Immunology Exam I Flashcards
(448 cards)
1
Q
when either of the three pathways of complement are activated what results…
A
inflammation
lyse certain infectious agents
opsonize infectious agents
clears immune complexes
2
Q
what activates the lectin pathway
A
mannan binding lectin binds CHO on bacteria
3
Q
what activates the alternative pathway
A
spontaneous lysis of C3 if binds to bacteria, initiates the pathway
4
Q
the classical pathway requires what Ig to bind
A
pentameric IgM or 2 molecules of IgG
5
Q
what is the molecule that binds to the microbial surface in the complement pathway
A
C3b
6
Q
what is opsonization
A
the coating of molecules with opsonins that help deliver bacteria to the phagocyte for destruction
7
Q
what molecules aid in opsinization
A
antibody IgG and complement C4b
8
Q
what are immune complexes
A
they are insoluble lattices that trigger inflammation and type III hypersensitivity reactions
9
Q
What disrupts immune complexes
A
C3b
10
Q
anaphylatoxins
A
cause degranulation of mast cells and basophils WITHOUT IgE
11
Q
_____________is a major chemotactic protein for inflammation
A
C5a
12
Q
What does MAC do ?
A
forms pores in molecules and lyses the cell
13
Q
MAC is critical for protection against
A
Neisseria infections
14
Q
MAC is not effective against
A
gram negative because of LPS
15
Q
deficiencies in the classical pathway c1q, c1r, c1s, c42 and c2 results in
A
increased immune complex diseases
increased infectious with pyogenic bacteria
16
Q
Deficiency in the alternative pathway factor B and properdin results in
A
nessierial infections
17
Q
deficiency in C3 results in
A
recurrent bacterial infections, immune complex disease
18
Q
deficiency in MAC
A
recurrent meningoccocal and gonococcal infections
19
Q
Deficiency in C1-INH results in
A
over missue use of C1,4,2 and presents with edema of mucosal surfaces
20
Q
what is a cytokine
A
a chemical messenger of the immune system; a low mw protein secreted by white blood cells in response to a stimulus
21
Q
autocrine action of cytokine
A
acts on the cell that secreted it
22
Q
paracrine action of cytokine
A
acts on a nearby cell
23
Q
endocrine
A
goes through the blood to act on a distant cell
24
Q
What are the four effects of cytokine signaling
A
pleiotropy, redundancy, syngergy, and antagnosim
25
pleiotropy
multiple functions
26
synnergy
better when together
27
anatognism
work against eachother
28
redudndancy
multiple cytokines with similar functions
29
what is the significant of gamma chian of IL2-R
IL2 and IL4 share the gamma chain of IL2
30
_______-causes T and B cell proliferation
IL2
31
_________causes B cells to make different antibodies (class switching)
IL-4
32
mutations in the gamma chian of IL-2R leads to
SCID
33
____________is used to treat HBV, HCV, and HHV-8
IFN-alpha
34
___________is used to treat MS
IFN-beta
35
_____________are both antiviral
IFN-alpha and beta
36
____________activates macrophages to stimulate intracellular killing and inhibits the TH2 Response
IFN-gamma
37
____________-is used to treat chronic granulamatous disease
IFN-gamma
38
Three actions of IFN-alpha and beta
resistance to viral replication, increase MHC class I expression, activates NK cells to kill virus infected cells
39
What are the three fever inducing cytokines
IL-1, IL-6 and TNF-alpha
40
Actions of the pyrogenic cytokines
activation of complement/ opsinization
phagocytosis
decreased viral and bacterial replication, increased ag processing, initiation of adaptive immune response
41
TNF-alpha is made by
macrophages, T cells and fibroblasts
42
TNF-beta is made by
actiated T and B cells
43
______________-can kill tumor cells
TNF-alpha
44
____________can inhibit TNF-alpha
monoclonal antibodies
45
____________-is used to treat chronic inflammatory diseases such as RA, chrons, and psoriasis
TNF-alpha inhibitors
46
what is the side effect of anti-TNF-alpha
increased susceptibility to diease
47
____________- and __________-are proinflammatory and induce the liver to make acute phase proteins and induce febrile response
IL1-6
48
______________stimulates hematopoiesis, acts on plasma cells to drive Ab production
IL6
49
IL-2 is made by
T cells
50
what type of regulation is IL-2 under
autocrine regulation
51
_____________stimulates growth and differentiation of T cells , B cells and NK cells
IL-2
52
_________________ and __________ are directed toward the alpha chain of IL-2R which blocks IL2
basilizimab and daclizumab
53
___________ has been found to have success of organ transplants and experimental treatment of leukemia and melanomas
IL2 treatment
54
____________-promotes class swithcing from IGM to IgE and IgG
IL-4
55
what inhibits IFN-gamma production
IL4
56
_______promotes class switching to IgA
IL-5
57
both IL4 and IL5 are made by
Th2 cells
58
____________induces eosinophil development and differentiation
IL-5
59
monoclonal antibodies against IL-4 are used to treat
serious allergies
60
______________is made by macrophages
IL10
61
__________downregulates pro-inflammatory cytokine production
IL-10
62
_________activates B cells promoting the TH2 response
IL-10
63
how is IL-12 made
primarily by macrophages
64
_______________induces differentiation of Th cells into Th1 cells
IL-12
65
IL-18 with IL-12
induce IFN-gamma from Th1 cells
66
_________is the first cytokine responsible for stimulating immune response
IL-12
67
______________-attact leukocytes to the site of inflammation
chemokines
68
IL8 is a chemokine that attracts
neutrophils
69
RANTEs atttracts
T cells and monocytes
70
Eotaxin attracts
eosinophils
71
____________are growth factors
IL3 and Il7
72
IL3
growth factor for WBC
73
IL7
growth factor for lymphocytes (B and T cells)
74
G-CSF
essential for neutrophils
75
___________ is used to boost immunity during chemotherapy
GM-CSF
76
________________is used to boot immunity prior to bone marrow transplant
G-CSF
77
___________--is used to treat anemia
EPO
78
What cytokines are secreted by TH1 cells
IL-2,and IFN-gamma
79
What cytokines are secreted by macrophages
IL-8, 10, 12, TNF-alpha, GCSF, GM-CSF
80
what cytokines are secreted by Th2
IL4,5,6
81
what cell funxtions in both adaptive and innate immunity
NK cell
82
what are three ways why adaptive immunity shows up
physical bariers failed
innate immunity is unable to clear the infection
preventative step
83
what is the time frame for adaptive immunity
days versus hours for innate immune system
84
how is specificy generated ?
clonal selection
85
what is the main antibody for the primary response
IGM and later IgG
86
what is the main antibody for the secondary response
IgG
87
passive artifical immunity
transfer of antibodies to a patient
88
what cells are responsible for the adaptive immune response
small lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes
89
CD3 is associated with what cells
T cells and T cell receptor
90
B cells are responsible for attacking invaders ______-the cells
outside
91
T cells are responsible for attacking invaders_______inside the cell
inside
92
what cells are responsible for secreting antibodies
plasma cells
93
Th1 activates what types of cells
Tc and macrophages
94
Th2 activates what types of cells
B cells
95
where does lymph end up going
left subclavian vein
96
does lymph have valves
yes (one way valves)
97
is lymph have a pumping system
moves via movement of muscles
98
What are the two primary lymphoid organs
bone marrow and thymus
99
what are the secondary lymphoid organs
MALT CALT, spleen and lymph nodes
100
__________________ is where lymphocyte development and maturation occurs
primary lymphoid organs
101
______________________is where the lymphocyte interacts with the antigen
secondary lymphoid organ
102
What occurs in the thymus
T cell development and selection
103
What is DiGeorge's syndrome
congenital birth defect, failure of the thymus to develop, absence of circulating T cells, increased # of infections
104
When is the thymus the largest ?
puberty
105
____________is the major site of hematopoiesis
bone marrow
106
where do B cells develop and mature
in the bone marrow
107
what structure is the first lymph tissue to encounter antigen ?
lymph nodes
108
What cells are responsible for trapping antigen traveling through the lymph node
phagocytic and dendritic cells
109
What are the two major parts of the spleen ?
red pulp and white pulp
110
______________is responsible for trapping blood borne antigens
spleen
111
____________________is the formation and development of red and white blood cells from stem cells
hematopoeisis
112
Where does hematopoeisis begin ?
it begins in the yolk sac and then migrates to the fetal liver and spleen
113
where is the major site of hematopoesis after birth until death
bone marrow
114
all lymphoid cells are derived from___________
pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells
115
_____________-cells are resistant to radiation
PHSC
116
What is important to know before a BM transplant can occur
MHC compatability to prevent graft rejection
117
Stem cells can be used to treat what two diseases
SCID and ADA deficieny
118
_________are recognized by monoclonal antiodies
Clutster of differentiations
119
what is the marker for Th
CD4
120
what is the marker for TC
CD8
121
whta is the marker for all T cells
CD3
122
whatis the marker for macrophages
CD14
123
What is the markers for NK cells
CD16, CD56
124
what are the markers for all B cells
CD19, 20, 21
125
what are the markers for stem cells
Cd34
126
What are the lymphoid cells /
B T and NK
127
what are the granulocyte cells
neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells
128
mononuclear cells inlcude
macrophages
granulocutes
dendritic cells
129
What cell makes up the majority of adult blood counts ?
neutrophils
130
what is the term associated a B or T cells have not yet come in contact with antigen
Naive Cells
131
Th1 cells activate
Tc and Macrophages
132
Th2 cells activate
B cells
133
NK cells have receptors for
Ab-ADCC
134
Chediak-Higashi
no NK cells and have increased incidence of lymphomas
135
macrophages in the lung are called
alveolar macrophages
136
macrophages in CT are
histiocytes
137
macrophages in the liver are called
kupfer cells
138
macrophages in the kidney are called
mesangial cells
139
macrophages in the brain are called
microglial cells
140
activated macrophages have....
increased phagocytic abilities, increased ability to activate Th and high levels of class II MHC on the surface
141
what cell is first at the site if inflammation
neutrophil
142
cells that have phagocytic capabilites, play a major role in parsites and secrete granules that damage the parasite membrane
eosinphils
143
________are non phagocytic and release pharmacoligcally active substances contained within granules and are involved in the allergic response
basophils
144
______--are precursors formed in the bM during hepatopoeisis and play a role in allergies
mast cells
145
_______________express high levels of class II MHC and B7
dendritic cells
146
langerhan cells are found in
epidermis and mucous membranes
147
interstitial dendritic cells are found in
most organs
148
interdigitating cells are found in
T cell zones of secondary lymph tissue and thymic medulla
149
__________-are found in the blood
circulating dendritic cells
150
_____________are found exclusively in the follicles of the lymph nodes
follicular dendritic cells
151
characteristics of follicular dendritic cells
don't express class II MHC, don't function as APC for Th cell activation, have many receptors and bind Ag-Ab complexes and play a role in the formation of memory b cells
152
cells of the innate immune system include
phagocytes
153
cells of the adaptive immune system include
lymphocytes
154
what cells are concidered phagocytes ?
neutrophils, macrophages, eosinophils, and basophils
155
what are the receptors on macrophages
CR3, CR4, (complment) and CD14 (LPS receptor), and toll receptors
156
what are the receptors on neutrophils
toll receptors, CR3,4 (compplement), CD14 and Fmet peptide receptors
157
phagocytes have receptors for what two things that greatly enhance their phagocytic capability
IgG and C3b
158
What does NADPH oxidase make
toxic oxygen radicals
159
what does myeloperoxidase make
hypochlorite (bleach)
160
Il1-beta
activates endothelium lymphocytes and local tisue destruction and increases access to affector cells, produces systemicaly fever and production of IL-6
161
Function of IL-6
lymphocyte activation and increased antibody production
162
cytokines secreted by macrophages
IL-1 Beta, TNF-alpha, IL-6, CXCL8,IL-12
163
rolling of wbc's is done by
selectins
164
tight binding of wbcs in inflammation is done by
integrins
165
vasciular endothelium receptors for rolling adhesion
p and e selectin
166
neutrophil receptors for rolling adhesion
sialyl lewis carbohydrates on wbc
167
vascular endothelium for tight binding
ICAM-1
168
Neutrophils receptors for tight binding
LFA-1 and CR3
169
IL-8 and IL-1 are
proinflammatories
170
_____________ and__________directly inhibit viral replication
IFN-alpha and IFN-beta
171
________is produced by fibroblasts
IFN-beta
172
_________is produced by leukocytes
IFN-alpha
173
Functions of IFN-alpha and IFN-beta
induce resistance to viral replication
increase MHC class I expression
activate NK cells to kill viruses
174
CD expressed on NK cells
16 and 56
175
activation of NK cells leads to
degranulation via perforin
176
NK cells kill what type of cells
have decreaed MHC class I expression on them
177
the major line of defense against bacteria or extracellular pathogens is
antibodies
178
three main functions of antibodies
opsonization
neutralization
antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)
179
basic structure of the antibody includes how many light chains and how many heavy chains
2 heavy and 2 light
180
what are the two domains of the light chains
1C and 1V
181
what are the domains of the heavy chains
1V and 3-4 C
182
What is the region of the antibody that binds the Ag
variable region (Fab)
183
how many antigen can the variable region bind
2
184
What does the constant region of the antibody function in
complement activation
| opsonization, and crossing the placenta
185
what region of the antibody determines its function
Fc or constant region
186
What type s of bonds hold the antibody chains together
disulfide bonds
187
heavy chains have how many classes
5
188
light chains have how many classes
2
189
what joints to form the heavy chain
V,D, and J
190
what joints to form the light chains
V and J
191
which chain rearranges first (heavy or light chain)
heavy chain THEN light chain
192
what are the genes called that are responsible for DNA rerangement ?
RAG 1 and RAG 2
193
what is the first antibody that is made
IgM
194
what are some functions of IgG
opsonization
| ADCC, activation of classical complement and can cross the placenta
195
which antibody can cross the placenta
IgG
196
what antibody is predonimnant antibody in the serum
IgG
197
What antibody predominates in the secondary immune response
IgG
198
what is the predominant antibody during the primary immune response
IgM
199
first antibody made in neonates
IgM
200
activates classical complement pathway
IgM
201
pentameric in serum
IgM
202
high avidity but low affinity
IgM
203
the predominant antibody in secretion s
IgA
204
secretion present as a dimer
IgA
205
protected in secrety by a secreotry piece
IgA
206
found in low levels in the plasma cells and binds mast cells and basophils
IgE
207
functions in type I hypersensitivity reactions
Ige
208
antigen receptor is on B cells
IgD
209
which two antibodies have the naive B cell Ag receptor
IgM and IgD
210
which antibody opsonizses
IgG
211
which antibody functions in ADCC
IgG
212
which antibody is transported across the placenta
IgG
213
which antibodys have memory B cell Ag receptot
IgG, IgA and IgE
214
which antibody triggers mast cell granule release
IgE
215
if cells in the bone marrow express rag, tdt, MHC II, and CD19, 20,21 and 40 which types of B cells are they
ProB and PreB
216
Which cells express Tdt
Prob B and Preb B
217
Cd19, CD20, CD21, and CD40 are expressed on
all developing B cells
218
memory B cells express ___________ __________ and _____________on their cell surfaces
IgG, IgA, and IgE
219
what are the 3 important things that happen in the germinal centers ?
```
class switching, plasma or memory cell formation
and somatic hypermutation
```
220
_____________interaction is essential for class switching
CD40/CD40L
221
the second signal in B cell activation includes
helper Th2 cell via the cd40 ligand and cytokines
222
IL4 is responsible for class swithcing of
IgG and IGE
223
IL5 is responsible for class swithcing to
IGA
224
_______is a coreceptor that functions in B cell activation
CD19
225
Antigen dependent B cell development involves 3 important events
class switching
plasma/memory cell formation
affinity maturation
226
somatic hypermutations
point mutations, deletions, or insertions into the V,D, or J region of rearranged Ig genes
227
class I letters
ABC
228
class II leters
DP, DQ, AND DR
229
function of HLA
bind antigenic peptides and present them to T cells
230
HLA class II
extracellular bacteira, exogenous Ag
231
HLA class I
endogenous antigens (viral)
232
____________is expressed on all nucleated cells
class I HLA
233
composition of HLA
3 alpha chian and Beta 2 microglobulin
234
length of amino acids taht can bind class I HLA
8-10 amino acids in length
235
_________is required for proper folding of the molecule
B2 microglobulin
236
what combines to form the antigen binding cleft of HLA 1
alpha 1 and alpha 2
237
class II HLA expressed on
APCS
238
APCs consist of
macrophages, dendritic cells and B cells
239
composition of HLA class II
composed of an alpha and beta chian
240
size of amino acids in length that bind HLA Class II
12-15 aa
241
what combines to form the peptide binding cleft
alpha 1 and beta 1
242
what is responsible for making the viral peptides shorter
proteosomes
243
what transports the HLA molecules into the cytoplasm
TAP 1 and TAP 2
244
how do we prevent endogenous peptides from binding into the peptide binding groove of class II
the invariant chain
245
the majority of diseases associatied with HLA problems are found to be assocaited with
Class II
246
what viruses can decrease MHC expression
CMV, HBV, and adenovirus
247
what are the two significant things that distinguishes TCR from BCR
TCR is never secreted and TCR must recognize antigen and MHC and NOT FREE antigen
248
what does the TCR resemble
FAB fragment
249
__________is the signaling molecule for T cells
CD3
250
the cortex of the thymus includes
immature lymphocytes and nurse cells (specilized epithelial cells)
251
the meduall of the thymus includes
mature thymocytes and cells that survived selection
252
selection occurs where in the thymus
cortex
253
in the subcapsular region you find
immature double negative thymocytes
254
in the cortex you find
immature double positive thymocytes
255
in the medulla you find
mature thymocytes
256
positive selection
ensures that the alpha and beta TCR's expressed in a given individual will bind the self MHC
257
negative selection
ensures that thymocytes bearing high affinity for self MHC or self ag+ self MHC are removed from the repertoire
258
what cells constitutiely express B7
dendritic cells
259
macrophages can expres B7 if
activated by IFN-gamma
260
B7 on the APC interacts with
CD28 on the helper T cell
261
what is the function of CTLA-4
it downregulates B7-CD28
262
macrophages secrete
IL1-6 and tNF-alpha
263
Th cells express____that alters gene expression
IL2 receptor
264
super antigens
viral or bacterial proteins that bind particular Vbeta regions of TCR and alpha regions of MHC OUTSIDE of the peptide binding cleft
265
__________inhibits the Th2 response
IFN-gamma
266
__________inhibits the TH1 response
IL-4 and IL-10
267
what cells are often the targets for infection with intracellular pathogens
macrophages
268
interaction between Fas and Fas L causes
apoptosis
269
CD markers for CTL
TCR, Cd2,3,and 8
270
effector molecules of CTL
perforin, granzymes, TNF-beta, and IFN-gamma
271
primary lymphoid organs are ?
bone marrow and the thymus
272
cell name that is the only cell capable of activating the naive T cells
interdigitating dendritic cells
273
do FDC's express MHC class II
NO!
274
what is the function of FDC's
retain immune complexes and help in the formation of immune complexes
275
can FDC's present and process Ag
NO!
276
What are the two receptors on FDC's
complement and Antibody receptors
277
if Ag enters the GI or respiratory tract the Ag will be cleared by
MALT
278
if Ag enters the blood the Ag will be cleared by
spleen
279
if Ag enters the tissue the Ag will be cleared by
lymph nodes
280
the T cells are found in what compartment of the lymph node
paracortex
281
the B cells are found in what compartment of the lymph node
cortex
282
composition of germinal centers
FDC's and dividing B cells
283
where are plasma cells and memory cells generated
germinal centers
284
what is the name of the artery that carries Ag to spleen
splenic artery
285
Where are B cells found in the spleen
marginal zone arranged in follicles
286
Where are T cells found in the spleen
surround the artery in the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS)
287
the flow of B and T cells through the secondary lymphoid tissues is directed by cell adhesion molecules (CAMS's and
specialized endothelial cells called High endothelial venules (HEV's)
288
___________use HEV to recirculate through the secondary lymphoid tissues
Naive lymphocytes
289
what is the cell marker that the lymphocyte binds to on the vascular endothelium /
CD34
290
When lymphocyte binds Cd34 what does it activate
Beta 2 integrins which change the conformation, bind ICAM
291
what happens when your missing CD18
you get LAD
292
LAD is characterisized by
recurrent bacterial infections and impaired wound healing
293
primary immunodeficiencies are
inherited
294
__________is the primary means for removal of extracellullar bacteria from the body
phagocytosis
295
what is the happmakr of phagocyticic deficiencies
recurrent bacterial or fungal infections (s. aureus, pneumoniae, ecoli, pseudomonas, candida, aspergillus)
296
________is a mutation in NADPH oxidase
chronic granulmatous diseaes
297
hallmarks of CGD
severe and recurrent infections with Catalase positive organisms
298
infections if unresolved in CGD result in
granulomas
299
CGD is treated with
antibiotics and IFN-gamma
300
what is NTR test
tests for active NADPH oxidase (negative in CGD)
301
______is results in the absence of CD18
leukocyte adhesion deficiency
302
hallmarks of LAD
chronic bacterial infections no abscess and no pus formation, severe gum inflammation
303
treatment for LAD
bone marrow transplant, antibiotics, and IFN-gamma
304
_______________ affects the synthesis and maintenance of storage granules in many cell types including neutrophils, melanocytes, monocytes and NK cells
chediak higashi
305
what is the result of chediak higashi syndrome
phagocytosed material is NOT delivered to the lysosomes because of fusion defect
306
Halkmarks of CH syndrome
recurrent bacteirial
no NK activity
albinism because of melanocytes
307
treatment for CH
BMT and high dose of gamma globulins IgG's
308
Job Syndrome
TH1 cells can't make IFN-gamma, PMN's don't respond to chemotactic stimuli; course facies, cold abscess, retain primary teeth, increaed IgE
309
C3 deficiency
defects in opsonization, chemotaxis, clearance of immune complexes and lysis, increased susceptiblity and severity to pyogenic bacteria
310
C1inh deficiency that leads to uncontrolled activation of the classical pathway, overproduction of C2 (vasoactive)-edema
hereditary angioedema
311
B cells deficiencies are characterized by
recurrent bacterial infections with normal immunity to virus and fungal parasites
312
results in NO B cells and is a mutation in a tyrosine kinase
X linked Agammaglobulinemia
313
patients with X linkged agammaglobulinemia have difficulty qith
encapsulated bacteria like the flu
314
----------results when there is a mutation in CD40L on T cells
Hyper IgM syndrome (HIM)
315
what Immunoglobulins are missing in HIM
IgA, G and E
316
presents in late teens and early 20's, can't differentiate into plasma cells, patients presentwith recurrent bacteiral infections
common arialbe immunodeficieincy
317
_______________is delyaed onset of normal IgG synthesis usually seen in the 5th or 6th month of life, pts have recurrent respiraotry infections
transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy
318
what is the most common immunodeficiency
selective IgA deficiency
319
what is the deficiency in bruton X linked hypo-gamma globulinemia
deficiency of a tyrosine kinase blocks B cell maturation
320
deficiency of X linked hyper IgM syndrome
deficiency of Cd40 L
321
in _______________there is absence of thymus, cardiovascular abnormlaities, and characteristic facial features recurrent infections with intracellular pathogens
DiGeorge's syndrome
322
_______is an autosomal recessive mutation that prohibits the expressionof class II MHC therefore TH cells can't develop
Bare lymphocyte syndrome
323
what is MHC class I deficiency
failure of TAP1 molecules to transport peptides to the ER
324
__________is a defect in the common gamma of IL-2 receptor or Adenosine deaminase that results in chronic diarrhea, skin mouth and throat lesions, opportunistic infections and cells unresponsie to mitoens
SCID
325
one does deficiency in Rag 1 or Rag 2 result in
SCID
326
__________is a mutation in leukosialin (CD43) responsible for actin filament assembly and cytoskeletal rearrangemnt necessary for T cell signaling resulting in THROMBOCYTOPENIA, ECZEMA, AND IMMUNODEFICIENCY
wISCOTT alDRISH SYNDROME
327
____________________ is a mutation in a cell cycle kinase resulting in broken capillaries of the eye and difficulting maintaining balance
ataxia telangiesctasia
328
people with ataxia telangiestsa have deficiencies in
IgA and IgE
329
vaccination
to induce a protective immune response against an infectious agent without causing harm to the patient
330
________-is to induce Ab and activated T cells to protect the those from FUTURE infection
memory
331
what is used for killed and inactivated vaccines
formalin or heat
332
advantages of killed and inactivated vaccines
safe
333
disadvatnages of killed/inactivated vaccines
needs large amounts, not as strong of an immune response and will probably need boosters
334
what is a live attentuated vaccine
genetic mutations are induced, grown in non-human animal hosts
335
advantages of live attenutaetd vaccine
capable of replication, reach the anatomical site, strongly immunogenic
336
disadvatnage of live attenuated vaccine
revert back to virulent form, contraindicated for immunodeficient population
337
what type of vaccine requires boosters
killed or inactivated
338
which vaccine can revert
attenuated
339
type of immunity that is induced for attenuated
humoral and cell mediated
340
type of immunity that is induced for killed
humoral
341
________________utilizes an antigenic portion of the organism
subunit
342
______-are inactivated toxins
toxoids
343
__________outer surface protein vaccine such as for Hep B
surface antigen
344
what is a subunit capsule vaccine
polysaccharide conjugated to a protein
345
____________is a substance that is found to Ag to illicit a stronger immuune response
adjuvant
346
what is the adjuant commonly used for humans
alum
347
what are the four routes for vaccine delivery
oral, intranasal, subcutaneous, and intramuscular
348
adenovirus affects _________ and the type of vaccine given is __________ and commonly given to
respiratory infection
oral live attenuated
military personel
349
hepatits A and B is a ________ and the type of vaccine is a __________
hepatitis
| subunit surface antigen
350
HPV type of vaccine is
subunit outer coat protein
351
influenza type of vaccine is
Nasal- live attenuated or Intramuscular- killed
352
japanense encephalitis type of accine
killed, given to travelers
353
measels, mumps and rubella type of vaccine and important notes
live attenuated and contraindicated in pregnany women, and AIDS patients
354
Polio vaccine
OPV-live attenuated
| SALK IPV-killed *US
355
rabies vaccine
killed vacine; only given to at risk individuals
356
rotavirus results in _________ and is a ______type of vaccine
diarrhea
| oral live attenuated
357
shingles
live attenuated , adults greater than 60 years old
358
small pox
live attenuated
359
varicella
live attenuated contraindicated in pregnant women and AIDS patients
360
yellow fever
live attenuated given to travelres
361
what is herd immunity
when the majority of the population has immunity and thus protects the minority of the population that is NOT immune
362
what is a definition of hypersensitivity
failure of the immune system that are unwarranted and harmful to the host
363
What is the effector cell in type I hypersensitivty
IgE
364
wwhat is the effector cells in type II and type III hypersentiivty
IgM and IgG
365
what are the effector cells in type IV hypersensitivity
T cells (48 hours) delyaed type hypersensitivyt
366
what distinguishes a type 1 HS reaction from a NORMAL IR
the secretion of IgE from plasma cells
367
when does degranulation occur in a type I hypersensitivity reaction /
after cross linking but that only occurs after a 2nd exposure
368
what is the significant of IGE bound to FcR
it can remain stable for weeks to months as opposed to 2-3 days when not bound
369
where are mast cells found
mucosa and epithelial surfaces lining body surfaces
370
what is the response when APCc present allergen to Th cells
Th2 response and eleated IgE
371
what two cytokines are responsible for stimulating the B cell to produce IgE
Il-4 and Il-13
372
What does the granules consist of in mast cells
HISTAMINE, heparin, TNF-alpha, proteases, degradative enzymes and ECF and NCF (recruits the eosinophils and neutrophils)
373
what is the action of histamine
induces vascular permeability and evenutally causes inflammation and causes smooth muscle contraction (constricts airways and increases secretions of mucus)
374
what are some secondary meidators of type I
```
platelt activating factor
IL4
prostaglandins
leuotrienes
effects of these are more potent and longer lasting
```
375
what is the function of PAF
chemotactic for leukocytes and activates neutrophils, eosinphils, and platelets
376
what is heparin
anticoagulant
377
action of porstaglandin
increased smooth muscle contraction and vascular permeability
378
leukotriene
increased smooth muscle contraction and permeability
379
leukotriene
chemotactic for neutrophils
380
systemic anaphylaxis
occurs when allergens enter the blood
381
organ specific anaphylazis
occursn when allergens affect target organs
382
What happens when you have systemic anaphylaxis
```
wide spread MAST cell activation
increased VP
constriction of SM
drop in BP
organ systems damaged
mortality usually from airway constriction and epiglottal swelling
```
383
what is the most common allergen associated with systemic anaphylazis
peniciliin (although insect stings peanuts and brazil nuts are also common)
384
What does epinephrine do
```
stimulates reformation of tight junctions
reduces permeability
prevents fluid loss in blood
decreases swellin
increass BP
```
385
difference between type II and type III hypersensitivities
type II antivodies binding to cells or tissues
| type III immune complex mediated destruction of tissues
386
which hypersensitivty is associated with a ribbon like or linear deposition of antibodies
type II
387
which hypersensitivity is associated with a granular or lumpy bumpy kidney
type III
388
type II hypersensitivity causes
local complement activation
influx of leukocytes
tissue destruction via ADCC and degrantion and oxygen radicals
389
examples of type II HS
drugs, transfusion reactions, erythroblastosis fetalis graft rejection, grave's disease and myasthenia gravis
390
what is graves diseases
IgG autoantibodies are formed against the TSH receptor, uregulated production of thyroid hormones
391
__________is caused by high levels of circulating immune complexes
type III hypersensitivity
392
the common subunit associated with Gm-CSF is
beta subunit
393
the common subunit associated with IL-6 is
gp130 subunit
394
common subunit of IL-2 is
common gamma subunit
395
mutations in the gamma chain if IL-2 results in
SCID
396
What is the common factor in IL-2 and IL-4
the share the gamma chain of IL-2R
397
the pyogenic cytokines have what effect on the liver
induces the liver to produce acute phase proteins which help in activation of complement and opsonization
398
the pyogenic cytokines have what effect on the bone marrow epithelium
neutrophil mobilization
399
the pyogenic cytokines have what effect on the hypothalamus
increased body temperature resulting in decreased viral and bacterial replication, increased ag processing
400
the pyogenic cytokines have what effect on fat and muscle
protein and energy mobilization to generate increased body temperature resulting in decreased viral and bacterial repication and increased ag processing
401
what is the effect of TNF-alpha on dendritic cells
stimulates the migration to lymph nodes and maturation
402
what are the target cells or tisues for IL-1
Th cells, hepatocytes and hypothalamus
403
what are the target cells or tissues for IL-6
b cells
hepatocyes
hypothalamus
404
IFN alpha and beta are secreted by
leukocytes and fibroblasts
405
anti IL6 receptor is used to treat
Rheumatoid arthritis
406
IL1 is secreted by
monocytes
macrophages
dendritic cells and endothelial cells
407
total magnification=
objective times ocular lens
408
does brightfield microscopy show viruses ?
NO but shows most bacteria
409
dark field microscopy is used for
thin bacteria (spirochetes) such as treponema pallidum, borrelia, leptospira spp.
410
phase contrast microscopy
shows internal details of the microbes (CD image)
411
what type of microscopy is used for viral particles
Electron microscopy
412
TEM
electrons pass through specimen
413
SEM
electrons boundce off surface for #d image
414
_____________detect, locate, quantify specific nucleic acid sequences in clinical specimens
DNA probes
415
DNA probes are currently used to diagnose what things
CMV, chlyamydia, gonorrhoea, trichomonas, yeast TB
416
what is the technique used for dagnosing cancer and typing HLA's
DNA probes
417
how do you calculate PCR amplication
2 to the n
418
what is the diagnostic test for HIV
RT-PCR
419
which test is more sensitive than DNA probes
PCR
420
PCr is mainly used for
HIV, HSV, HPV and Hantaviruses and MRSA
421
What is RFLP used for
helps identify the spread of pathogens between pts. and distinguish HSV1 from HSV2
422
_________is used to identify specific protein in a mixture
western blotting
423
What is THE definitive test to confirm diagnosis of HIV
western blot
424
________________is used to detect changes in protein concentration
western blot densitometry (it is more qualitative than quantitative)
425
____________can test or screen for large number of organisms
microarrays
426
precipitation reactions test for
immune complexes
427
agglutination reactions test for
clumping
428
RBC's and latex beads is an example of
agglutination reactions
429
RBC agglutination is used to test for
EBC and ABO blood groups
430
Latex beads agglutination is used for
diagnosis of CSF infections
431
what is important in precipitation reactions
ab must be bivalent and Ag must be bipolyvalent, cause type III hypersensitivity reactions
432
_______-is the inverse of greatest dilution of pt serium that retains activity
titer (1:64- titer of 64)
433
in precpiptation reactions what is held constant
antibody
434
excess ______________inhibits agglutination reactions
ab
435
flow cytommetry used in
typing HLA, cancer detection and immune disorder screening
436
bacillus anthracis causes ______- and the type of vaccine is
antrax, subunit toxoid
437
corynebacterium diptheria causes ____-and the type of vaccine is
diptheria, subunit toxoid
438
H influenxae type V causes _______- and the type of vaccine is
meningitis, subunit capsule
439
neisseria meningitidis causes _________and the type of vaccine is
meningitis, subunit capsule
440
B pertussus causes ________and the type of baccine is
whooping cough, subunit toxoid, fimbriae
441
S. pneumoniae type of baccine
subunit capsule
442
clostridium tetani
subunit toxoi
443
S. tymphi causes ________-- and the type of vaccine is
subunit-capsule
| oral live, attenuated (given to travelers)
444
mycobacterium tuberculosis
live attenuated BCG
445
if you lose the beta subunit what cytokines do you lose
Gm-CSF, IL3 and IL6
445
v cholerae
subunit toxoid
446
if you lose the g130 subunit you lose
Il-6 and IL11
447
if you lose the gamma subunit
you lose IL2,5,7,9 and 4
