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Flashcards in Anatomy Deck (141):
0

Bones, muscles and cartilages are derived from what germ layer?
A. Ectoderm
B. Epiderm
C. Endoderm
D. Mesoderm

D. Mesoderm

1

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the Epithelial tissue?
A. It is highly vascular
B. It has abundant intercellular substance
C. It has regenerative capacity
D. All cells rest on the basement membrane

C. It has regenerative capacity

2

Type of epithelium wherein the number of cell layers varies according to the functional state of the organ:
A. Simple
B. Transitional
C. Stratified
D. Pseudostratified

B. Transitional

3

Simple squamous epithelium is prevalent throughout the body and organ system. Which of the following is a primary function of this type of epithelium?
A. Secretion
B. Lubrication
C. Absorption
D. Protection
E. Excretion

B. Lubrication

4

The layer of cells that lines the outer surface of the lungs can be irritated by inhaled asbestos particles. Which of the following is the cell layer being described?
A. Simple squamous - mesothelium
B. Simple squamous - endothelium
C. Transitional epithelium
D. Simple cuboidal epithelium
E. Simple columnar epithelium

A. Simple squamous - mesothelium

5

Which of the following is a characteristic typical of Simple epithelium?
A. All the cells border an open lumen
B. All the cells function to prevent abrasion
C. All the cells rest on a basal lamina
D. All the cells are joined by zonula occludens
E. All the cells have microvilli

C. All the cells rest on a basal lamina

6

Corneal endothelium is an example of what type of Epithelium?
A. Transitional
B. Stratified
C. Pseudostratified
D. Simple

D. Simple

7

Lining of Lens is an example of what type of Epithelium?
A. Stratified squamous
B. Simple columnar
C. Simple squamous
D. Simple cuboidal

D. Simple cuboidal

8

What organ system contains transitional epithelium?
A. Cardiovascular
B. Gastrointestinal
C. Nervous
D. Urinary

D. Urinary

9

Respiratory epithelium is:
A. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated with goblet cell
B. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated without goblet cell
C. Stratified squamous non-cornified
D. Simple squamous

A. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated with Goblet cells

10

Type of epithelium well-adapted for exchange of substances between two sides:
A. Simple
B. Pseudostratified
C. Transitional
D. Stratified

A. Simple

11

Microvilli are essential components of epithelial cells of the small intestine. Which of the following functions would be defective resulting from a lack of microvilli on epithelia?
A. Stretching
B. Movement
C. Protection
D. Secretion
E. Absorption

E. Absorption

12

A 40 y/o man has a history of smoking. He complaints of mucus accumulation and constant cough. A biopsy reveals that the epithelial lining of the tracheal lumen is stratified squamous epithelium. Which of the following terms describes the process of change to another epithelial type?
A. Metastasis
B. Neoplasia
C. Metaplasia
D. Hyperplasia

C. Metaplasia

13

Junctions are essential in maintaining the close association of the cells within the epidermis. Which of the following junctions is important in maintaining cell adherence in all layers of the epidermis?
A. Gap junctions
B. Zonula adherens
C. Zonula occludens
D. Macula adherens

D. Macula adherens

14

Lining epithelium of skin is:
A. Stratified squamous keratinized
B. Pseudostratified columnar
C. Stratified squamous non-keratinized
D. Stratified columnar

A. Stratified squamous keratinized

15

4 fundamental types of tissue

Epithelial

Connective

Muscular

Nervous

16

Connective tissue are entirely MESODERM in origin

Muscular tissue MESODERM in origin

Nervous tissue ECTODERM in origin

Epithelial tissue ECTODERM, MESODERM, ENDODERM in origin

Germ layers according to location

17

Layer of epidermis composed of cells which are continuously shed:
A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum corneum

D. Stratum corneum

18

Layers of epidermis

(Outside to inside)

1. Stratum Corneum
2. Stratum Lucidum
3. Stratum granulosum
4. Stratum spinosum
5. Stratum basale/germanitivum

19

Which if the following layers is NOT found in thin skin?
A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum spinosum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum lucidum
E. Stratum corneum

D. Stratum lucidum

20

Langerhan's cells are found in which of the following layers of the epidermis?
A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum spinosum
C. Stratum corneum
D. Stratum lucidum
E. Stratum granulosum

B. Stratum spinosum

21

Protective barrier of the skin against UV radiation is:
A. Langerhan's cell
B. Merkel cell
C. Melanocytes
D. Keratinocyte

C. Melanocyte

22

Type of tissue composed of cells that are relatively few and far apart, with abundant intercellular substance containing tissue fluid and fibers:
A. Epithelial
B. Muscular
C. Connective
D. Nervous

C. Connective

23

Tendons and ligaments are sample of:
A. Dense, irregular connective
B. Dense, regular connective
C. Loose connective
D. Mucous connective

B. Dense, regular connective

24

Which of the following types of collagen is the most widely distributed and abundant within the body?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. Type V

A. Type I

25

Type of collagen present in bones:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A. Type I

26

Argyrophilic fiber supporting hematopoietic and lymphoid organs is also called as:
A. Reticular
B. Elastic
C. Collagenous
D. Hyaline

A. Reticular

27

Histologically, bone is classified according to its collagenous organization as woven or:
A. Lamellar
B. Calcified
C. Hyalinized fibrous tissue
D. Osteoid tissue

A. Lamellar

28

Parts of an Osteon except:
A. Osteocytes
B. Concentric lamellae
C. Canaliculi
D. Volkmann's canal

D. Volkmann's canal

29

Macrophages would be most abundant in which of the following tissues?
A. Loose areole connective tissue
B. Dense regular connective tissue
C. Adipose tissue
D. Dense irregular connective tissue
E. Embryonic tissue

A. Loose areolar connective tissue

30

The stem cell precursor of most of the connective tissue cells is the:
A. Fibroblast
B. Macrophage
C. Mesenchymal
D. Adipocyte

C. Mesenchymal

31

Your patient suffers from an immediate hypersensitivity reaction. Which of the following cell types is responsible for this condition?
A. Plasma cell
B. Fibroblast
C. Mast cell
D. Macrophages
E. Adipose cell

C. Mast cell

32

Histologically, plasma cells can be recognized by the arrangement of the:
A. Cytoplasmic granules
B. Mitochondria
C. Heterochromatin granules
D. Nucleoli

C. Heterochromatin granules

33

The activity of osteoclasts in releasing Calcium from bones is a result of stimulation of what hormone?
A. Calcitonin
B. TSH
C. Thyroxine
D. PTH

D. PTH

34

A blood analysis of your patient shows an increased level of parathyroid hormone. Which of the following would result from increased levels of this hormone?
A. Increased mitotic activity of esteoprogenitor cells
B. Decreased serum calcium levels
C. Increased bone formation
D. Increased serum calcium levels
E. Increased hydroxyapatite crystal formation

D. Increased serum calcium levels

35

Osteoclasts would be found at which of the following sites in bone?
A. Howship's lacuna
B. Haversian canal
C. Canaliculi
D. Endosteum
E. Periosteum

A. Howship's lacuna

36

Bone of a 75 y/o man shows a decreased number of osteoblasts. However, the number of osteoclasts is greatly increased. This individual bones are easily fractured. Which of the following disease conditions would you expect?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Osteomalacia
C. Osteochondrosis
D. Rickets

B. Osteomalacia

37

The growth of cartilage resulting from mitosis of pre-exiting chondrocytes is called as ____ growth:
A. Interstitial
B. Apposition
C. Endochondral
D. Intramembranous

C. Endochondral

38

In which of the following zones of endochondral ossifications would cells accumulate Gylcogen?
A. Resting zone
B. Zone of hypertrophy
C. Zone of ossification
D. Zone of proliferation
E. Zone of calcification

B. Zone of hypertrophy

39

Which of the following best characterized hyaline cartilage?
A. No perichondrium
B. Single chondrocytes
C. Found between vertebral bodies
D. Least resilient of all forms of cartilages
E. Abundant matrix

E. Abundant matrix

40

Elastic cartilage is found in which of the following body structures?
A. Intervertebral discs
B. Epiglottis
C. Tracheal rings
D. Cartilage at pubic symphysis
E. Costal cartilage

B. Epiglottis

41

Given the same extent of injury, which one will heal first?
A. Bones
B. Ligaments
C. Tendons
D. Muscles

D. Muscles

42

Which of the following is multinucleated?
A. Cardiac muscle
B. Skeletal muscle
C. Smooth muscle
D. Both cardiac and smooth

B. Skeletal muscle

43

Which of the following best characterizes a cardia muscle fiber?
A. Multiple nuclei
B. Lack of striations
C. Spindle shaped fiber
D. Intercalated disks

D. Intercalated disks

44

Which of the following layers of the cardia wall has fat deposits specially seen at the sulci?
A. Endocardium
B. Sub endocardium
C. Epicardium
D. Myocardium

C. Epicardium

45

Which of the following is found within the tunica media of large arteries?
A. Vasa vasorum
B. Elastic fibers
C. Mast cells
D. Fibroblasts

B. Elastic fibers

46

Which of the following are components that form valves in medium and large veins?
A. Tunica intima only
B. Tunica intima and media
C. Tunica media and adventitious
D. Tunica media only

A. Tunica intima only

47

While examining a tissue with a light microscope, you note a vessel that has no smooth muscle. However, you note a large amount of I connective tissue at the periphery. Which of the following vessels are you examining?
A. Arteriole
B. Venule
C. Capillary
D. Elastic artery

B. Venule

48

While examining a tissue with a light microscope, you notice a small vessel that has 2 circular layers of smooth muscle in the tunica media. The lumen of this vessel is only slightly larger than the diameter of an erythrocyte. Which of the following vessels are you examining?
A. Arteriole
B. Venule
C. Capillary
D. Muscular artery

A. Arteriole

49

The area in the sarcomere containing only actin filaments is known as:
A. A band
B. H band
C. I band
D. Z band

C. I band

50

Which of the following regions contains the Z lines in skeletal muscle?
A. H band
B. A band
C. I band
D. M band

C. I band

51

During contraction of skeletal muscle, which of the following does not change in length?
A. H band
B. A band
C. I band
D. Sarcomere

B. A band

52

Which of the following events occurs during the process of contraction of skeletal muscle?
A. Release of calcium ions by sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Calcium ions bind to tropomyosin
C. Actin filaments shorten
D. Z line disappears
E. Sarcomeres lengthens

A. Release of calcium ions by sarcoplasmic reticulum

53

A 5 year old boy presents with wasting of muscles of the extremities and was diagnosed to have Duchenne's dystrophy. Which of the following would be deficient in this patient?
A. Actin
B. Myosin
C. Collagen
D. Dystrophin
E. Tropomyosin

D. Dystrophin

54

Which of the following histologic characteristics distinguishes a bronchus within the lung from Primary bronchus?
A. Glands in the submucosa
B. PSCCE
C. Smooth muscle in the walls
D. Irregular plates of hyaline cartilage
E. Goblet cells in the mucosa

D. Irregular plates of hyaline cartilage

55

Epithelial lining of BRONCHUS

Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium with a goblet cells

56

Segments of respiratory tract with a diameter of 1mm or less without cartilage and glands
A. Bronchioles
B. Bronchus
C. Alveolus
D. Trachea

A. Bronchioles

57

Which statement does NOT characterize the respiratory bronchiole?
A. Lined by simple columnar epithelium
B. Has Goblet cells
C. Has no glands and cartilages
D. Has abundant smooth muscle

B. Has Goblet cells

58

Which of the following conducting airways of things is characterized by a predominantly thick muscularis layer?
A. Primary bronchus
B. Bronchiole
C. Lobar bronchus
D. Segmental bronchus

B. Bronchiole

59

This condition results to reduction of the total surface area available for gas exchange in which many of the alveoli beyond the terminal bronchioles coalesce?
A. Bronchitis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Emphysema
D. Pneumonia

C. Emphysema

60

Secretes surfactant
A. Type I alveolar cells
B. Type II alveolar cells
C. Goblet cells
D. Clara cells

B. Type II alveolar cells

61

The non-ciliated secretory cells which randomly interrupts the ciliated epithelial lining of the bronchiolar mucosa are known as
A. Kulchitsky cell
B. Clara cell
C. Type I pneumocyte
D. Type II pneumocyte

B. Clara cell

62

A coal miner presents with a chronic cough. A lung biopsy reveals cells with large black deposits. Which of the following are the cells containing this inhaled material?
A. Type II alveolar cells
B. Type I alveolar cells
C. Ciliated columnar epithelial cells
D. Goblet cells
E. Alveolar macrophages

E. Alveolar macrophages

63

Choose the correct statement regarding the histology of the esophagus:
A. It is lined by non-keratinized simple squamous epithelium
B. It is entirely covered by adventitia
C. Mucus secreting glands are found in the lamina propria and submucosa
D. The distal 1/3 is made up of skeletal muscle

C. Mucus secreting glands are found in the lamina propria and submucosa

64

The neuroendocrine cells located in lamina propria of gastrointestinal tract is known as:
A. Kulchitsky cells
B. Paneth cells
C. Argentaffin cells
D. Goblet cells

C. Argentaffin cells

65

Which of the following cell type is most prevalent within the gastric pit of the stomach?
A. Columnar absorptive cells
B. Enteroendocrine cells
C. Mucus secreting cells
D. Paneth cells
E. Parietal cell

C. Mucus secreting cells

66

Hyperacidity of stomach is a result of hypersecretion of what cell?
A. Zymogenic cell
B. Parietal cell
C. Columnar cell
D. Mucous neck

B. Parietal cell

67

Permanent mucosal folds in the wall of the small intestine:
A. Haustra
B. Valves of Kerckring
C. Valves of Houston
D. Plicae transversalis

B. Valves of Kerckring

68

In the GIT tract, where are the cells that secrete antibacterial enzymes?
A. in Peter Patches
B. On intestinal villi
C. In crypts of Lieberkuhn
D. In the lamina propria
E. In rugae

C. In crypts of Lieberkuhn

69

Which of the following would result in the reduction in the number of Paneth's cells?
A. Increased levels of intestinal fats
B. Reduced breakdown of sugars
C. Elevated levels of undigested proteins
D. Decreased mucus in the intestine
E. Increased number of intestinal bacteria

E. Increased number of intestinal bacteria

70

Which of the following is the primary function of lacteals in the small intestine?
A. Absorption of glucose
B. Absorption of amino acids
C. Absorption of chylomicrons
D. Absorption of salts
E. Absorption of water

C. Absorption of chylomicrons

71

Brunner's gland is a histologic feature of:
A. Duodenum
B. Gallbladder
C. Ileum
D. Liver

A. Duodenum

72

Plexus of nerves responsible for controlling the secretion of glands in GIT is known as:
A. Auerbach's
B. Merkel's
C. Meissner's
D. Ruffini's

C. Meissner's

73

Disse's space is associated with:
A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Gallbladder
D. Parotid

B. Liver

74

Which of the following form the space of Disse within the liver?
A. Adjacent hepatocytes
B. Adjacent endothelia of liver sinuses
C. Between venules, arterioles and lymphatics of a portal triad
D. Kupffer's cells and sinus endothelium
E. Sinus endothelium and hepatocytes

E. Sinus endothelium and hepatocytes

75

Which of the following defines the classic liver lobule?
A. Triangular with a central vein and 3 portal triads
B. Triangular with a central portal triad and 3 central veins
C. Quadrangular with 2 central veins and 2 portal triads
D. Hexagonal with a central portal triad and 6 central veins
E. Hexagonal with a central vein and 6 portal triads

E. Hexagonal with a central vein and 6 portal triads

76

The liver lobule that is consistent with lobules in typical exocrine glands:
A. Portal lobule
B. Rappaport's lobule
C. Liver acinus
D. Classical lobule

A. Portal lobule

77

Which of the following are components of a portal triad within the liver?
A. Bile canaliculi and lymphatic vessels
B. Three central veins
C. Central vein and hepatic sinuses
D. Hepatic artery, portal vein and bile duct
E. Common bile, hepatic bile and cystic ducts

D. Hepatic artery, portal vein and bile duct

78

Within the liver, blood within the sinusoids drains into which of the following?
A. Central vein
B. Portal lobule
C. Bile canaliculi
D. Hepatic arteriole

A. Central vein

79

Bile formed within the liver is transported via canaliculi to bile ducts. Which of the following form the canaliculi?
A. Central veins
B. Endothelia
C. Kupffer's cell
D. Hepatocytes

D. Hepatocytes

80

Which of the following organelles within the hepatocyte functions to detoxify drugs?
A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Lysosomes
E. Peroxisome

B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

81

Rokitansky aschoff sinuses are features of:
A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Gallbladder
D. Parotid

C. Gallbladder

82

The contents of Zymogen granules within acinar cells of the pancreas are secreted into the intercalated duct. Which of the following provide the primary stimulation for the secretion?
A. Secretin
B. Cholecystokinin
C. Acid chyme
D. Digestive enzyme

D. Digestive enzyme

83

Centroacinar cells are found in which of the following glands:
A. Pancreas
B. Parotid gland
C. Sublingual gland
D. Submaxillary gland

A. Pancreas

84

Which of the following cells within the glomerulus form the filtration slits?
A. Podocytes
B. Mesangial cells
C. Juxtaglomerular cells
D. Extraglomerular cells

A. Podocytes

85

The pathologist is examining renal tissue with a light microscope. He notices a tubular structure that has a brush border. Which of the following structures is the pathologist examining?
A. Distal convoluted tubule
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Thin loop of Henle
D. Collecting tubule

B. Proximal convoluted tubule

86

Which is characteristic of the proximal convoluted tubule?
A. Lining epithelium is simple cuboidal
B. Smaller cell size
C. Larger lumen
D. Less acidophilic staining

A. Lining epithelium is simple cuboidal


Proximal - SIMPLE CUBOIDAL WITH BRUSH BORDERS (acidophilic)

Distal - SIMPLE CUBOIDAL (basophilic)

87

Secretes RENIN

Modified smooth muscle cells afferent arteriole

J-G cells

88

In the kidney, which cells produce erythropoietin?

Mesangial cells

89

Modified portion of DCT

Adjacent to the vascular pole

Monitors the Na+ within the tubular fluid

MACULA DENSA

90

Lacis cells / Polkissen cells

EXTRACELLULAR MESANGIAL CELLS

91

Sensory portion of a nerve cell

Dendrite

92

In cases of nerve fibers injury, what structure in the perikaryon will be decreased in number?

NISSLE's BODY

93

Nissle's granules are actually:
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosomes
D. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

D. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

94

The smallest of the neuroglial cells that form part of the mononuclear phagocytic system

MICROGLIA (mesoderm)

95

The most important supporting cell of the CNS important for nutrition and protection

Protoplasmic astrocyte

96

The cell considered as the source of myelin in peripheral nervous system

Schwann cell

97

Destruction of these cells will lead to a clinical condition known as Multiple Sclerosis

Oligodendrocytes

98

The phase of menstrual cycle that coincides with the functional activity of the corpus lutetium and primarily influenced by progesterone secretion

Secretory

99

Stratum functionalism of endometrium that undergoes changes during menstrual cycle and is shed during menstruation

Is histologically and functionally made up of what layers?

Stratum compactum & stratum spongiosum

100

Histologist is examining cells arrested at various stages of oogenesis

Primary follicle

101

Tissue from an 80 year old man is examined by electron microscope. Cells in this tissue sample have several residual bodies and lipofuscin within their cytoplasm. Which of the following cells are being described?
A. Astrocytes
B. Neurons
C. Oligodendrocytes
D. Fibroblasts

B. Neurons

102

In the peripheral nervous system, which of the following helps promote regeneration of severed axons?
A. Endoneurium
B. Schmidt Lanterman cleft
C. Epineurium
D. Nodes of Ranvier
E. Perineum

A. Endoneurium

103

Which of the following is the most critical event in regeneration of a peripheral nerve?
A. Chromatolysis of the damaged perikaryon
B. Proliferation of Schwann cells
C. Phagocytic activity of macrophages
D. Distal axon degeneration

B. Proliferation of Schwann cells

104

FSH and LH are creations of what cells?

Basophils

105

Th cell that secretes growth hormone and is considered as the most numerous, making up almost half of the bulk of the Anterior Pituitary gland

Somatotrophs

106

Cells that are found in the neurohypophysis

Pituicytes

107

Melatonin which regulates daily body rhythms and day/night cycle is secreted by what endocrine gland

Pineal gland

108

The cells that secretes Calcitonin which lowers blood calcium level by inhibiting the rate of decalcification of bone is

Parafollicular

109

In Grave's disease, these cells are stimulated and increased in number and size leading to abnormal secretions of thyroid hormones

Follicular

110

Lymphatic organ considered as the "graveyard of worn-out RBCs"

Spleen

111

structure that contains Hassal's corpuscles

Thymus

112

Hassal's corpuscle is characteristic feature of what part

Thymic medilla

113

Lymphoid nodules and germinal centers are typically absent in which organ

Thymus

114

Periarterial lymphoid sheath (PALS) is characteristic of

Spleen

115

What is the first site of hematopoiesis in utero?

Yolk sac

116

Glaucoma is a clinical condition resulting from increased intraocular pressure as a result of obstruction of the drainage or excessive secretion of Aqueous humor. The structure that secretes Aqueous humor?

Ciliary process

117

Retinal detachment involves separation of the neural retina from what structure?

Pigment epithelium

118

The organ of Corti lies on which of the following structures

Basilar membrane

119

A victim of an automobile accident is unable to abduct her left arm. This indicates damage to which of the following parts of the brachial plexus?

Upper trunk and posterior cord

120

A 21 year old patient has a lesion of the upper trunk of the brachial plexus. Which of the following will be seen in this patient?

Arm tending to lie in medial rotation

121

A 12 year old is diagnosed with an upper brachial plexus injury after falling from a tree. He presents with his right upper arm at his side due to loss of abduction. The muscles primarily responsible for abduction of the arm at the shoulder

Deltoid and Supraspinatus

122

Injury to the lateral cord of the brachial plexus will also injure its continuation, the MUSCULOCUTANEOUS nerve. Which of the following findings would you observe in a patient with this injury?

Weakness of flexion of the forearm at the elbow

123

A 22 year old mam is brought into the ER with a knife injury to the axilla. The physician suspects injury to the lower brachial plexus. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be affected?

Ulnar

124

An 18 year old patient has been improperly fitted with crutches which put pressure on the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Which of the following terminal nerves would most likely be affected?

Radial

125

Which of the following muscle tests would you perform to test the integrity of the radial nerve?

Extension of the hand at the wrist

126

A 19 year old woman was thrown while riding a bicycle. She attempted to break her fall with wn outstretched hand and suffered a fracture. In the ER, an examination revealed an inability to extend the hand at the wrist?

Midshaft of the humerus

127

A 12 year old boy fell out of a tree and fractured the upper portion of the humerus. Which of the following nerves are intimately related to the humerus and are most likely to be inured by such fracture?

Radial and Axillary

128

A 36 year old woman suffers a traumatic injury to the upper limb that lesions a nerve. The lesions results in an inability to spread and extend her fingers, and a "clawing" of the ring and little fingers. What two spinal cord segments contribute to the nerve that is damaged?

C8 and T1

129

Your patient has radial deviation of the hand at the wrist when he attempts to flex the wrist and altered sensation in the skin covering the hypothenar eminence.

Fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus

130

A patient with a severe tear of the medial collateral ligament of the wrist would most likely display which of the following increased wrist movements?

Abduction

131

A patient suffers a fracture of the SUPRACONDYLAR part of the humerus, which compresses a nerve and an accompanying artery

A hand of benediction

132

A 14 year old boy falls on the outstretched hand and has a fracture of the scaphoid bone. The fracture is most likely accompanied by a rupture of which of the following arteries

Radial

133

A man who works as a cartoonist begins to develop pain and paresthesia in his right hand at night. The altered sensation is most evident on the palmar aspects of the index and middle fingers

Atrophy of the thenar eminence

134

A 31 year old patient complains of sensory loss over the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial one and one half fingers. He is diagnosed by a physician as having "funny bone" symptoms. What nerve is injured?

Ulnar

135

A 23 year old woman receives a deep cut of her ring finger by a kitchen knife is unable to move the Metacarpopharyngeal joint. Which of the following pairs of nerves are damaged?

Ulnar and Radial

136

A 16 year old patient has weakness flexing the MCP joint of the ring finger and is unable to adduct the same finger. Which of the following muscles is most likely paralyzed?

Palmar interosseous

137

A male construction worker complaints of groin pain and a bulge that appears when he lifts heavy objects. When the patient lies down, the bulge disappears. A diagnosis of an Indirect hernia is made. Which of the following is characteristic of this type of hernia?

A. Has protruded through the anterior abdominal wall medial to the inferior epigastric vessels
B. May tear through the internal spermatic and cremaster in fascia that cover the spermatic cord
C. May pass posterior to the inguinal ligament into the anterior thigh
D. May pass through the superficial inguinal ring but not through the deep inguinal ring
E. Most likely covered by all of the same layers that cover the spermatic cord

E. Most likely covered by all of the same layers that cover the spermatic cord

138

During surgery, you must incise the anterior rectus sheath between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus. In this region, the sheath is derived from the aponeurosis of the ?

External and internal oblique

139

During a laparoscopic procedure, you observe the inferior epigastric vessels ascending on the posterior surface of the rectus abdominal muscle. They suddenly disappear from view by passing superior to the:

Arcuate line

( rectus abdominis is lateral to the umbilicus)

140

A surgeon entering the abdominal cavity through the abdominal wall will take care to avoid injury to the vessels and nerves within the wall. The main portion of these vessels and nerves will be found immediately deep to the?

Internal abdominal oblique muscle