in the tubular lumen D. Paracellular transport due to negative charge in the interstitium

C. Paracellular transport due to positive charge in the tubular lumen

The posterior belly of the digastric muscle is derived from the second pharyngeal arch and is innervated by which of the following nerves? A.facial B.trigeminal C. glossopharyngeal D. hypoglossal

A.facial

Identify the nerve indicated in the drawing of the region of the elbow. A. Radial B. Ulnar C. Musculocutaneous D. Median

B. Ulnar

The macula densa is found in which of the following parts of the renal tubule? A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Thin descending limb of Hinle C. Thick ascending limb of Hinle D. Distal convoluted tubule

D. Distal convoluted tubule Lecture 17 - Micturition and Glomerular Filtration

Which of the following responses would NOT be part of the alarm response? A. Increased arterial pressure B. Increased glycogenesis C. Increased blood glucose concentration D. Increased mental activity

B. Increased glycogenesis

Q: Critical types of tactile signals, such as two-point discrimination, are transmitted through which of the following? A. Dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway B. Spinoreticular pathway C. Pyramidal pathway D. Spinothalamic pathway

A. Dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway

Q: Which of the following is characteristic for both the ilionguinal and iliohypogastric nerves? A. Innervate the psoas major muscle B. Pass posterior to the quadratus lumborum C. Are both part of the L1 ventral ramus D. Together form the lumbosacral trunk E. Supply the adductor muscles of the thigh

C. Are both part of the L1 ventral ramus

Immediately prior to the ventricular isovolumic contraction, there is a slight but marked elevation in atrial pressure. Which of the following is responsible for this elevated pressure? A. Closure of the AV valve B. Opening of the AV valve C. Atrial contraction D. Diastasis E. Opening of the semilunar valve

C. Atrial contraction

Q: Which of the following muscles in the superficial perineal pouch runs alongside the inferior border of the rami of the ischium and pubis? A. Sphincter urethrae B. Superficial and deep perineal muscles C. Ischiocavernosis muscle D. Bulbospongiosus muscle

C. Ischiocavernosis muscle

The ciliary ganglion is an extension of which cranial nerve? A.III B. VII C. IX D. X

A.III

Q: A memory system that has been discovered in the sea snail Aplysia includes a facilitator terminal synapsing with a sensory neuron. If a noxious stimulus excites the facilitator terminal causes the memory pathway through the sensory terminal to become facilitated for a period of time. The neurotransmitter released by the facilitator terminal is which of the following? A. Acetylcholine B. Norepinephrine C. Serotonin D. Dopamine

C. Serotonin

Q: Which of the following muscles is necessary to “unlock” the knee from its extended position? A. Plantaris B. Popliteus C. Soleus D. Lateral head of the gastrocnemius

B. Popliteus

Q: Paired, elongated erectile tissue structures that surround the vaginal orifice are referred to as which of the following? A. Labia minora B. Labia majora C. Bulbs of the vestibule D. Greater vestibular glands

C. Bulbs of the vestibule

Renal autoregulation refers to the relative constancy of GFR and renal blood flow. A decrease in arterial pressure and glomerular filtration rate ultimately leads to a reduction in the concentraiton of sodium ions at the macula densa. This results in which of the following responses that ultimately restores GFR? A. Release of renin by the juxtaglomerular apparatus B. Release of endothelin by the glomerular capillaries C. Release of nitric oxide by the vasa recta endothelium D. Release of angiotensin II by the juxtaglomerular apparatus

A. Release of renin by the juxtaglomerular apparatus Lecture 17 - Micturition and Glomerular Filtration

The anterior and middle superior alveolar arteries are direct branches of which of the following? A.second part of the maxillary artery B. mandibular artery C. infraorbital artery D. buccal artery

C. infraorbital artery

The diagram below illustrates the lateral cervical triangle. The posterior border of the triangle is marked by the red star, which indicates which of the following muscle landmarks? A. Anterior border of the trapezius B. Posterior border of the trapezius C. Anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid D. Posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid E. Anterior border of the anterior scalene

A. Anterior border of the trapezius

Which of the following buffer systems is the most important extracellular buffer system. A. Phosphate buffer system B. Carbonate buffer system C. Bicarbonate buffer system D. Hemoglobin buffer system

C. Bicarbonate buffer system

A. Lateral to the median glossoepiglottic folds

Which of the following characteristics would be true of cardiac muscle cells but not skeletal muscle fibers? A. Cells have the sarcomeric banded pattern. B. Cells utilize T-tubules. C. Cells are mononucleated. D. Cells utilize ryanodine channels.

C. Cells are mononucleated.

Saltatory conduction is characteristic of which part of a typical neuron? A. Dendrite B. Nerve cell body C. Axon hillock D. Axon

D. Axon

Which of the following layers of the uterus undergo most pronounced changes during the menstrual cycle? A. Endometrium B. myometrium C. perimetrium D. mensometrium

A. endometrium

identify type of gland A. parotid gland B. sublingual gland C. submandibular gland D. thyroid gland E. liver

B. sublingual gland

what is the volume of venous return when he mean systemic filling pressure is 7 mm Hg, and the right arterial pressure is 0 mm Hg, and the resistance to venous return is 1.4 mm Hg/L/min? A. 4 liters/min B. 5 liters/min C. 9.8 liters/min D. 7 liters/min

B 5 liters/min

Q: Neurons in the cerebral cortex are generally grouped into several classes. Which of the following class of neurons is characterized by short axons and functions as interneurons, utilizing either glutamate (excitatory) or GABA (inhibitory) as their neurotransmitter? A. Purkinje cells B. Granular cells C. Fusiform cells D. Pyramidal cells

B. Granular cells

A “slipped” or herniated disc results when pressure on the vertebral column causes a displacement of the nucleus pulposus in the center of the disc which leads to a bulge caused by this displaced pressure. The weakend part of the disc that bulges out is the annulus ring that surrounds the nucleus pulposus. Which of the following types of tissues makes up this annular ring? A. Hyaline cartilage B. Fibrocartilage C. Elastic cartilage D. Woven bone

B. Fibrocartilage

B. Arcuate

The infraorbital, anterior superior alveolar, zygomatic, palatine, nasal, and posterior superior alveolar nerves are all branches of which of the following? A. Ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve B. Facial nerve C. Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve D. Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve

C. Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve

Identify the muscle whose tendon passes through groove 13 as shown in the photograph of the distal end of the radius. A. Abductor pollicis longus B. Abductor pollicis brevis C. Extensor carpi radialis longus D. Extensor carpi radialis brevis

C. Extensor carpi radialis longus

Left ventricular isovolumic contraction occurs immediately following which of the following events? A. Closure of aortic valve. B. Opening of aortic valve. C. Closure of AV valve. D. Opening of AV valve.

C. Closure of AV valve.

The sodium-glucose pump is an example of which of the following kinds of transport? A. Diffusion B. Primary active transport C. Secondary active transport D. Facilitated diffusion

C. Secondary active transport

Which of the following must happen before filtered bicarbonate can be reabsorbed? A. Kidneys must secrete new bicarbonate ion. B. Kidneys must reabsorb hydrogen ions. C. Kidneys must secrete carbonic anhydrase. D. Filtered bicarbonate must react with secreted hydrogen ions to form carbonic acid.

D. Filtered bicarbonate must react with secreted hydrogen ions to form carbonic acid.

the small intestine is approximately 21 feet in length. which of the following is the longest of the three subdivisions of the small intestine? A. jejunum B. duodenum C. ileum D. rectum

C. ileum

Which of the following types of neurons would transmit an action potential the fastest? A. Small diameter, non-myelinated B. Small diameter, myelinated C. Large diameter, myelinated D. Large diameter, non-myelinated

C. Large diameter, myelinated

Q: Which of the following represents the major relay center for most afferent (sensory) pathways to the cerebral cortex? When connections between this relay center and the cortex are cut, the functions of the corresponding cortical areas become almost entirely lost. A. Thalamus B. Basal nuclei C. Nucleus ruber D. Reticular formation

A. Thalamus

the calcaneus transmits weight from the talus to metatarsals 4 and 5 via which of the following bones? A. cuboid B. middle cuneiform C. navicular D. lateral cuneiform E. medal cuneiform

A. cuboid

Which of the following compliment factors is the most important opsonin? A. C2b B. C3b C. C4b D. C5b

B. C3b Lecture 18, Slide 33

The gastrocolic reflex, enterogastric reflex, and colonoileal reflex are examples of which of the following categories of gastrointestinal reflexes? A. reflexes that are integrated entirely within the gut wall enteric nervous system B. reflexes from the gut to the prevertebral sympathetic ganglia and then back to the GI tract C. reflexes from the gut to the spinal cord or brain stem and then back to the GI tract D. none of the above is correct

B. reflexes from the gut to the prevertebral sympathetic ganglia and then back to the GI tract

In the photomicrograph below, identify the muscle that attaches to the large red area (1) A. supraspinatus B. subscapularis C. infraspinatus D. teres major E. teres minor

C. infraspinatus

Neostigmine can be used to alleviate some of the effects of myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease in which antibodies attack acetylcholine receptors. Which of the following best represents neostigmine’s effects? A. Neostigmine initiates the opening of more sodium channels creating stronger end plate potentials. B. Neostigmine binds to the antibodies and allows more acetylcholine receptors to participate in creating a stronger end plate potential. C. Neostigmine inactivates acetylcholinesterase, allowing more acetylcholine molecules to bind to receptors and create stronger end plate potentials. D. Neostigmine binds to voltage-gated sodium channels and initiates a stronger action potential.

C. Neostigmine inactivates acetylcholinesterase, allowing more acetylcholine molecules to bind to receptors and create stronger end plate potentials.

The three capsular ligaments of the hip limit which of the following motions? A. lateral thigh rotation B. hip hyperextension C. hip flexion D. medial thigh rotation

B. hyperextension

The electrocardiogram below indicates which of the following conditions? A. Tachycardia B. Bradycardia C. SA node block D. AV block

A. Tachycardia

Which of the following is normally secreted by osteoblasts and binds to RANKL to prevent maturation of osteoclasts? A. Calcitonin B. Osteoprotegrin C. Denosumab D. Aγβ3 integrin

B. Osteoprotegrin

Which of the following growth factors may be administered to treat neutropenia following chemotherapy or radiation therapy? A. Erythropoietin B. Thrombopoietin C. Granulocyte colony stimulating factor D. Monocyte colony stimulating factor

C. Granulocyte colony stimulating factor

Hyperkalemia, mild acidosis, rise in RBC concentration, loss of ability to maintain normal blood glucose concentrations between meals, and changes in pigmentation pattern are all consistent with which of the following conditions? A. Cushing’s B. Hypothyroidism C. Addison’s D. Hyperparathyroidism

C. Addison’s

Which of the following characteristics best characterizes the synovial membrane lining of a typical synovial joint cavity? A. This membrane is highly vascularized and poorly innervated. B. This membrane is highly vascularized and richly innervated. C. This membrane is poorly vascularized and richly innervated. D. This membrane is poorly vascularized and poorly innervated.

A. This membrane is heighly vascularized and poorly innervated.

C. Edinger-Westphal nucleus

The active form of vitamin D promotes the intestinal uptake of calcium by increasing the formation of which of the following substances? A. Apoprotein B B. Calbindin C. Albumin D. Calciferol

B. Calbindin

which of the following inhibits secretion of insulin, glucagon, and gastrin; decreases motility of the stomach and duodenum , and decreases secretion and absorption of the GI tract? A. glucokinase B. carnitine C. somatostatin D. acetoacetic acids

C. somatostatin

Which of the following scalene muscles attaches to the second rib? A. anterior B. middle C. posterior D. all attach to the first rib

C. posterior

Of the the circulating blood cell types, which of the following is an active ameoboid phagocyte, characterized by numerous small specific granules and larger, less numerous azurophilic granules? A. Eosinophil B. Neutrophil C. Basophil D. Monocyte

B. Neutrophil

Which of the following muscles consists of two bellies, which originate from the body of the hyoid and the superior border of the scapula? A. Omohyoid B. Digastric C. Geniohyoid D. Cervicohyoid

A. Omohyoid

Identify the structure/membrane indicated by the arrow in the photomicrograph. A. Scala tympani B. Stria vascularis C. Tectorial membrane D. Vestibular membrane

B. Stria vascularis Lecture 17, Slide 26

The pulmonary circulation can be divided into two systems. Which of the following describes the system supplying the trachea, bronchial tree, and the rest of the interstitium? A. High pressure - Low flow B. High pressure - High flow C. Low pressure - Low flow D. Low pressure - High flow

A. High pressure - Low flow

The spinal accessory nerve exits the cranial cavity through which of the following foramina? A.foramen ovale B. foramen spinosum C. foramen rotundum D. jugular foramen

D. jugular foramen

in the typical (average) individual, arterial pressure drops by how much from the time it leaves the left ventricle until it reaches the venous system? A. 35 mm Hg B. 40 mm Hg C. 80 mm Hg D. 120 mm Hg

D. 120 mm Hg

Almost all of the pharyngeal musculature is supplied by the vagus nerve. Which of the following muscles is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve? A. superior pharyngeal constrictor B. stylopharyngeus muscle C. salpingopharyngeus muscle D. palatopharyngeus muscle

B. stylopharyngeus muscle

Which of the following pairs of terms describes the epidermis? A. vascularized--innervated B. avascular--not innervated C. vasacularized--not innervated D. avascular--innervated

D. avascular--innervated

which of the following structures attach the menisci to the rims of the tibial plateaus? A. coronary B. cruciates C. collaterals D. fibular collateral ligament

A. coronary

Which respiratory control center is primarily responsible for establishing the ramp signal during normal breathing? A. Dorsal respiratory group B. Pneumotaxic center C. Ventral respiratory center D. Carotid body

A. Dorsal respiratory group

Which of the following is the first type of antibody expressed by developing B cells? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE

C. IgM Lecture 18 - Immune Lymphatic System Slide 15

In females inhibin has a negative feedback effect on both the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus. It is secreted by which of the following types of cells? A. granulosa cells B. internal thecal cells C. external thecal cells D. primary oocytes

A. granulosa cells

Paresthesia over the shoulder and proximal arm and weakness of arm abduction may be indicative of injury to which of the following nerves? A. Musculocutaneous B. Radial C. Axillary D. Ulnar E. Median

C. Axillary

The joint between a tooth and its socket is best described by which of the following? A. condyloid B. suture C. fibrous D. syndesmosis E. both B and C

C. fibrous

A muscle contraction that results in the lengthening of a muscle would best be described as which of the following? A. concentric B. eccentric C. isometric D. bothAandB E. bothBandC

B. eccentric

Moon face, “buffalo torso,” hypertension and increased blood glucose are characteristic of which of the following? A. Addison’s disease B. Cushing’s disease C. Cretinism D. Grave’s disease

B. Cushing’s disease

Which of the following structures would be penetrated first by a needle passing through the anterior chest wall just to the left of the sternum? A. External intercostal muscle B. Internal intercostal muscle C. Transverse thoracic muscle D. Long thoracic nerve

B. Internal intercostal muscle

Which of the following cells, located in the basal crypts, contain prominent eosinophilic granules and produce lysozyme to control intestinal flora? A. Paneth cells B. Chief cells C. Parietal cells D. Enteroendocrine cells

A. Paneth cells Lecture 24, Slide 19

What type of cell is depicted in the following photomicrograph? A. Astrocyte B. Pseudounipolar neuron C. Motor neuron D. Bipolar neuron

B. Pseudounipolar neuron

Which of the following would NOT be classified as a long bone? A. femur B. humerus C. ulna D. calcaneus E. radius

D. calcaneus

Which of the following is/are functions of glucocorticoids? A. Stimulation of gluconeogenesis B. Decreased glucose utilization by cells C. Resists inflammation D. Resists stress E. All of the above are functions of glucocorticoids

E. All of the above are functions of glucocorticoids

sensory information entering the central nervous system typically decussates at some point in the spinal cord or brain. For visual information, this decussation occurs in the optic chiasma. HOw much decussation occurs in the optic chiasma? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

B. 50%

Which of the following cranial nerves supplies extrinsic and intrinsic muscle of the tongue? A. Cranial nerve IX B. Cranial nerve X C. Cranial nerve XI D. Cranial nerve XII

D. Cranial nerve XII \*\*\*Hypoglossal nerve

Q: The male and female external genitalia are derived from homologous embryonic primordia. The genital swellings of the embryo form which of the following adult structures? A. Scrotum B. Labia minora C. Clitoris D. Shaft of the penis

A. Scrotum

Identify the large cell in the center of the photomicrograph. A. Motor neuron in the anterior horn of spinal column B. Astrocyte in cerebral cortex C. Oligodendrocyte in paraverterbal ganglion D. Pseudounipolar neuron in dorsal root ganglion

D. Pseudounipolar neuron in dorsal root ganglion Lecture 15, Slide 84

Cell bodies of bipolar cells horizontal cells, amacrine cells, and Mueller cells form which of the following layers of the retina? A. Outer nuclear layer B. Outer plexiform layer C. Inner nuclear layer D. Inner plexiform layer

C. Inner nuclear layer

The major glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex is…? A. Aldosterone B. Estrogen C. Cortisol D. DHEA

C. Cortisol

All nutrients for the developing embryo during the first week following implantation are supplied by which of the following? A. syncytiotrophoblast cells B. corpus luteum C. cytotrophoblast cells D. decidual cells

D. decidual cells

In a typical ECG, which of the following waves occurs at the beginning of the contraction of the atria? A. T B. R C. S D. P E. Q

D. P

Which of the following factors decreases potassium uptake by cells? A. Aldosterone B. Metabolic acidosis C. Insulin D. Catecholamines

B. Metabolic acidosis

Q: Which of the following is not found in the popliteal fossa? A. Popliteal nerve B. Tibial nerve C. Popliteal artery D. Popliteal vein

A. Popliteal nerve

The optic nerve is a bundle of axons that originates from which of the following cell types? A. Photosensitive cells B. Amacrine cells C. Bipolar cells D. Ganglion cells E. Mueller cells

D. Ganglion cells

The anterior belly of the digastric is derived from the first pharyngeal arch and is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Glossopharyngeal D. Hypoglossal

B. Trigeminal

Of the three bipolar leads, which one would have the highest amplitude for the normal QRS wave, and which of the following reasons would explain this high amplitude? A. Lead I, because it is most perpendicular to the vector for the depolarization wave B. Lead I, because it is most parallel to the vector for the depolarization wave C. Lead II, because it is most perpendicular to the vector for the depolarization wave D. Lead II, because it is most parallel to the vector for the depolarization wave

D. Lead II, because it is most parallel to the vector for the depolarization wave The direction of lead II is 60˚ and the mean axis of the heart is 59˚. The mean axis of the heart is a sum of all the mean electrical vectors that occur during ventricular depolarization.

Q: The impingement of photons on a rod cell in the retina will cause rhodopsin to dissociate into which of the following? A. Scotopsin and 11-cis retinal B. Scotopsin and 11-cis retinol C. Scotopsin and all-trans retinal D. Iodopsin and 11-cis retinol

C. Scotopsin and all-trans retinal

During arm (humerus) abduction, the serratus anterior clamps the scapula against the thoracic wall, thereby providing a stable base for the movement of the glenohumeral joint. While engaged in this activity, the serratus anterior muscle would best be described by which of the following terms? A. Agonist B. Antagonist C. Fixator D. Synergist

C. Fixator

Which of the following plays a major role in stimulating potassium excretion by the kidney tubules? A. Aldosterone B. Angiotension II C. Sodium ions D. PTH

A. Aldosterone

Which of the following mechanisms would most likely be used to move water from an extracellular environment across an epithelial cell layer into an extracellular environment on the opposite side of the epithelial cell layer? A. Sodium channels and sodium ATPase pumps B. Calcium channels and sodium ATPase pumps C. Calcium channels and calcium ATPase pumps D. Sodium channels and calcium ATPase pumps

A. Sodium channels and sodium ATPase pumps

Which of the following muscles consists of two bellies, originating from the body of the hyoid and the superior border of the scapula? A. Omohyoid B. Digastric C. Geniohyoid D. Cervicohyoid

A. Omohyoid

which of the following is the fontanelle located at the junction of the sagittal and lamboidal structures? A. anterior B. posterior C. anterolateral D. posterolateral

D. posterolateral

Q: Which of the following characteristics would be true of tonic receptors but not phasic receptors? A. Slow adapting B. Do not transmit a continuous signal C. Stimulated only when stimulus strength changes D. Transmit information regarding rate of change

A. Slow adapting

Q: Which of the following is one of the major components of the analgesia system? A. Periaquaductal gray B. Locus ceruleus C. Nucleus ruber D. Thalamus

A. Periaquaductal gray

Approximately how much of the total cardiac output is received by the kidneys? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

A. 25% Kidneys receive ~22% of cardiac output.

The lower pH of the tubular fluid brings the operating range of the buffer closer to the pK of which of the following systems? A. Bicarbonate B. Phosphate C. Carbonic acid D. Proteins

B. Phosphate

What is the source of the hormone aldosterone? A. Juxtaglomerular cells B. Principal cells C. Adrenal cortex D. Liver

C. Adrenal cortex

Which of the following best describes the interpapillary pegs assocaited with the integument? A. They are branching dermal structures organized into double rows. B. They are related to finger prints. C. They are downward growths of the epidermis. D. They are upward projections from each secondary dermal ridge.

C. They are downward growths of the epidermis. Lecture 19, Slide 6

In a diarthrosis, which component is more vascularized than the others? A. outer fibrous capsule B. articular cartilage C. ligaments D. synovial membrane

D. synovial membrane

Which of the following is responsible for gallbladder and contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi resulting in the release of bile from the gallstone? A. Gastrin B. Secretin C. CCK D. Motilin

C. CCK

What type of epithelium is shown here? A. simple cuboidal B. simple sqamous C. stratified squamous D. simple columnar E. stratified columnar

D. simple columnar

the magnocellular zone of the RAS is characterized by a specific type of neuron with long radiating dendrites spread out in a plane perpendicular to the long axis of the brain stem. It has been suggested that the function of this area of the brain stem may be associated with which of the following? A. carrying information from the pineal body to the RAS B. connecting the superior and inferior colliculi C. picking up information from a variety of sources D. linking olfactory and taste sensations to the autonomic nervous system

C. picking up information from a variety of sources

Which of the following ligaments extends from the base of the zygomatic process to the mandibular neck? A. temporomandibular B. stylomandibular C. sphenomandibular D. pterygopalatine

A. temporomandibular

Which of the following areas of the brain stem is thought to be involved in emotional and visceral responses to odors? A. Red nucleus B. Restiform bodies C. Pineal body D. Habenular nuclei

C. Pineal body

The lateral cord is formed by the union of the anterior divisions of which of the following trunks? A. middle trunk B. upper (superior) trunk C. lower (lower) trunk D. BothAandC E. BothAandB

E. BothAandB

Which of the following is the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa? A. Popliteal nerve B. tibial nerve C. popliteal artery D. popliteal vein

C. popliteal artery

Q: In children the refractive power of the lens can be voluntarily increased from 20 to 34 diopters (an accommodation of 14 diopters). In a person of 70 years of age, accommodation is reduced to which of the following levels? A. 0 B. 15 C. 20 D. 27

A. 0

Which of the following branches from the internal carotid artery supplies areas of the face? A. Posterior auricular B. Supraorbital C. Occipital D. Superficial temporal

B. Supraorbital

Which of the following characteristics would apply to secondary lymphoid nodules but not primary lymphoid nodules? A. Afferent lymphatics B. Afferent venules C. Germinal center D. High-endothelial veins (HEV’s)

C. Germinal center Lecture 18, Slide 8

In the portal lobule organization of the liver parenchyma, which of the following forms the center of the lobule? A. Bile duct in the portal triad B. Central venule C. Space of Disse D. Hepatic sinusoid

A. Bile duct in the portal triad Lecture 26, Slide 24-25

Some signal transduction mechanisms involve calcium. In these pathways a charge in membrane potential opens calcium channels. Calcium ions enter the cell and bind to which of the following? A. Janus kinase B. The receptor component of a G protein C. Calmodulin D. Diacylglycerol

C. Calmodulin

what type of epithelium is shown here? A. simple cuboidal B. simple squamous C. stratified squamous D. simple columnar E. stratified columnar

A. simple cuboidal

Double-negative T cells which lack both CD4 and CD8 receptors proliferate in which of the following areas of the thymus? A. Subcapsular B. Outer cortex C. Inner cortex D. Medulla

A. Subcapsular Lecture 18 - Immune Lymphatic System Slide 54

The inguinal ligament attaches to which of the following pairs of structures? A. ASIS and AIIS B. AIIS and ischial spine C. ASIS and pubic tubercle D. ASIS and inferior pubic ramus

C. ASIS and pubic tubercle

Q: In addition to the stimuli that elicit fast pain, slow pain can also be elicited by which of the following kinds of stimuli? A. Mechanical B. Thermal C. Pressure D. Chemical

D. Chemical

Q: Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the Brown-Sequard syndrome? A. All motor functions are blocked on the side of the transection below the level of transection. B. Sensations of pain, heat, and cold are lost on the side of the transection below the level of transection. C. Two-point discrimination sensations are lost on the side of the transection below the level of transection. D. All of the above are characteristic of the Brown-Sequard syndrome.

B. Sensations of pain, heat, and cold are lost on the side of the transection below the level of transection.

The vestibular nuclear complex, associated with balance and equilibrium is located in which of the following subdivisions of the brain? A. telencephalon B. diencephalon C. metencephalon D. myelencephalon

D. myelencephalon

Q: Which of the following neurotransmitters is responsible for signaling by alpha motor neurons? A. Acetylcholine B. Dopamine C. Glycine D. Glutamate

A. Acetylcholine

Q: Which of the following characteristics of dendrites is responsible for decremental conduction? A. Lack of myelination B. Relatively short length C. Leakage of potassium ions D. Leakage of sodium ions

C. Leakage of potassium ions

The specific type of epithelium covering true vocal folds (cords) is represented by which of the following? A. Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelial tissue B. Stratified squamous keratinized epithelial tissue C. Respiratory epithelium D. Olfactory epithelium E. Simple low cuboidal epithelium

A. Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelial tissue

Minimum change disease occurs when the negative charges on the filtration membrane of the glomerulus are not present. What abnormality in the urine would be expected under these conditions? A. Urine would contain numerous red blood cells B. Urine would contain excess albumin C. Urine would contain excess sodium and chloride D. Urine wold be less concentrated

B. Urine would contain excess albumin Lecture 17 - Micturition and Glomerular Filtration

Q: Which of the following descriptions best describes the hair fibers arranged along the basilar membrane from the oval window to the apex of the cochlea? A. Length of fibers increases from the oval window to the apex and diameter of the fibers decreases from the oval window to the apex. B. Length of fibers decreases from the oval window to the apex and diameter of the fibers increases from the oval window to the apex. C. Both length and diameter of the fibers increases from the oval window to the apex. D. Both length and diameter of the fibers decreases from the oval window to the apex.

A. Length of fibers increases from the oval window to the apex and diameter of the fibers decreases from the oval window to the apex.

Which of the following is a common cause of hyperthyroidism? A. Hashimoto disease B. Grave’s disease C. Endemic goiter D. Cretinism

B. Grave’s disease

While standing in the anatomical position, the palms of the hand are supinated. A. True B. False

A. true

Consider the following statements: 1. Veins are about 8 times more distensible than arteries. 2. Vascular compliance is directly proportional to volume increase and indirectly proportional to pressure. A. Only statement 1 is true. B. Only statement 2 is true. C. Both statements are true. D. Both false statements are false.

C. Both statements are true. The equation for vascular compliance is: (increase in volume) / (increase in pressure).

which of the following is found in the femoral triangle but not the femoral sheath? A. femoral artery B. femoral vein C. femoral nerve D. lymphatics

C. femoral nerve

Cranial nerve nuclei V, VI and VII are found in which of the following subdivisions of the brain? A.medulla B. pons C. midbrain D. diencephalon

B. pons

Which of the following substances would NOT result in vasoconstriction? A. Epinephrine/norepineprhine B. Angiotensin II C. Nitric oxide D. Endothelin

C. Nitric oxide

The human central nervous system develops from a midline tube. The cranial end of the tube is formed into five subdivisions arranged in a linear sequence. The cerebellum of the adult brain is derived from which of the following subdivisions? A. metencephalon B. diencephalon C. telencephalon D. myencephalon

A. metencephalon

Q: In the neuronal pool, which of the following terms refers to all the output fibers that are stimulated by an incoming fiber? A. Facilitated zone B. Inhibition zone C. Discharge zone D. Converging zone

C. Discharge zone

Chemoreceptors assocaited with respiratory functions increase their rate of activity when hypoxia or hypercapnia occur. A. TRUE B. FALSE

A. TRUE

Which of the following muscles serves as the posterior border of the anterior cervical triangle? A.superior omohyoid B. anterior digastric C. sternocleidomastoid D. trapezius

C. sternocleidomastoid

for each molecule of glucosse that is hydrolyzed in glycolysis what is the net gain in ATPs? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

A. 2

Which of the following vitamins is needed by the fetus to create normal clotting factors? A.A B. C C. E D. K

D. K

When hair cell sterocilia are bent, a tugging on the shorter sterocilia occurs such that ion channels open allowing which of the following to enter the hair cells? A. potassium B. sodium C. chloride D. calcium

A. potassium

The mandibular branch of the trigeminal exits the cranial cavity through which of the following foramina? A. Foramen ovale B. Foramen spinosum C. Foramen rotundum D. Foramen lacerum

A. Foramen ovale

Vascular distensibility is directly proportional to which of the following? A. Increase in volume B. Original volume C. Increase in pressure D. Original pressure E. Both A and C

A. Increase in volume The equation for distensibility is: increase in volume / (increase in pressure x original volume).

Norepinephrine/epinephrine secreted into tissues remains active for only a few seconds. Norepinephrine/epinephrine secreted into the blood remains active longer. Which of the following explains the reason for these differences? A. The neurotransmitters are immediately reuptaken in the tissues. B. Monamine-oxidase destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues. C. COMT destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues. D. The neurotransmitters immediately diffuse away from the site when secreted into the tissues.

C. COMT destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues.

Which of the following reflects the amount of urine that the kidneys can excrete per day when there is a large excess of water? A. 180 liters B. 75 liters C. 20 liters D. 4 liters

C. 20 liters

Which of the following forms the anterior boundary of the infratemporal fossa? A.TMJ and styloid process B. sphenoid bone C. Maxilla D. zygomatic arch

C. Maxilla

Which of the following is the major parasympathetic nerve to thoracic and most abdominal organs? A. Trigeminal nerve B. Spinal accessory nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Hypoglossal nerve

C. Vagus nerve

Identify the nerve that provides cutaneous innervation on to the skin on the posterior surface of the upper extremity as shown in the diagram. A. Median nerve B. Radial nerve C. Ulnar nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve

Radial nerve

An increase in blood volume would have which of the following effects on the cardiac and vascular function curves? A. A decrease in mean systemic pressure and a shift of the vascular function curve to the right. B. A decrease in mean systemic pressure and a shift of the vascular function curve to the left. C. An increase in mean systemic pressure and a shift of the vascular function curve to the right. D. An increase in mean systemic pressure and a shift of the vascular function curve to the left.

C. An increase in mean systemic pressure and a shift of the vascular function curve to the right. An increase in blood volume will increase arterial pressure (which is directly related to cardiac output; see slide 17 of cardiac output lecture). An increase in blood volume will increase mean systemic filling pressure (see slide 44 of the cardiac output lecture) which is represented by a shift to the right on vascular function curve.

Which of the following centers acts to control the “switch-off” point of the inspiratory ramp signal? A. Dorsal respiratory group B. Pneumotaxic center C. Ventral respiratory group D. Aortic body

B. Pneumotaxic center

Osteoclasts do not have receptors for parathyroid hormone; instead they respond to secondary signals from osteocytes which do have the receptors. Which of the following is important as a major secondary signal ligand in this communication process? A. Osteoprotegerin B. Pendrin C. Calmodulin D. Calbindin

A. Osteoprotegerin

Q: Sensory information entering the central nervous system typically decussates (crosses over) at some point in the spinal cord or brain. For visual information, this decussation occurs in the optic chiasma. How much decussation occurs in the optic chiasma? A. 25 percent B. 50 percent C. 75 percent D. 100 percent

B. 50 percent

Q: The primary visual cortex is made up of how many layers? A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 12

B. 6

Which of the following represents the communication pathway between the infratemporal fossa and the orbit? A. Pterygomaxillary fissure B. Inferior orbital fissure C. Superior orbital fissure D. Pterygopalatine fossa

A. Pterygomaxillary fissure

Q: The quadrate tubercle, which is the attachment site of the quadratus femoris, is found on which of the following features? A. Soleal line B. Gluteal tuberosity C. Greater trochanter D. Intertrochanteric crest E. Intertrochanteric line

D. Intertrochanteric crest

special visceral motor (SVM) modality supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle via which of the following cranial nerves? A. cranial nerve IX B. cranial nerve X C. cranial nerve XI D. cranial nerve XII

A. cranial nerve IX

During the develpment and growth of long bones, hyaline cartilage is replaced by bone. Which of the following activities would be directly responsible for the increase in the length of the bone? A. Destruction of chondrocytes by the invasion of the ossification front. B. Enlargement of chondrocytes in the hypertrophic zone. C. Proliferation of chondrocytes away from the ossification front. D. Generation of osteoblasts in the invasion zone.

C. Proliferation of chondrocytes away from the ossification front.

Which of the following ligaments is the primary support for the lateral longitudinal arch of the foot? A. long plantar B. plantar calcaneonavicular C. plantar calcaneocuboid D. deltoid

A. long plantar

Q: Which muscle separated the exit of the superior and inferior gluteal arteries from the pelvic cavity? A. Quadratus femoris B. Obturator internus C. Superior gemellus D. Inferior gemellus E. Piriformis

E. Piriformis

Parathyroid hormone has which of the following effects on renal tubules? A. PTH promotes the reabsorption of potassium. B. PTH promotes the reabsorption of calcium. C. PTH promotes the reabsorption of sodium. D. PTH promotes the reabsorption of potassium, calcium, and sodium.

B. PTH promotes the reabsorption of calcium.

In males, gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulates mostly the release of which of the following gonadotropic hormones? A. LH B. FSH C. Estrogen D. Testosterone

A. LH

which center is primarily responsible for establishing the ramp signal during normal breathing? A. dorsal respiratory center B. pneumotaxic center C. ventral respiratory center D. carotid body

A. dorsal respiratory center

the posterior compartment of the brachium (arm) contains the triceps complex. which of the following nerves supplies the muscles of the posterior compartment of the brachium? A. ulnar nerve B. median nerve C. radial nerve D. musculocutaneous nerve E. axillary nerve

C. radial nerve

A normal 70 kg human must excrete about 600 mOsm of solute each day in order to get rid of waste products of metabolism and ions that are ingested. The maximal urine concentrating ability is 1200 mOsm/L. Which of the following represents the obligatory urine volume that must be excreted each day to get rid of metabolic waste products? A. 1.0 L/day B. 0.5 L/day C. 0.3 L/day D. 0.0 L/day

B. 0.5 L/day

About 75% of all parasympathetic fibers are located in which of the following locations? A. Trigeminal nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Lesser splanchnic nerve D. Greater splanchnic nerve

B. Vagus nerve

muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs are types of tonic receptors. Which of the following characteristics applies to tonic receptors? A. rapidly adapting B. transmit information regarding rate of change C. stimulated only when stimulus strength changes D. detects continuous stimulus strength

D. detects continuous stimulus strength

The nerve branch to the geniohyoid originate from C1 and runs partly with which of the following cranial nerves? A. Glossopharyngeal B. Hypoglossal C. Vagus D. Spinal accessory

B. Hypoglossal

Which of the following would have to be a transmembrane protein? A. A receptor protein B. A protein binding to the cytoskeleton C. A channel protein D. A phosphorylase

C. A channel protein

which of the following muscle groups is part of the intrinsic musculature of the back? A. trapezius B. erector spinae group C. latissimus D. serratus posterior group

B. erector spinae group

Ascites may result from which of the following? A.Constriction of the hepatic artery B. Blockage of the portal vein C. Higher than normal pressure in hepatic veins D. Constriction of the celiac trunk

C. Higher than normal pressure in hepatic veins

The subtalar joint allows for inversion and eversion. Which of the following movements is associated with eversion? A. adduction B. supination C. dorsflexion D. plantarflexion

D. plantarflexion

The sodium-calcium exchanger in the sarcolemma of the cardiac muscle cell is an example of which of the following mechanisms? A. Primary active transport involving an antiporter. B. Primary active transport involving a symporter. C. Secondary active transport involving a symporter. D. Secondary active transport involving an antiporter.

D. Secondary active transport involving an antiporter.

Which of the following hypaxial muscles is attached to the hyoid bone but is not part of the infrahyoid group? A. Sternothyroid B. Thyrohyoid C. Geniohyoid D. Omohyoid

C. Geniohyoid

If rate of blood flow through the entire circulatory system (= cardiac output) = 100 mL/sec AND the pressure difference from the systemic arteries to the systemic veins = 100 mmHg; the total peripheral resistance is equal to...? A. 10 PRU B. 1 PRU C. .01 PRU D. 100,000 PRU

B. 1 PRU An equation for blood flow resistance is: (change in pressure) / (blood flow). The unit for blood flow resistance is the PRU which is equivalent to (1 mmHg) / (1 mL/sec).

B. Auditory tube

Which of the following pairs of potentially fatal conditions may follow severe acute left heart failure? A. Pulmonary vascular congestion and pulmonary edema B. Systemic vascular congestion and pulmonary edema C. Systemic vascular congestion and systemic edema D. Pulmonary vascular congestion and systemic edema

A. Pulmonary vascular congestion and pulmonary edema Acute left heart failure results in blood volume in the pulmonary vessels (pulmonary vascular congestion) due to the left heart being unable to pump blood out to receive blood from the pulmonary system. If pressure isn’t he pulmonary system is high enough, leakage of fluid from the vessels into interstitial spaces and alveoli of the lungs occurs (pulmonary edema).

Q: The calcaneus transmits weight from the talus to metatarsals 4 and 5 via which of the following bones? A. Cuboid B. Middle cuneiform C. Navicular D. Lateral cuneiform E. Medial cuneiform

A. Cuboid

Which of the following organelles is directly associated with the synthesis of proteins for secretion? A. Mitochondrion B. Golgi apparatus C. Nucleus D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Cortisol secretion is controlled mainly by which of the following factors? A. Plasma potassium concentration B. Angiotensinogen II C. Plasma sodium concentration D. ACTH

D. ACTH

Q: Which of the following is characteristic of myopia? A. Ciliary muscles are contracted. B. All distant objects can be seen clearly. C. The lens system is too weak. D. The eyeball is too long.

D. The eyeball is too long.

Which of the following serves as the insertion of the supraspinatus muscle? A. Lesser tubercle B. Inferior facet of the greater tubercle C. Middle facet of greater tubercle D. Superior facet of the greater tubercle E. Crest of the lesser tubercle

D. Superior facet of the greater tubercle

Q: Which of the following characteristics refers to the specificity of nerve fibers for transmitting only one modality of sensation? A. Differential sensitivity B. Modality C. Labeled line principle D. Adaption threshold

C. Labeled line principle

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding fast- twitch muscle fibers? A. Fast-twitch fibers have fewer mitochondria than slow-switch fibers. B. Fast-twitch fibers have less myoglobin than slow-switch fibers. C. Fast-twitch fibers are more fatigue-resistant than slow-switch fibers. D. Fast-twitch fibers primarily utilize glycolysis rather than oxidative phosphorylation. E. Fast-twitch fibers have more ATPase than slow-switch fibers.

C. Fast-twitch fibers are more fatigue-resistant than slow-switch fibers.

The skin over the hypothenar eminence is supplied by which of the following nerves? A. Superficial radial B. Deep radial C. Ulnar D. Median E. Posterior interosseous

C. Ulnar

which is the predominant type of tissue seen in the photomicrograph below? A. loose areolar connective tissue B. brown (multilocular)adipose tissue C. reticular connective tissue D. white (uniocular) adipose tissue

D. white (unilocular) adipose tissue

Which of the following structures does not exit the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen? A. superior gluteal artery B. inferior gluteal artery C. sciatic nerve D. obtutrator nerve E. inferior gluteal nerve

D. obturator nerve

melanin-containing, dopaminergic neurons and iron-containing cells that secrete sertonin and GABA are major components of which of the following? A. substantia nigra B. thalamus C. RAS D. superior colliculi

A. Substantia nigra

Osmoreceptor cells are located in which of the following regions? A. Adjacent to the carotid bodies B. In the macula densa C. In the anterior part of the third ventricle D. In the distal collecting ducts

C. In the anterior part of the third ventricle

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. The liver has a low blood flow and a high vascular resistance. B. The liver has a low blood flow and a low vascular resistance. C. The liver has a high blood flow and a high vascular resistance. D. The liver has a high blood flow and a low vascular resistance.

D. The liver has a high blood flow and a low vascular resistance.

Which of the following would be characteristic of alveoli lacking perfusion, as in the case of a pulmonary embolism? A. Va/Q ratio = infinity B. Va/Q = 0 C. Blood gas concentration remains unchanged D. Both A and C are characteristic

A. Va/Q ratio = infinity

Proper chewing (mastication) requires that the mandible be moved from side to side and to be retracted and protracted. Which of the following muscles of mastication functions to retract the mandible? A. Masseter B. Lateral pterygoid C. Medial pterygoid D. Temporalis

D. Temporalis

You are working away in the anatomy lab one afternoon, completing a dissection assignment for the upper limb. You reflect the pectoralis major muscle and notice two distinct nerve branches. One of the nerve branches is positioned superior and medial, emerging just above the superior edge of the muscle just deep to the pectoralis major, which you think is pectoralis minor. The other branch is positioned inferior and lateral, and pierces what you think may be the pectoralis minor muscle. What is the name of the nerve that is apparently piercing pectoralis minor? a. Long thoracic nerve b. Medial pectoral nerve c. Lateral pectoral nerve d. Parasternal nerve e. Supreme thoracic nerve

Medial pectoral nerve

The nerve branch to the geniohyoid originate from C1 and runs partly with which of the following cranial nerves? A.glossopharyngeal B. hypoglossal C. vagus D. spinal accessory

B. hypoglossal

Which of the following types of cells myelinated axons of the CNS? A. Astrocytes B. Oligodendrocytes C. Schwann cells D. Microglial cells

B. Oligodendrocytes

in typical sensory pathways, decussation occurs at what level? A. primary (first order) neurons B. secondary (second order) neurons C. tertiary (third order) neurons D. none of these

B secondary (second order) neurons

Of the following ions, which is the most concentrated in the extracellular environment? A. sodium B. potassium C. choride D. calcium

A. sodium

Which of the following represents the factor by which the concentration of calcium ion increases in the cytosol after release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum? (A) 10 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 1000

Which of the following is the newest addition to the telencephalon in mammals? A. Pallium B. Mid-ventricular ridge C. Neocortex D. Paleocortex

C. Neocortex

ADH acts on which of the following regions of the nephron? A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Descending loop of Henle C. Ascending loop of Henle D. Distal convoluted tubule

D. Distal convoluted tubule

In the photomicrograph below, the arrow points to which of the following structures? A. Central arteriole in splenic white pulp B. Splenic red pulp C. Intercalated pancreatic duct D. High endothelial vein in lymph node

A. Central arteriole in splenic white pulp Lecture 18 - Immune Lymphatic System Slide 72

the main hormone responsible for controlling feedback of the duodenum is: A. CCK B. chyme C. motilin D. GIP

A. CCK

Which of the following are derived from mesoderm and secrete dentin? A. Ameloblasts B. Cementoblasts C. Odontoblasts D. Dentinoblasts

C. Odontoblasts

Which of the following nerves penetrates the coracobrachialis muscle? A. Ulnar B. Median C. Radial D. Musculocutaneous E. Axillary

D. Musculocutaneous

In a normal individual, which of the following represents the transport maximum for glucose? A. 125mg/min B. 250 mg/min C. 375 mg/min D. 500 mg/min

C. 375 mg/min

Which of the following prevents the pancreas from digesting itself? A. chymotrypsin inhibitor B. Trypsin inhibitor C. phospholipase D. pancreatic amylase

B. Trypsin inhibitor

Q: During knee extension, the patella is pulled proximally by the quadriceps and also laterally. Which of the following is required to counteract the lateral pull of the patella? A. Vastus medialis oblique B. Vastus lateralis C. Vastus intermedius D. Biceps femoris

A. Vastus medialis oblique

a muscle contraction that results in the lengthening of a muscle would best be described as which of the following? A. concentric B. eccentric C. isometric D. both A and B E. both B and C

B. eccentric

Identify the type of tissue shown in the photomicrograph below. A. Pancreas B. Lymph node C. Spleen D. Liver

D. Liver Lecture 26, Slide 44

Spinal anesthesia has which of the following effects on cardiac output and venous returns? A. It decreases venous return but increases cardiac output B. It decreases venous return and cardiac output C. It increases venous return but decreases cardiac output. D. It increases venous return and cardiac output

B. It decreases venous return and cardiac output Spinal anesthesia blocks sympathetic nervous stimulation which will result in dilation of blood vessels, decrease in heart rate, and decreased force of heart contraction.

C. Guanethidine

during arm (humerus)abduction, the serratus anterior clamps the scapula against the thoracic wall, thereby providing a stable base for the movement of the glenohumeral joint. While engaged in this activity, the serratus anterior muscle would best be described by which of the following terms? A. agonsit B. antagonist C. fixator D. synergist

C. fixator

Which of the following BEST describes the location vallecular recesses? A. Lateral to the median glossoepiglottic fold B. Lateral to the lateral glossoepiglottic folds C. Inferior to the lateral glossoepiglottic folds D. Superior to the median glossoepiglottic folds

A. Lateral to the median glossoepiglottic fold

fructose, which provides energy for sperm, is secreted by which of the following? A. seminal vesicles B. prostate gland C. cells of leydig D. sertoli cells

A. seminal vesicles

Which of the following muscles serves as the posterior border of the anterior cervical triangle? A. Superior omohyoid B. Anterior digastric C. Sternocleidomastoid D. Trapezius

C. Sternocleidomastoid

The nerve branch to the geniohyoid originate from C1 and runs partly with which of the following cranial nerves? A. Glossopharyngeal B. Hypoglossal C. Vagus D. Spinal accessory

B. Hypoglossal

Q: The inguinal ligament attaches to which of the following pairs of structures? A. ASIS and AIIS B. AIIS and ischial spine C. ASIS and pubic tubercle D. ASIS and inferior pubic ramus

C. ASIS and pubic tubercle

Which of the following descriptions best describes the relation between maternal and fetal blood? A.Maternal blood and fetal blood freely intermingle within the trophoblastic lacunae B. Fetal blood flow freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but maternal blood remains confined within maternal vessels. C. Both maternal blood and fetal blood remain confined within their respectives vessels during pregnancy D. Maternal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but fetal blood remains confined within fetal vessels

D. Maternal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but fetal blood remains confined within fetal vessels

which of the following extrinsic muscles of the eye is not supplied by the oculomotor nerve? A. lateral rectus B. inferior oblique C. medial rectus D. inferior rectus

A. lateral rectus

Between the superior and middle pharyngeal constrictors there is a narrow gap. Which of the following structures passes through this gap? A. Auditory nerve B. Stylopharyngeus muscle C. Palatopharyngeus muscle D. Vagus nerve

B. Stylopharyngeus muscle

The aryepiglottic ligaments and the corniculate cartilages form boundaries for which of the following? A. Rima glottidis B. Laryngeal inlet C. Esophagus D. Trachea

B. Laryngeal inlet

What percentage of carbon dioxide is carried in the blood as bicarbonate? A. 5% B. 25% C. 30% D. 70%

D. 70%

Identify the type of epithelium shown in this slide. A. Simple cuboidal B. Stratified cuboidal C. Simple squamous D. Stratified squamous E. Simple columnar

A. Simple cuboidal

If tidal volume is 0.5 liters, dead space is 0.15 liters, and breathing rate is 12 times per minute; calculate the minute alveolar ventilation. A. 1.8 liters B. 3.5 liters C. 4.2 liters D. 6.0 liters

C. 4.2 liters

The diagram below illustrates the lateral cervical triangle. The posterior border of the triangle is marked by the red star, which indicates which of the following muscle landmarks? A. anterior border of the trapezius B. posterior border of the trapezius C. anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid D. posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid E. anterior border of the anterior scalene

A. anterior border of the trapezius

two dogs are used in a study to test the effects of a drug that causes hypertension as a possible side effect. In one of the dogs the baroreceptor feedback system has been inactivated. in the dog with the intact feedback system the arterial pressure increased from 100 to 110. in the animal with the inactivated control system, the pressure increases from 100 to 160. what is the effectiveness with which the baroreceptor system controls increase in blood pressure? A. -1 B. -2 C. -4 D. -5

D. -5

Pendrin is used for which of the following functions? A. As a sodium-iodide symporter in the basal membrane of a thyroid follicle cell. B. As a hepatic-derived conjugating protein for the transport of thyroxine in the blood. C. As a chloride-iodide counter-transporter in the apical membrane of a thyroid follicle cell. D. As a decoupling protein used to separate iodide from thyroglobulin during the recycling of thyroxine.

C. As a chloride-iodide counter-transporter in the apical membrane of a thyroid follicle cell.

Which of the following cells reabsorb potassium during potassium depletion? A. Intercalated cells B. Principal cells C. Chief cells D. Podocytes

A. Intercalated cells

Which of the following segments of the nephron is NOT permeable to water? A. Proximal convoluted tubule in the pressence of ADH. B. Descending loop of Henle in the pressence of ADH. C. Ascending loop of Henle in the presence of ADH. D. Distal convolute tubule in the pressence of ADH.

C. Ascending loop of Henle in the presence of ADH.

which of the following is not found in the popliteal fossa? A. popliteal nerve B. tibial nerve C. poplital artery D. popliteal vein

A. popliteal nerve

Which of the following muscles does not receive innervation from the median nerve? A. Flexor carpi ulnaris B. Palmaris longus C. Pronator teres D. Flexor carpi radialis E. Flexor digitorum profundus

D. Flexor carpi ulnaris

: Which of the following hormones exerts an interstitial cell-stimulating effect on testes of male fetus, resulting in the production of testosterone until birth? A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Human chorionic gonadotropin D. Human somatomammotropin

C. Human chorionic gonadotropin

identify structure

stria vascularis

Which of the following represent the spinal cord levels of origin for the phrenic nerve? A. C1-4 B. C2-5 C. C3-5 D. C3-7

C. C3-5

Which of the following are/is NOT found in the axillary sheath? A. Axillary artery B. Axillary vein C. Axillary lymph nodes D. Cords of brachial plexus

C. Axillary lymph nodes

the mean circulatory filling pressure is 0 under which of the following conditions? A. when blood volume is 5 liters B. when blood volume is 4 liters C. when blood volume is 6.5 liters D. when blood volume is 5.5 liters

B. when blood volume is 4 liters

Which of the following sequences represents the correct lineage for a neutrophil? A. Myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, band cell, neutrophil B. Myeloblast, metamyelocyte, promyelocyte, band cell, myelocyte, neutrophil C. Metamyelocyte, myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, band cell, neutrophil D. Myelocyte, promyelocyte, band cell, metamyelocyte, myeloblast, neutrophil

A. Myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, band cell, neutrophil

which of the following structures is/are found in both the superior and the inferior mediastinum? A. thymus B. vagus nerves C. heart D. trachea E. phrenic nerves

A. thymus

Pre-ganglionic autonomic fibers are carried in the: A. White rami communicantes B. Gray rami communicantes C. Dorsal spinal roots D. Spinal nerves E. BothBandD

A. White rami communicantes

The Maxillary artery is divided into three parts with reference to its branching pattern. Which of the following structures is used to demarcate the three parts? A. Lateral pterygoid muscle B. Medial pterygoid muscle C. Mandibular ramus and masseter muscle D. Superior alveolar process and temporalis muscle

A. Lateral pterygoid muscle

The anterior compartment of the arm (brachium) contains the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Which of the following nerves of the brachial plexus supplies the anterior brachium? A. Ulnar nerve B. Median nerve C. Radial nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve E. Axillary nerve

D. Musculocutaneous nerve

Plasma testosterone levels in the newborn male are due to which of the following? A. Seminal vesicles B. Prostate gland C. Cells of Leydig D. Sertoli cells

C. Cells of Leydig

The gap above the middle pharyngeal constrictor is traversed by which of the following nerves? A. trigeminal B. facial C.glossopharyngeal D. hypoglossal

C.glossopharyngeal

The thalamus is a paired complex of many nucei, some of which are associated with relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex. Others relay motor information from the cerebral cortex, and some serve to integrate the others. Which of the following relay information to the primary auditory cortex of the cerebral cortex? A. medial geniculate B. lateral geniculate C. ventral posterior D. anterior

A. medial geniculate

Q: The tensor tympani and stapedius muscles attach to the malleus and stapedius respectively. Which of the following represents the function of these two muscles? A. Attenuation reflex B. Impedance matching C. Creation of “traveling wave” D. Creation of endocochlear potential

A. Attenuation reflex

The roots of C7 and T1 unite to form the: A. Middle trunk B. Lower trunk C. Upper trunk D. None of the above

D. None of the above

The skin on the lateral dorsal half of the hand, proximal to the digits is supplied by which of the following nerves? A. Superficial radial B. Deep radial C. Ulnar D. Median E. Posterior interosseous

Superficial radial

Which of the following factors would cause a hypereffective heart? A. Hypertrophy of the heart B. Valvular heart disease C. Inhibition of nervous excitation of the heart D. Coronary artery blockage

A. Hypertrophy of the heart Hypertrophy of the heart is enlargement of cardiac muslce tissue. This results in a stronger force of contraction. The other answers result in a weakening of contraction or loss of effiency in pumping blood

The superior oblique extrinsic muscle of the eye is innervated by which of the following cranial nerves? A. Occulomotor B. Trochlear C. Abducens D. Ophthalmic branch of cranial nerve V

B. Trochlear

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the lumbricals? A. They are all innervate dad by the median nerve. B. They are extensor of the MP joints and IP joints of digits 2-5. C. They insert on the ulnar side of the extensor expansion of their respective digit. D. Each arises from the radial side of a deep flexor tendon.

D. Each arises from the radial side of a deep flexor tendon.

Q: The three capsular ligaments of the hip limit which of the following motions? A. Lateral thigh rotation B. Hip hyperextension C. Hip flexion D. Medial thigh rotation

B. Hip hyperextension

All of the following muscles elevate the mandible EXCEPT? A. Temporalis B. Masseter C. Lateral pterygoid D. Medial pterygoid

C. Lateral pterygoid

Origins of which of the following muscles lie superior and inferior to the spiral (radial) groove of the humerus? A. Biceps B. Brachialis C. Triceps D. Deltoid

C. Triceps

The myenteric plexus (of Auerbach) regulates the size of the lumen and the rhythmic movement of the GI tract. Which of the following best describes its location within the gut wall? A. Between the mucosa and the submucosa. B. Between the submucosa and the circular layer of smooth muscle. C. Between the circular and longitudinal layers of smooth muscle. D. Between the circular layer of smooth muslce and the adventia.

C. Between the circular and longitudinal layers of smooth muscle. Lecture 24, Slide 11

B. Inferior orbital fissure

all of the following features except one are characteristic of the male pelvis in comparison with the female pelvis. Which one is characteristic of the female pelvis? A. deeper greater pelvis B. round obturator foramen C. wide pubic arch D. large acetabulum

C. wide pubic arch

Which of the following can be used to inactivate acetylcholinesterase? A. Methacholine B. Neostigmine C. Physostigmine D. Carbachol

B. Neostigmine

Identify the following type of tissue. A. Irregular dense connective tissue B. Developing membrane bone C. Compact bone D. Hyaline cartilage

B. Developing membrane bone Lecture 11, Slide 11

Which of the following is not part of the portal triad? A. Hepatic arterial branch B. Portal venule C. Hepatic sinusoid D. Bile duct

C. Hepatic sinusoid Lecture 26, Slide 25

Which of the following would be a result of increased levels of angiotensin II? A. Decreased blood pressure B. Increased vasoconstriction C. Increased natriuresis D. Decreased aldosterone levels

B. Increased vasoconstriction

Parasympathetic supply to the lacrimal gland is via which of the following nerves? A. Trigeminal B. Facial C. Glossopharyngeal D. Occulomotor

B. Facial

identify specific structure

lacuna

The magnocellular zone of the RAS is characterized by a specific type of neuron with long radiating dendrites spread out in a plane perpendicular to the long axis of the brain stem. It has been suggested that the function of this area of the brain stem may be associated with which of the following? A. Carrying information from the pineal body to the RAS B. Connecting the superior and inferior colliculi C. Picking up information from a variety of sources D. Linking olfactory and taste sensations to the autonomic nervous system

C. Picking up information from a variety of sources

Identify the specific area indicated by the arrow in the attached photomicrograph. A. Germinal center B. Proximal convoluted tubule C. Glomerulus D. GALT

D. GALT Lecture 24, Slide 17

In blood clotting mechanisms, activation of the extrensic pathway is initiated by formation of which of the following? A. Thromboplastin B. Factor X C. Factor V D. Calcium

A. Thromboplastin

Fast axonal transport (400 mm per day) is used to transport synaptic vesicles are neurotransmitters. Which of the following characteristics apply to this mechanism? A. Kinesin motor protein and anterograde transport B. Cytoplasmic dynein motor proteins and anterograde C. Kinesin motor proteins and retrograde transport D. Cytoplasmic dynein motor proteins and retrograde transport

A. Kinesin motor protein and anterograde transport

Ventral rami from which of the following levels of the spinal cord make up the cervical plexus? A. C1-C3 B. C1-C4 C. C1-C5 D. C2-C4

B. C1-C4

In endochondral bone formation, deposition of bone matrix occurs on which of the following substrates? A. Fibrous connective tissue B. Chondroitin sulfate in hyaline cartilage matrix C. Calcified hyaline cartilage matrix D. Woven bone

C. Calcified hyaline cartilage matrix

Which of the following descriptions best describes the attachments of the interosseous membrane of the forearm? A. Medial side of radius and medial side of ulna B. Medial side of radius and lateral side of ulna C. Lateral side of radius and lateral side of ulna D. Lateral side of radius and medial side of ulna

B. Medial side of radius and lateral side of ulna

Ventral rami from which of the following levels of the spinal cord make up the cervical plexus? A. C1-C3 B. C1-C4 C. C1-C5 D. C2-C4

B. C1-C4

Insertion of the extensor carpi radialis brevis is on the: A. Base of the second metacarpal B. Tubercle of the scaphoid C. Base of the third metacarpal D. Hamulus of the hamate

Base of the third metacarpal

Normally the body takes in about 1000 mg of calcium per day orally. How much of this is lost in the feces per day? A. 350 mg B. 750 mg C. 900 mg D. 990 mg

C. 900 mg

During the early stages of pregnancy, involution (degeneration) of the corpus luteum is prevented by which of the following hormones? A.estrogen B. progesterone C. human chorionic gonadotropin D. human somatomammotropin

C. human chorionic gonadotropin

Cutaneous innervation to the dorsum of the foot is through which of the following nerves? A. Sural B. superficial fibular C. deep fibular D. all of the above E. A and B only

D. all of the above

Which of the following types of joints is an example of a diarthrosis joint? A. condyloid B. suture C. gomphosis D. syndesmosis E. bothBandC

A. condyloid

Fast twitch fibers have which of the following characteristics? (A) They are reddish in color compared to slow twitch fibers. (B) They have more mitochondria than slow twitch fibers. (C) They have more myoglobin than slow twitch fibers. (D) They are more fatigable than slow twitch fibers.

(D) They are more fatigable than slow twitch fibers.

Q: Which of the following arteries branches off the anterior division of the internal iliac and supplies pelvic musculature and muscle of the medial thigh? A. Obturator B. Umbilical C. Inferior gluteal D. Superior gluteal

A. Obturator

The cervical sympathetic trunk ascends on the anterior surface(s) of which of the following muscles? A.longus colli and capitis muscles B. sternocleidomastoid C. anterior scalene D. rectus capitis superior and lateralis muscles

A.longus colli and capitis muscles

Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT exit the cranial cavity through the superior orbital fissue? A.occulomotor nerve B. abducens nerve C. maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve D. trochlear nerve

C. maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve

Postganglionic fibers from which of the following regions of the sympathetic trunk supply all the smooth muscles and glands of the head? A. Superior sympathetic ganglion B. Middle sympathetic ganglion C. Inferior sympathetic ganglion D. Stellate ganglion

A. Superior sympathetic ganglion

Which of the following describes the effects of adding hypertonic sodium chloride to extracellular fluid after osmotic equilibrium is reached? A. Both extracellular and intracellular volume decrease and osmolarity in both compartments increases. B. The extracellular volume decreases and the intracellular volume increases; osmolarity in both compartments increases. C. The extracellular volume increases and the intracellular volume decreases; osmolarity in both compartments increases. D. Both extracellular and intracellular volumes increase and osmolarity in both compartments increases.

C. The extracellular volume increases and the intracellular volume decreases; osmolarity in both compartments increases. Volme in the extracellular space increases as that is where the fluid is added. Volume in the intracellular space decreases because the higher concentration of sodium in the extracellular space generates an osmotic force. Osmolarity in the extracellular space increases because the concentration of sodium in the fluid that is added was a high than the concentration initially present in the space. Osmolarity in the intracellular space increases because the amount of sodium present stays the same but the volume decreases.

GFR is determined by the net filtration pressure and the glomerular capillary filtration coefficient. Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on increasing GFR? A. Glomerular capillary colloid osmotic pressure B. Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure C. Bowman’s capsule colloid osmotic pressure D. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

D. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure Lecture 17 - Micturition and Glomerular Filtration

In the hematopoietic lineage of the various granulocytes, which of the following immature cell types may be found in circulation? A. Myelocyte B. Band cell C. Promyelocyte D. Metamyelocyte

B. Band cell

Q: Which of the following is not a necessary component of a synapse? A. Presynaptic membrane B. Postsynaptic membrane C. Synaptic cleft D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

The Va/Q ratio is zero (0) under which of the following conditions? A. Va= infinity, but Q = 0 B. Va=infinity, but Q=1 C. Va= 0, but perfusion \> 0 D. Va\>0, but Q = 0

C. Va=0, but perfusion \>0

the cerebral cortex is divided into many areas with specific sets of functions. Which of the following areas of the cerebral cortex would have direct connections with specific muscles? A. primary motor areas B. secondary motor areas C. primary sensory areas D. secondary sensory areas

A. primary motor areas

Which of the following ANS fibers pass through the gray rami? A. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers B. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers C. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers D. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers

B. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers

What is the partial pressure of oxygen in mmHg at the alveolar membrane if the percentage of oxygen in the alveoli is 20%? A. 75 B. 122 C. 152 D. 266

C. 152

The nerve branch to the geniohyoid originate from C1 and runs partly with which of the following cranial nerves? A. Glossopharyngeal B. Hypoglossal C. Vagus D. Spinal accessory

B. Hypoglossal

which of the following characteristics would be true of cardiac muscle cells but not skeletal muscle fibers? A. cells have the sarcomeric banded pattern B. cells utilize T tubules C. cells are mononucleated D. cells utilize ryanodine

C. cells are mononucleated

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the major components of the analgesia system? A. Periaqueductal gray B. Raphe magnus nucleus C. Nucleus ruber D. All of the above are components of the analgesia system

C. Nucleus ruber

Which of the following arterial branches does NOT come off the third part (distal part) of the axillary artery? A. Subscapular artery B. Posterior circumflex humeral C. Anterior circumflex humeral D. Superior (supreme) thoracic artery

Superior (supreme) thoracic artery

Identify the tissue marked with an star. A. Tunica intima layer B. Purkinje cell layer C. Internal elastic lamina D. Tunica adventit

B. Purkinje cell layer

Hassall's corpuscles are characteristic only of which of the following areas? A. cortex of lymph nodes B. medulla of lymph nodes C. cortex of the thymu D. medulla of the thymus

D. medulla of the thymus

A 57 year old female patient presents with tenderness and swelling in the infralateral quadrant of her right breast. Upon examination, her clinician notices enlarged lymph nodes in the patient’s right axilla. What is the main pathway of lymphatic drainage for the breast? A. Most lymph from the breast drains to pectoral and the axillary lymph nodes. B. Most lymph from the breast drains to pectoral and then parasternal lymph nodes. C. Most lymph from the breast drain to parasternal and then abdominal lymph nodes.

Most lymph from the breast drains to pectoral and then axillary lymph nodes.

Which of the following terms refers to a chain of sarcomeres? (A) Muscle (B) Myofiber (C) Myofibril (D) Myofilament

Q: The Trendelenburg test is used to evaluate which of the following muscles? A. Pectineus B. Gluteus medius C. Gluteus maximus D. Quadriceps femoris

B. Gluteus medius

saltatory conduction is characteristic of which part of a typical neuron? A. dendrite B. nerve cell body C. axon hilock D. axon

D. axon

the male and female external gentialia are derived from homologous embryonic primordia. The genital swellings of the embryo form which of the following adult structures? A. scrotum B. labia minora C. clitoris D. shaft of the penis

A. scrotum

Q: Cell bodies of alpha motor neurons are located in which of the following areas of the spinal cord? A. Dorsal (posterior) horns B. Ventral (anterior) horns C. Dorsal root ganglia D. Substantia gelatinosa E. Paravertebral ganglia

B. Ventral (anterior) horns

Which of the following areas of the brain secretes melatonin and is involved in regulating circadian rhythms? A. Thalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Pineal body D. Inferior colliculi

C. Pineal body

If the end-diastolic volume is 110 ml and the end-systolic volume is 30 ml, the stroke volume is...? A. 140 ml B. 80ml C. 70ml D. 40ml E. 10ml

B. 80ml

The gap above the middle pharyngeal constrictor is traversed by which of the following nerves? A. Trigeminal B. Facial C. Glossopharyngeal D. Hypoglossal

C. Glossopharyngeal

what would be the refractive power of a lense with a focal length of 50 cm A. 1 diopter B. 2 diopter C. 5 diopter D. 50 diopter

B. 2 diopter

Which of the following extrinsic muscles of the eye is NOT supplied by the oculomotor nerve? A.lateral rectus B. inferior oblique C. medial rectus D. inferior rectus

A.lateral rectus

Q: Which of the following is the longest and widest part of the uterine tube? A. Isthmus B. Ampulla C. Intramural D. Fimbriae

B. Ampulla

Which of the following transport mechanisms requires energy other than kinetic energy? A. Osmosis B. Diffusion C. Active transport D. Facilitated diffusion

C. Active transport

the sodium-potassium ATPase pump is an example if which of the following kinds of transport? A. diffusion B. primary active transport C. secondary active transport D. facilitated dffusion

B primary active transport

Special visceral motor (SVM) modality supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle via which of the following cranial nerves? A. Cranial nerve IX B. Cranial nerve X C. Cranial nerve XI D. Cranial nerve XII

A. Cranial nerve IX

humidification of air in the alveoli has which of the following effects on the partial pressures of nitrogen and oxygen in the alveoli? A. it increased partial pressures of each of the other gasses B. it decreases the partial pressures of the each of the other gasses C. it has no effect on the partial pressures of each of the other gasses D. it increases the partial pressure of oxygen but decreases the partial pressure of nitrogen in alveolar air

B. it decreases the partial pressure of the each of the other gasses

Which of the following is responsible for partial inhibition micturition except when micturition is desired? A. Parasympathetic system B. Sympathetic system C. Pedendal nerves D. Pelvic splanchinc nerves

C. Pedendal nerves

which of the following would not be classified as a long bone? A. femur B. humerus C. ulna D. calcaneus E. radius

D. calcaneus

identify the structure indicated by the arrow A. Bowman's membrane B. Decemet's membrane C. Bruch's membrane D. pigmented later

A. Bowman's membrane

Identify the layer indicated by the arrow. A. Rods and cones B. Outer nuclear layer C. Inner nuclear layer D. Ganglion nuclear layer

D. Ganglion nuclear layer Lecture 16, Slide 23

B. Inferior orbital fissure

The origin of the axons that make up the optic nerve originate from which of the following? A. rod cells of the retina B. amacrine cells of retina C. ganglion cells of the retina D. cone cells of the retina

C. ganglion cells of the retina

In any tissue in the body, a rapid increase in arterial pressure causes an immediate rise in blood flow. But within less than a minute, the blood flow in most tissues returns almost to the normal level even though the arterial pressure is kept elevated. This return of flow to normal is due to which of the following events? A. Autoregulation of blood flow B. Tubuloglomerular feedback C. Sympathetic response D. Mean sympathetic pressure feedback

A. Autoregulation of blood flow

Parasympathetic supply to the lacrimal gland is via which of the following nerves? A. Trigeminal B. Facial C. Glossopharyngeal D. Oculomotor

B. Facial

Between the superior and middle pharyngeal constrictors there is a narrow gap. Which of the following structures passes through the gap? A.auditory nerve B. stylopharyngeus muscle C. palatopharyngeus muscle D. vagus nerve

B. stylopharyngeus muscle

Parasympathetic fibers that control the shape of the lens and pupil are carried by which of the following nerves? A.ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve B. oculomotor nerve C. facial nerve D. abducens nerve

B. oculomotor nerve

A stratified squamous, nonkeratinized epithelium with free nerve endings is characteristic of which of the following? A. Decemet’s membrane B. Corneal epithelium C. Bowman’s membrane D. Sclera E. Anterior surface of the iris

B. Corneal epithelium

identify the type of tissue shown in the photomicrograph below A. pancreas B. lymph node C. spleen D. liver

D. liver

Photosensitive pigments are associated with which of the following segments of a photosensitive cell? A. Spherule B. Pedicle C. Cell body D. Inner segment E. Outer segment

E. Outer segment

the sacral promontory is formed by which of the following structures? A. the centrum of L1 B. the spinous process of L1 C. the centrum of S1 D. the spinous process of S2

C. the centrum of S1

Identify the specific type of blood cell marked with an asterisk in the photomicrograph below. A. Monocyte B. Lymphocyte C. Megakaryocyte D. Proerythroblast

D. Proerythroblast

Q: An eyeball that is too long will cause the light rays coming from distant objects to be focused in front of the retina. This condition is referred to as which of the following? A. Emmetropia B. Hyperopia C. Myopia D. Astigmatism E. Presbytropia

C. Myopia

The meninges cover the brain and spinal cord. They consist of three layers. Which of the following statements is true regarding these membranes? A. The subdural space is only associated with the meninges around the brain. B. The epidural space is only associated with the meninges around the spinal cord. C. Cerebral spinal fluid is found in the subdural space. D. Arachnoid granulations are projections from the pia mater.

B. The epidural space is only associated with the meninges around the spinal cord.

When both the mean systemic filling pressure and right atrial pressure are 7, what is the venous return rate? A. 5.2 liters per minute B. 5 liters per minute C. 4 liters per minute D. 0 liters per minute

D. 0 liters per minute If both pressures are the same there is no force driving blood into the atrium resulting in no venous returnn.

The anterior belly of the digastic muscle is derived from the first pharyngeal arch and is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. facial B. trigeminal C. glossopharyngeal D. hypoglossal

B. tigeminal

Which of the following statement(s) is true? A. The radial nerve travels medial to the radial artery in the forearm B. The ulnar nerve accompanies the ulnar artery in the forearm. C. The anterior ulnar recurrent artery anastomoses with the superior ulnar collateral. D. the recurrent radial artery anastomoses with the ascending deep brachial artery.

The ulnar nerve accompanies the ulnar artery in the forearm.

Q: Which of the following pathways carries conscious perception rather than unconscious perception? A. Medial lemniscal B. Spinocerebellar C. Spino-olivary D. Spinotectal

A. Medial lemniscal

Which of the following best describes the capillary filtration coefficient? A. Average diamerters of the glomerular capillaries. B. Mean of the capillary pressure within the glomerulus. C. Product of the permeability and filtering sufrace area of the glomerular capillaries. D. Mean of the hydrostatic pressure within the glomerular capillaries.

C. Product of the permeability and filtering sufrace area of the glomerular capillaries.

In the arm, the posterior ulnar recurrent artery forms an anatomostis with which of the following? A. Superior radial collateral B. Inferior radial collateral C. Deep brachial D. Superior ulnar collateral E. Inferior ulnar collateral

D. Superior ulnar collateral

The thalamus is a paired complex of many nuclei, some of which are associated with relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex. Other relay motor information from the cerebral cortex, and some serve to integrate the others. Which of the following relay information to the primary auditory cortex of the cerebral cortex? A. medial geniculate B. lateral geniculate C.ventral posterior D.anterior

A. medial geniculate

Which of the following extrinsic muscles of the eye abducts the eyeball? A. Superior oblique B. Medial rectus C. Lateral rectus D. Inferior oblique

C. Lateral rectus

The inferior alveolar nerve passes through the mandibular canal and terminates as the mental nerve. The inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of which cranial nerve? A.Facial B.Trigeminal C.hypoglossal D.glossopharyngeal

B.Trigeminal

Increase in sexual activity, compulsive tendency to place objects in mouth, decreased emotionality, changes in eating behavior and visual agnosia are characteristics of the Kluver-Bucy syndrome. This results when which of the following is/are bilaterally destroyed? A. Substantia nigra B. Red nucleus C. Amygdala D. Thalamus

C. Amygdala

the madibular branch of the trigeminal nerve exits the cranial cavity through which of the following foramina? A. foramen ovale B. foramen spinosum C. foramen rotundum D. foramen lacerum

A. foramen ovale

Which of the following occurs when a decrease in bicarbonate ion results in a decrease in the ratio of bicarbonate ion to carbon dioxide in the extracellular fluid? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alakalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

C. Metabolic acidosis

Identify the fine lines indicated by he letter “A” A. Bile canaliculi B. Haversian canaliculi C. Elastic fibers D. Collagen fibers

B. Haversian canalicul

Most of the middle cranial fossa is formed by which of the following bones? A. frontal B. parietal C. occipital floor D. sphenoid

D. sphenoid

Hyaluronidase released from the sperm acrosome is necessary to breach which of the following barriers? A.the corona radiata B.zona pellucida C.egg plasmalemma D.thecal cells

A.the corona radiata

The epidermis can best be described as what class of epithelium? A. Stratified cuboidal B. Simple columnar C. Stratified squamous D. Transitional

C. Stratified squamous

Which of the following is secreted by duodenal and upper jejunal cells in response to the presence of acidic foods in the upper intestine? It stimulates the release of large amounts of pancreatic sodium bicarbonate and inhibits gastric acid secretion. A. secretin B. CCK C. gastrin D. motilin

A. secretin

Which of the following would NOT be true regarding the Haldane efffect? A. Binding of oxygen with hemoglobin displaces carbon dioxide from blood. B. Binding of oxygen causes hemoglobin to become a stronger acid. C. Increased acidity of hemoglobin causes it to release hydrogen ions. D. Oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shift to the right.

D. Oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shift to the right.

Heme is released from damaged RBCs and split into globin and heme by macrophages. Heme is then converted into which of the following by heme oxygenase? A. Cholic acid B. Biliverdin C. Bilirubin D. Urobilinogen

B. Biliverdin

The innervation of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles would be described by which of the following modalites? A.general visceral motor B. general somatic motor C. special visceral motor D. special somatic motor

C. special visceral motor

The malleoli of the tibia and fibular form the mortise component of the ankle joint. Which of the following forms the tenon? A. calcaneus B. cuboid C. talus D. medial cuneiform

C. talus

Identify nerve indicated in the drawing of the region of the elbow. A. Radial B. Ulnar C. Musculocutaneous D. Median

ulnar

Q: The corpus callosum is the major commissure between the two cerebral hemispheres. Cutting the corpus callosum would result in which of the following deficits? A. Loss of 2-point discrimination from the right side of the brain into Wernicke’s area B. Loss of transfer of visual info from the right hemisphere into Wernicke’s area C. Loss of transfer of visual info from the left hemisphere into Wernicke’s area D. Loss of pain sensation from the right hemisphere into Wernicke’s area

B. Loss of transfer of visual info from the right hemisphere into Wernicke’s area

Which of the following in liters/day represents the GFR in the average adult human? A. 3 B. 125 C. 180 D. 360

C. 180

Olfactory fibers making up the olfactory nerves pass from the olfactory mucosa to the olfactory bulbs through which of the following? A. Sphenoethmoidal recess B. Cribriform plate C. Optic canals D. Lateral pterygoid foraminae

B. Cribriform plate

Identify tendon of muscle indicated by arrow. A. Extensor pollicis brevis B. extensor pollicis longus C. Abductor pollicis longus D. Abductor pollicis brevis

Extensor pollicis longus

Which of the following buffer systems is most important in buffering renal tubular fluid? A. phosphate buffer system B. carbonate buffer system C. bicarbonate buffer system D. hemoglobin buffer system

A. phosphate buffer system

Q: Which of the following sequences represents the correct order of structures involved in the pathway for the transmission of auditory information? A. Dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei; Superior olivary nucleus; Medial geniculate nucleus (thalamus); Auditory cortex B. Lateral lemniscus’ nucleus; Superior olivary nucleus; Dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei; Auditory cortex C. Medial geniculate nucleus; Lateral lemniscus’ nucleus; Superior olivary nucleus; Dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei D. Dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei; Superior olivary nucleus; Auditory cortex; Medial geniculate nucleus (thalamus)

A. Dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei; Superior olivary nucleus; Medial geniculate nucleus (thalamus); Auditory cortex

The nerve branch to the geniohyoid originate from C1 and runs partly with which of the following cranial nerves? A. Glossopharyngeal B. Hypoglossal C. Vagus D. Spinal accessory

B. Hypoglossal

If mean capillary pressure is 17.3 mmHg; and negative interstitial free fluid pressure is 3.0 mmHg; and interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure is 8.0 mmHg; and plasma colloid osmotic pressure is 28.0 mmHg; what is the total inward force? A. 17.3 mmHg B. 20.3 mmHg C. 28.0 mmHg D. 28.3 mmHg

C. 28.0 mmHg Plasma colloid osmotic pressure is the only inward force listed.

Which of the following is an effect of the sympathetic nervous system? A. Relaxation of GI tract sphincters B. Strong stimulation of glands of upper GI tract C. Pupil constriction D. Strong stimulation of sweat glands

D. Strong stimulation of sweat glands

The spinal accessory nerve exits the cranial cavity through which of the following foramina? A. Foramen ovale B. Foramen spinosum C. Foramen rotundum D. Jugular foramen

D. Jugular foramen

Which of the following represents the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity? A. Infraglottic cavity B. Rima glottidis C. Rima vestibuli D. Space between the vestibular folds

B. Rima glottidis

almost all infrahyoid muscles are characterized by which of the following innervation patterns? A. hypoglossal nerve B. ansa cervicalis C. C2 D. C2-C3

B. ansa cervicalis

During the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, which band(s) DOES/DO shorten? A. The I band only B. The A band only C. The H band only D. Both the I and the A bands E. Both the I bands and the H bands

E. Both the I bands and the H bands

Which of the following groups of cells are capable of breaking down bone matrix? A. Chondroclasts B. Osteoclasts C. Chondroblasts D. Chondrocytes E. Fibroblasts

B. Osteoclasts

About 80 mEq of nonvolatile acid is formed by metabolism per day. The minimal urine hydrogen concentraiton is about 0.03 mEq/L. What would be the approximate volume of urine required if all excess hydrogen ions remained free in solution. A. 1.5 L/day B. 180 L/day C. 2700L/day D. 4500 L/day

C. 2700L/day

Q: The nucleus ruber (‘red nucleus”) in the mesencephalon would best be characterized by which of the following descriptions? A. A collection of myelinated axons in the midbrain B. A collection of myelinated dendrites in the midbrain C. A collection of cell bodies and dendrites in the midbrain D. A collection of unmyelinated axons in the midbrain

C. A collection of cell bodies and dendrites in the midbrain

Q: Which is the correct conduction pathway sequence in the middle ear? A. Tympanic membrane – malleus – incus – stapes – oval window B. Tympanic membrane – malleus – incus – stapes – round window C. Tympanic membrane – malleus – stapes – incus – round window D. Tympanic window – incus – malleus – stapes – oval window

A. Tympanic membrane – malleus – incus – stapes – oval window

The anterior-posterior axis serves for the axis of rotation for which of the following movement pairs? A. Flexion-extension B. Abduction-adduction C. Circumduction D. Pronation-supination

B. Abduction-adduction

Which of the following represents the mean pulmonary arterial pressure? A. 7 B. 15 C. 25 D. 125

B. 15

The boundaries of the anatomical snuff box include all of the following except: A. Abductor pollicis brevis B. Extensor pollicis longus C. Extensor pollicis brevis D. Abductor pollicis longus

A. Abductor pollicis brevis

Which of the following branches from the internal carotid artery supplies areas of the face? A.posterior auricular B. supraorbital C. occipital D. superficial temporal

B. supraorbital

Q: Spatial summation increasing signal strength is transmitted by using progressively greater numbers of fibers. A. True B. False

A. True

Which of the following is NOT a function of mesangial cells? A. Phagocytosis B. Production of angiotensin II C. Mechanical support D. Synthesis of matrix and collagen E. Regulation of blood flow

B. Production of angiotensin II

Which of the following types of glycosaminoglycans is the largest of the GAGS, is the only GAG which lacks sulfate groups, and is present in nearly all connective tissues? A. Hyaluronic acid B. Heparin C. Chondroitin sulfate D. Keratan sulfate

A. Hyaluronic acid

Q: The descending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery forms an anastomosis with which of the following? A. Inferior gluteal artery B. Medial femoral circumflex C. Genicular anastomosis D. Cruciate anastomosis

C. Genicular anastomosis

The circumflex scapular artery is a branch of which of the following? A. Thyrocervical trunk B. Costocervical trunk C. Thoracoacromial trunk D. Subscapular artery E. None of the above

Subscapular artery

The lamina cribosa is associated with which of he following layers of the eyeball? A. Cornea B. Sclera C. Choroid D. Inner tunic

B. Sclera

Of the following ions, which is most concentrated in the extracellular environment? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Chloride D. Calcium

A. Sodium

a systemic vein is about eight times as distensible as its corresponding artery and has a volume about three times as great. How would its compliance compare to that of a corresponding artery? A. 8 times as compliant B. 3 times as compliant C. 24 times as compliant D. 2.6 times as compliant

C. 24 times as compliant

lateral cervical triangle and axila brachial plexus scapula humeral rythym anatomical snuff box: artery that can be damaged and boundries/floor carpal tunnel intercostal spaces frainage pattern of mammory glands meningeal covers of spinal cord: where is fluid thoracic aorta and main branches boundaries of abdominal cavity

this dr. anderson highlighted

Q: Which of the following nerves/branches supply cutaneous innervation to the lower medial quadrant of the buttock? A. Posterior rami of L1-3 and S1-3 B. Iliohypogastric nerve and anterior rami of T12 C. Branches from posterior femoral nerves D. Branches of anterior rami from lateral femoral cutaneous nerve.

C. Branches from posterior femoral nerves

Q: Superior vesicular arteries supply part of the urinary bladder and are branches off which of the following? A. Superior gluteal artery B. Obturator artery C. Umbilical artery D. Pudendal artery

C. Umbilical artery

The patella is an example of which of the following types of bones? A. short B. long C. irregular D. sesamoid

D. sesamoid

In the photomicrograph below, identify the specific brownish type of cell indicated by the arrow. A. Langerhan’s cell B. Melanocyte C. Kupffer cell D. Podocyte

B. Melanocyte

identify cell

monocyte 1000x

Which of the following, in liters/day, represents the GFR in the average adult human. A. 3 B. 125 C. 180 D. 360

C. 180 Lecture 17 - Micturition and Glomerular Filtration

If tidal volume is 0.5 liters, dead space is 0.15 liters, and breathing rate is 12 times per minute; calculate the minute ventilation. A. 1.8 liters B. 4.0 liters C. 6.0 liters D. 7.8 liters

C. 6.0 liters

One of the best known stimuli for increasing the rate of thyroid releasing hormone secretion is…? A. Cold B. Anxiety C. cAMP D. Excitement

A. Cold

Which of the following hypaxial muscles is attached to the hyoid bone but is not part of the infrahyoid group? A. Sternothyroid B. Thyrohyoid C. Geniohyoid D. Omohyoid

C. Geniohyoid

Which of the following infrahyoid muscles is NOT supplied through the ansa cervicalis? A. Thyrohyoid B. Sternothyroid C. Sternohyoid D. Omohyoid

A. Thyroidhyoid

Which of the following is the largest lobe of the liver? A. right B. left C. quadrate D. caudate E. median

A. right

Which of the following is NOT one of the four components of the medial collateral ligament of the ankle? A. tibionavicualr B. tibiocalcanean C. posterior tibiotalar D. calcaneofibular

D. calcaneofibular

Which of the following nerves wraps around the neck of the radius? A. Ulnar B. Median C. Radial D. Musculocutaenous E. Axillary

Radial

Q: Damage to which of the following cortical areas would impair transmission of information from the visual cortex to the area where comprehension of the printed word occurs? A. Supplemental visual cortex B. Wernicke’s area C. Angular gyrus D. Broca’s area E. Limbic association area

C. Angular gyrus

Which of the following would NOT shift the oxygen-hemoglobin curve to the right and downward? A. A decrease in pH B. An increas in carbon dioxide C. An increase in temperature D. A decrease in BPG (bi-phosphoglycerate)

D. A decrease in BPG (bi-phosphoglycerate)

Dihydropyridine (DHP) channels are part of which of the following structures? (A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (B) Plasmalemma (C) T tubules (D) Z discs

Which of the following nerves carries fibers only from spinal cord levels C8, and T1? A. radial B. ulnar C. musculocutaneous D. axillary E. lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm

B. ulnar

Q: In typical sensory pathways, tertiary (third order) neurons typically terminate in which of the following areas? A. Somatosensory cortex B. Reticular formation C. Basal nuclei D. Thalamus

A. Somatosensory cortex

Q: Which of the following cell types respond to rapid changes in the visual image? A. Bipolar cells B. Amacrine cells C. X type ganglion cells D. Y type ganglion cells E. Z type ganglion cells

D. Y type ganglion cells

C. renal excretion of bicarbonate ion

Identify the structure/membrane indicated by the arrow in the photomicrograph. A. Scala tympani B. Stria vascularis C. Tectorial membrane D. Vestibular membrane

D. Vestibular membrane Lecture 17, Slide 26

Significant reduction in ECF and blood volume, diminished cardiac output, and hyperkalemia are characteristic of lack of which of the following? A. aldosterone B. estrogen C. cortisol D. DHEA

A. aldosterone

which of the following types of neurons would transmit an action potential the fastest? A. small diameter, non-myelinated B. small diameter, myelinated C. large diameter, myelinated D. large diameter, non-myelinated

C. large diameter, myelinated

Sensory group III afferent neurons send signals to which neurons that relay signals to both ipsilateral and contralateral muscles? A. Renshaw cells B. Gamma motor neurons C. Alpha motor neurons D. Excitatory interneurons

D. Excitatory interneurons

During pregnancy, the progesterone needed to maintain the developing fetus is secreted primarily by which of the following? A.thecal cells B. uterine endometrium C. corpus albicans D. corpus luteum

D. corpus luteum

approximately what percentage of carbon dioxide is carried as bicarbonate? A. 5% B. 25% C. 30% D. 70%

D. 70%

D. equilibrium

If a child is exposed to measles and comes down with the infection, which of the following terms describes the type of immunity the child will develop? A. Passive, innate B. Active, innate C. Passive, acquired D. Active, acquired

D. Active, acquired Lecture 18 - Immune Lymphatic System Slide 4

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