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Immunology/Microbiology > Antibiotics TBL Quiz > Flashcards

Antibiotics TBL Quiz Flashcards

(83 cards)

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1
Q

MOA of penicillins

A

disruption of cell wall synthesis by binding PBPs and enzymes responsible for peptidoglycan synthesis

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2
Q

cephalosporin and cephamycins MOA

A

disruption of cell wall synthesis by binding PBPs and enzymes responsible for peptidoglycan synthesis

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3
Q

MOA of carbapenems

A

disruption of cell wall synthesis by binding PBPs and enzymes responsible for peptidoglycan synthesis

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4
Q

MOA of monobactams

A

bind PBPs and enzymes responsible for peptidoglycan synthesis

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5
Q

MOA of beta lactams

A

disruption of cell wall by beta lactamases and prevents the enzymatic inactivation of beta lactam

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6
Q

MOA of vancomycin

A

disruption of cell wall via inhibiting cross linkage of peptidoglycan layers

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7
Q

daptomycin MOA

A

causes depolarization of cytoplasmid membrane resulting in disruption of ion concentration gradients

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8
Q

bacitracin MOA

A

inhibits bacterial cytoplasmic membrane and movement of peptidolycan precursos

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9
Q

polymixins MOA

A

inhibits bacterial membrane synthesis

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10
Q

isoniazid MOA

A

inhibits mycolic aicd synthesis

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11
Q

ethionamide MOA

A

inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

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12
Q

ethambutol MOA

A

inhibits arabinogalactan synthesis

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13
Q

cycloserine MOA

A

inhibits cross linkage of peptidoglycan layers

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14
Q

what are the beta lactam antibiotics

A

penicillins, cephalosporins, cephamycins, carbapenems monobactams and beta lactamase inhibitors

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15
Q

Resistance mechanisms of beta lactam antibiotics

A

prevention of interaction between antibiotic and the target PBP
modification of the binding of the antibiotic to the PBP
hydrolysis of the antibiotic by bacterial enzymes (beta lactamases)

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16
Q

MOA of aminoglycosides

A

produces premature release of peptide chain from 30S ribosome

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17
Q

MOA of tetracyclines

A

prevents polypeptide elongation at the 30S ribosome

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18
Q

glycyclines MOA

A

binds the 30S ribosome and prevents initiation of protein synthesis

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19
Q

oxazolidonone MOA

A

prevents initiation of protein synthesis at the 50S riboosome

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20
Q

Macrolides MOA

A

prevent polypeptide elongation at the 50S ribosome

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21
Q

ketolides MOA

A

prevents polypeptide elongation at the 50S ribosome

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22
Q

clindamycin MOA

A

prevents polypeptide elongation at the 50S ribosome

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23
Q

streptogramins MOA

A

prevents polypeptide elongation at the 50S ribosome

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24
Q

quinolones MOA

A

binds with the alpha subunit of DNA gyrase

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25
MAO of rifampin and rifabutin
prevents transcription by byinding DNA dependent RNA polymerase
26
_______disrupts bacterial DNA
metronidazole
27
______-inhibits dihydropteroate synthase and disurpts folic acid synthesis
sulfonamides, dapsone and trimethoprim
28
the carbapenems include
imipenem, meropenem, ertapenem, and doripenem
29
monobactans include
aztreonam
30
monobactams are active against
aerobic, gram negative bacteria
31
______and _____are resistant to monobactans
anaerobes and gram positive bacteria
32
_____interacts with teh D alanine D alanine termini of the pentapeptide side chains
vancymycin
33
vancomycin is inactive against
gram neg.
34
_______has potent activity against gram positive bacteria but gram neg are resistant and disrupts the ionic gradients of the bacteria
daptomycin
35
_________is used for treatment of skin infections caused by gram positive bacteria
bacitracin
36
____________inhibits with dephosphorylation and the recycling of the lipid carrier responsible for moving the peptidoglycan precuorses through the cytoplasmic membrane
bacitrcin
37
_______insert into the bacterial membranes like detergents
polymyxins
38
___________, __________, _______- and _______are cell wall active antibiotics used for the treatment of mycobacterial infections
isoniazid, ethionamide, ethambutol and cycloserine
39
__________interferes with the synthesis of arabinogalactan in the cell wall
ethambutol
40
_______-inhibits D ala D ala synthetase and alanine racemase
cycloserine
41
resistance to isoniaxid, ethionamide, ethambutol and cycloserine results mainly from
reduced drug uptake into the bacterial cell or alteration of the target sites `
42
what are the two effects of binding to the 30 S ribosomal protein
production of aberrant proteins and interruption of protein synthesis causing the premature release of the ribosome from mRNA
43
_________is also known as spectinomycin and is active against what
aminocyclitol, Neisseria gonorrhoae
44
_________are used to treat infections with gram-negative rods
aminoglycosides
45
__________is the most active aminoglycoside
amikacin
46
_______and _________are used to treat enterococcal infections
streptomycin and gentamicin combined with cell wall active antibiotic
47
what type of aminoglycoside is active versus mycobacteria and selected gram neg rods
streptomycin
48
_____are broad spectrum antibiotics against gram pos bacteria and some gram negative , mycoplasmas, chlamydia, and richettsiae
tetracyclines (tetracycline, doxycycline, and minocycline)
49
aminoglycosides include
streptomycin, kanamycin, gentamycin, tobramycin and amikacin)
50
__________are more active against gram negative bacteria and rapidly growing mycobacteria
glycylcyclines (tigecycline)
51
_____________are active against staphylococcus, enterococcus, streptococcus, gram positive rods, and clostridium and anaerobic cocci; not active against gram neg bacteria
oxazolidinone
52
linezolid is an example of
oxazolidone
53
_______are broad spectrum antibiotics active against gram positive and some gram negative bacteria
macrolides (erthrymycin, azithromycin, clarithrymycin and roxithrymycin)
54
_________are broad spectrum antibiotic similar to macrolides that are active against macrolide resistant staphylcocci and enterococci
ketolides (telithromycin)
55
________are broad spectrum against aerobic gram positive cocci and anaerobes
lincoasmide (clindamycin)
56
__________-are active against gram positive bacteria, good activity against methicillin-susceptible and resistant staphylococci, streptoccci, vancomycin susceptible and resistant E. faecium, haemophilus, moraxella and anaerobes not active against enterobacteriacae or gram neg rods
streptogramins (quinopristin-dalfopristin)
57
aminoglycosides are considered
bactericidal
58
___are considered to be resistant to
aminolycosides
59
_________is considered to best for treatment of systemic infections caused by susceptible gram neg. bacteria that are resistant gentamicin and tobramycin
amikacin
60
what are the four ways resistance can develop for aminoglycosides
mutation of ribosomal binding site decreased uptake of antibiotic increased expulsion of antibiotic enzymatic modification of the antibiotic
61
most common cause of tetracycline resistance is
active efflux of tetracyclines from the cell
62
what species are generally resistant to tigecycline
proteus morganella providencia p aeruginosa
63
______blocks initiation of protein synthesis by interfering with formation of the initiation complex consisting of tRNA, mRNA and ribosome by binding to 50S ribosomal subunit
linezolid (oxazolidones)
64
_____has activity against ALL staph, strep, and enterococci
linezolid
65
___________has a broad antibacterial spectrum similar to that of tetracycline but is not commonly used in the US because it disrupts protein synthesis in human bone marrow and can produce blood dyscrasias such as aplastic anema
chloraamphenicol
66
____________bind to the 23 and 50S ribosomal subunit which blocks polypeptide elongation
macrolides
67
resistance to macrolides is from
methylation of the 23s rRNA, inactivation of the macrolides by enzymes or mutations in 23s rRNA ribosomal proteins
68
what type of bacteria are commonly resistant to macrolides
gram neg bacteria
69
examples of macrolides
erythromycin azithromycin clarithrymycin roxithrymycin
70
what is the name of the ketolide that is currently available in the US
telithromycin
71
_________binds to 50s ribosomal subunit and blocks protein synthesis
telithromycin
72
_________is a ketolide that has good resistance against staphylococci, s pneumoniae and other respiratory pathogens, gram pos rods and some anaerobes
telithrymycin
73
________-inhibits peptidyl transferse by interfering with the binding of amino acid acyl tRNA complex
clindamycin
74
_______binds to DNA dependent RNA polymerase and inhibits the initiation of RNA synthesis
rifampin
75
rifampin resistance results from
mutation in chromosomal gene that codes for the beta subunit of RNA polymerase
76
Rifabutin binds
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
77
produces cytotoxic compounds that disrupts the host DNA
metronidazole
78
_________compete with p aminobenzoic acid and prevent synthesis of folic acid
sulfonamides
79
_____-inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
trimethoprim
80
________ and ____________are antifolates that have proved to be useful for treating mycobacterial infections
dapsone and p-aminosalicylic acid
81
bacteria that use exogenous thymidine are
intrisically resistant to antimetabolites
82
__________is a lipophilic antibiotic that binds mycobacterial DNA
clofaziimine
83
___________is active against M tuberculosis at a low pH and mechanism is unkown
PZA

Immunology/Microbiology (10 decks)

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