Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Sdpeh > Amir's Nuggets Of Knowledge > Flashcards

Amir's Nuggets Of Knowledge Flashcards

(125 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Rx of SVT

A 
Haemostable = Adenosine IV (CONTRA IN ASTHMA)
Haemounstable = Cardioversion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Dif between cardioversion and defibrillation?

A 
Cardioversion = timed 
Define = unsynchronised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fast AF management

A

<48hrs = Can cardiovert
>48hrs and Haemostable = a/c + rate control + elective cardioversion 3/4 weeks later
UNSTABLE - whisk em off to cardiovert them
Rx the cause and complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Management of VT (pulse)

A

Haemostable = IV amiodarone
Rx cause
Unstable = Cardiovert them
Pulseless = DEFIB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Voltage criteria for LVH

A

Deep s in v1
Tall q in v6
WHATS 6+1 eh?? 7
Has to be >7 squares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Signs of ischaemia on ECQ

A

ST elevation/dep
T wave inversion
q wave = previous infarct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Heart sounds, what do they signify?

A 
S1 = AV valves closing 
S2 = AP valves closing 
S3 = ventricular filling 
S4 = ventricular hypertrophy 
S4 = sounds like Tennessee 
S3 = kentucky
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Management of acute HF

A

FDOGS BITCHES

Furosemide 
Diamorphine (not a bad painkiller eh? But also dilates veins)
Oxygen 
GTN 
Sit em up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If you have a hypothermic patient in pulseless VT what do yea do?

A

You would normally shock a VT, but if hypothermic you DONT.

Wait until they are warm….just do CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

VF/pulseless VT management

A

Adrenaline 3-5mins
CPR 2 mins -> shock after its assessed the rhythms
Think about reversible causes……….

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Asystole/PEA

A

CRP + atropine and correct causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pleuritic Pain PPPPPPPPPPPPPsssssss

A 
Pericarditis 
Pneumonia 
Pneumothorax
PE
Pleural effusion 
Pleural tumour/other pathology 
Pyogenic liver abscesses
Pain from musculoskeletal causes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the REVERSIBLE 4H’s and 4T’s

A

Hypothermia
HypER/okalaemia
Hypoxia
Hypovolaemia

Thrombosis
Tamponade
Tension pneumo
Toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MI investigations

A
  1. ECG
  2. Troponin on arrival and at 3hrs
    +ve = PCI+angiography
    -ve = exercise tolerance ie ECG stress/dobutamine stress
  3. Echo - damage assessment and valvular assessment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MIs and location - list where the ECG changes are seen and what they correspond to

A

V1-4 = Anterior - think FOUR ANTERIOUR - Left ANTERIOR descending

II, III and AVF = Inferior - think inFerior avF - RCA - think inferioRight

AVL, I, v5+6 = Lateral - think avLateral - CIRCUMFLEX - think circle…circlateral…SIR COLLATERAL is herrrrre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

BEAT BRAIN BLOOD GO

Collapse

A

Beat - arrhythmias, brady/tachy, vasovagal
Brain - diffuse = SAH, epilepsy, ICP
- Hemi = stroke, epi/sub dural
Blood - dec TPR - results in dec return ie GTN/BBs/diamorphine/vasovagal, dec volume - hypovolaemia, orthostatic hypo/postural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Long QT causes

A

Congenital abnormalities in K+ channel
Acquired - drugs, low K+, low Mg 2+

REMEMBER THE ± way of detecting QT
IF ± bisects T wave = likely to be long QT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Inc JVP causes

A

RHF - CHF, TR, ventricle dilation, pulmonary HTN (COPD/PE)

- constrictive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

AF causes

A

Endo - thyro
Toxins - alcohol, amiodarone can
Heart - valvular disease, pericarditis, previous damage (scar = APs)
Lungs - PE, pneumonia, CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Main cause encephalitis

A

HSV 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ALP high or low in what with raised calcium?

A

ALP high - BONY METS
ALP N - MM (CRAB)

Caution - ALP can be high in sarcoidosis if hepatic involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

1st test for TEMPORAL arteritis

A

ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

NF1 inheritance

A

AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

1st Rx with anaphylaxis

A

Miss out ABC

Give adrenaline IM 1mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Cause of blood in urine from crushing?
Rhabdomyolysis - myoglobin in urine
26
Haemostable VF rx
Amiodarone iv / magnesium | Ami = better
27
If SAH CT = negative - perform lumbar puncture
Blood/yellowing
28
Urinary antigens
Legionella
29
UMN and LMN at the same time
MND
30
What is thumb printing a sign of?
IBD
31
What is leadpiping a sign of?
IBD
32
What size is dilation in toxic megacolon?
6cm
33
Varices management
ABC, IV fluids, ABx for translocation, terlipressin VCer, establish IV access for fluids, Group and save crossmatch OGD + thermocoagulation
34
General management acute GI bleed
Fluids, analgesia, antiemetic, abx, vitals and UO, G+S if severe, NBM FBC, INR, LFTs, CRP Imagery Abx - metronidazole, ciclosporin, ceftiaxome
35
Jaundice management
FBCs, LFTs, CRP, DAT | Abdo USS after fast
36
Ascites Rx
``` Abx Fluid restriction Na restriction Weighing daily Furosemide/spironolactone Paracentesis Lactulose if encephalopathy ```
37
What is the 11g ascites rule?
Albumin - ascites albumin >11g = CHF, cirrhosis <11g = neoplastic, nephrotic, TB infective
38
Anastomotic leak signs
Diffuse pain + tenderness, rebound tenderness, hypotension, guarding
39
No nocturnal symptoms, WL or rectal bleeding
IBS
40
RAS. Give moderate and severe %s
``` >70% = severe 50-70% = moderate ```
41
C section scar
Low traverse scar
42
Hockey stick scar
Renal transplantation
43
Appendicectomy scar
McBurneys scar
44
Causes of hepatomegaly
Cirrhosis RHF Cancer Infiltrative - sarcoidosis, amyloid, haemochromatosis, fatty
45
Splenomegaly causes
Portal HTN, Haem malignancy, Severe infection (ie malaria, mononucleosis), inflammation,
46
Pain on tapping kidney
Pyelonephritis
47
Differentiation between pancreatitis acute/chron
``` Acute = Pain, high amylase Chron = pain AND WL, normal amylase, HIGH fecal elastase, loss of exocrine = steatorrhoea (which is pale), endocrine = DM ```
48
Diffuse abdo pain in what?
Gastroenteritis, ischaemic colitis, TOXIC mega, peritonitis, IBD, BO, peritonitis, addisons, DKA, porphyria
49
Mildly raised amylase in what?
Any acute abdomen with inflammation/pain
50
SBP
>250cells per mm3
51
Jaundices - differentiating features between the types
Prehepatic = increased unconjugated = Just jaundice Hepatic = increased both = dark urine Post hepatic = increased conjugated = dark urine and poo
52
Breathlessness - list causes for onset related
SO - PE/Pneumo/Foreign body/atelectasis/anxiety Mins/hrs - Airway - inflammation/fluid ie asthma/pneumonia / HF Days/weeks - anaemia/malignancy/NM/ILD/thyrotoxicosis
53
What are the rules with regards to Pneumo Rx
<2cm and no underlying disease/major symptoms = no hospitalisation >2cm OR symptomatic: hospitalisation: Primary spon = aspirate THEN IF FAILS chest drain Secondary spon = chest drain USS if fluid CPAP - keeps airways open
54
How does reexpansion occur?
>48hrs presentation // decompressed too fast
55
What is Amirs law of axis?
``` Look at lead I/II. Is either negative? If no = normal axis If yes = proceed Is AVL positive? If yes = LAD If norr = RAD ```
56
When is BiPaP used?
T2 resp failure | COPD,CO2 retention, resp acidosis
57
What 2 reasons is warfarin given with heparin
3-5 days until therapeutic | Also has paradoxical pro coag effect initially
58
Description of ILD?
Reticular shadowing
59
Description of fibrosis X-ray
reticulonodular
60
Description of pneumonia X-ray
Alveolar opacities / interstitial opacities
61
Pleural effusion X-ray description
Homogenous shadowing
62
Description lung cancer?
Masses / cavitations if cavitating
63
Loss of Right heart border in pneumonia
RML pneumonia
64
If you cant see diaphragm border under the heart on X-ray
Atelectasis/plural effusion
65
Effusion pushes trachea
Away
66
Tension pulls trachea
To side where lung is
67
Atelectasis pulls trachea
Towards
68
TB on X-ray
Multiple apical opacities +/- cavitation
69
Causes of cavitating lesions | inf,mal,infla
Infection: TB staph klebs Malignancy: SCC Inflammation: RA
70
What are the causes of bilateral LNs?
Sarcoidosis Lymphomas REALLY bad TB
71
Acute exacerbation of COPD
Neb salbutamol -> Ipa -> vent
72
What is used last line for bone pain?
Radiotherapy
73
What drug reduces detrussor overactivity in BPH
Oxybutinin
74
UMN lesion features
Increased reflexes Increased tone Weakness Upgoing plantars
75
LMN features
Dec tone Dec power Dec reflexes Weakness
76
Cerebellar features
``` Disdiadochokinesia Ataxia Nystagmus Intention tremor Slurred speech Hypotonia ```
77
``` Damage to Cerebral cortex SC Nerve root Mononeuropathy Poly Causes what? ```
``` Cerebral = contralateral hemisensory loss SC = Level below Nerve root = Dermatomal dist Nerve = Dist Poly = glove and stocking ```
78
Causes of peripheral neuropathy (9)
``` DM Alcohol B12 HIV Isoniazid Amyloidosis Uraemia hypothyroid Phenytoin ```
79
What is papillitis
Inflammation (optic neuritis), with blurring, pain on movement, blurred optic disc margins
80
What is papilloedema?
Just raised ICP. No pain/visual def.
81
What tract is used for movement
Corticospinal
82
What tract is pain and temp
Spino T bbe
83
Inflammation of the SC
Traverse myelitis
84
What is meralgia parasthesia?
Compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve Obesity Reassure. No tight clothes
85
Features of carbon monoxide poisoning
Tachycardia, coma, red reflexes, pulmonary oedema, chest pain, confusion, st dep
86
AMTS list
``` DOB Age Time Year Recall street. Where are you Recognise 2 people Current PM WW1/2 (age dependant) 20-1 backwards ```
87
TIA Rx
Aspirin ECG cardiac doppler echo Only Rx BP 220/120
88
Regular FVC check IVIG cardiac monitor
Guillain barre
89
Stroke <4.5
Thrombo
90
Stroke >4.5 hrs
Aspirin
91
List the MAHAs
DIC TTP HUS
92
What do you see in DIC?
Dec hb, Dec plts, Inc INR, inc fib deg (dimer), dec fibrinogen, dec clotting factors
93
What do you see in HUS
Dec hb, dec plts, NORMAL clotting, inc Bili, | RF = inc urea
94
TTP
HUS + fever + neuro
95
Hereditary haemolytic causes
G6p, sickle, thalassaemia, hereditary sphero
96
Acquired causes of haemolytic anaemia
MAHAs - dic, hus, ttp, | DRUUUGs
97
``` SIADH causes Brain Lungs Tumours DRUUUUUGS ```
Brain - most pathologies Lungs - pneumonia Tumours - any Drugs - SSRI, TCA, Opiates, PPI, carbamazepine
98
Drugs causing SIADH
SSRI, TCA, carbamazepine, PPI, opiates
99
What is onchylosis?
Separation of nail from nail bed
100
What are the causes of onchylosis?
Hyperthyroidism (thyrotox), trauma, psoriasis, fungal infections
101
What are beaus lines?
Lines from chemotherapy or recurrent illness
102
1st line Ix for kid stones
CT KUB
103
Why is ALP normal in myeloma
Plasma cells suppress osteoclasts
104
Cavitating lung lesions causes
Infection - staph A, TB, KLEB Inflammation - RA, Sarcoidosis, Infarction - PE Malignancy - SCC
105
Peutz Jeuger Keyword
Pigmentation of mucous membrane
106
What occurs in hereditary telangectasias?
Recurrent GI bleed, Nose bleed, LLB lung liver brain
107
Why is there high prolactin in hypothyroidism?
High TSH from hypothyroidism also causes increased TRH release - results in increased prolactin
108
Low MCV in....
ID, diet, bloodloss, b thalass
109
If MCV is out of proportion with HB what does it signify?
B thalassaemia
110
Macrocytic anaemia causes
Alcohol Folate B12 Myelodysplasia Hypothyroidism
111
Symptoms of polycythaemia
``` Red distal features Itchy post bath Headache Blurred vision Tinnitus Choreiform Thrombosis Gangrene ```
112
Acute painful crises sickle cell management
O2, analgesia, Abx, IV fluids. | O--AFA!
113
Sickle cell stroke management
EXCHANGE Blood transfusion
114
Repeat sequestration | Ie in chest/cough
Splenectomy if repeat
115
MM CRAB
``` Calcium HIGH - polyuria, polydipsia, constipation RENAL FAILURE - uraemia, creatinine up Anaemia - breathlessness lethargy Bone - pain and osteoporosis ALP normal - suppressed by plasma cells ```
116
Causes of inc + dec reticulocytes
INC - Haemolytic crises, haemorrhage | DEC - aplastic, sickle cell crises, blood transfusion, parvo b19
117
What g of glucose in oral glucose tolerance?
75g, test 2 hrs later
118
Which drug is good for overweight DMs?
GLP-1 agonists - reduce appetite and weight
119
Retinopathy stages
Background - pre proliferative - proliferative
120
Diffuse uptake
Graves
121
Uptake in nodule
Toxic nodule
122
Causes of amenorrhoea/oligo
``` PCOS POF Hyper = amen, hypo = oligo Pit - prolactinoma / dec LSH/FSH Excessive exercise PREGNANCY ```
123
Hypokalaemia signs/symptoms
Weakness, parasthesias, arrhythmias | POLYURIA - it causes NEPHROGENIC DI
124
PTH is also known as
PHOSPHATE TRASHING HORMONE
125
Secondary hyperparathyroidism
High PTH, LOW phos, low ca

Sdpeh (50 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions