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ATA 23 Communications Flashcards

(85 cards)

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1
Q

Where are the AMU, HDR, VDR, Selcal decoder and SATCOM (if installed) located?

A

80VU

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2
Q

Which databus do the RMPs use to communicate with the radio communication transceivers?

A

ARINC429

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3
Q

Which radio system does the ATSU use for communication?

A

VHF3

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4
Q

What are the dialog buses used for with regards to RMPs?

A

Each RMP periodically transmits its context on its dialog bus to the other RMPs

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5
Q

Why do the RMPs receive a discrete from the LGCIUs?

A

Increment the fault memories in case of CFDIU failure

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6
Q

Which RMPs receive discretes from which LGCIUs?

A

LGCIU1 - RMP1

LGCIU2 - RMP2 & RMP3

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7
Q

How is the failure of any RMP indicated?

A

Blanking of the displays

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8
Q

What must be done when a RMP fails and why?

A

Must be switched off

When selected off, the RMP sends a discrete signal for system reconfiguration

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9
Q

What should be done if there is a communication failure on CAPT or F/O channels?

A

Audio switching selector can be used

CAPT 3 position - CAPT will use the 3rd occupant ACP, 3rd occupant audio equipment cannot be used

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10
Q

How does a PA signal get from the flight deck to the cabin?

A

AMU > CIDS director > DEU

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11
Q

What indication will there be if the audio switching selector is transferring CAPT or F/O audio?

A

ECAM memo “AUDIO 3 XFRD” displayed in green

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12
Q

Explain the muting function within the AMU?

A

Installed to avoid acoustic coupling between the loudspeakers and the microphones

When a transmission is keyed by any PTT, a ground signal is delivered to the two loudspeaker amplifiers

Ground signal decreases the gain and band-pass of the loudspeaker amplifiers

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13
Q

What audio output is the muting function not operative with?

A

FWC

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14
Q

Where are the HF couplers (if fitted)?

A

Rear galley ceiling area, forward of rear pressure bulkhead

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15
Q

What might be indicated in the ACTIVE window of RMP3 apart from a frequency?

A

‘DATA’ or ‘ACARS’

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16
Q

What is the default tuning and port of VHF system 3?

A

ATSU on port A

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17
Q

How is offside tuning indicated on the RMP?

A

‘SEL’ light illuminates on both of the RMPs

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18
Q

In what form does the frequency information reach the VHF transceiver?

A

Serial 32-bit word

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19
Q

What message is there that continuous transmission of a VHF or HF is occurring?

A

ECAM displays in amber ‘COM: VHF 1/2 EMITTING’

HF message is similar

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20
Q

What role does the SDAC play in VHF and HF communications?

A

Receives PTT signal and sends this information to the ECAM and the DFDR

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21
Q

In what form does the frequency information reach the HF transceiver?

A

Single serial 32-bit word for 1 kHz spacing, or

Two serial 32-bit words for 100 Hz and 1 kHz spacing

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22
Q

What are the two modes of operation of the HF transceiver?

A

Upper Side Band (USB)

AM

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23
Q

How does the HF system overcome problems of skip when transmitting ACARS data?

A

Uses position data from ADIRUs and time of day to choose the best frequency for a specific geographic location

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24
Q

How does the DRMP interface with the AMU?

A

Via ethernet buses

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25
With regards to failures of DRMPs, what has been removed and what does this mean should a failure occur?
Audio switching panel has been removed, so failed DMRP has to be switched off so that DMRP can be used by the flight crew
26
How is a SELCAL input indicated and how is this cancelled?
CALL light, corresponding to the communication channel used, flashes amber, and FWCs send an audio call buzzer to the loudspeakers Call is cancelled using the RESET key on one ACP or selecting the called channel and activating PTT
27
How many static dischargers may be missing from each area?
20%
28
What are the three segments in the SATCOM system?
* User * Space * Ground (control in GPS)
29
What is the SATCOM used for?
* ATC * AOC
30
In what frequency band is SATCOM used?
L-band
31
When does SATCOM operate?
When aircraft is electrically supplied (in all flight phases)
32
What is the ethernet connection on the face of the Satellite Data Unit for?
Data loading using a specialised laptop
33
Describe the IRIDIUM SATCOM antenna?
Low-gain omnidirectional passive antenna
34
How many RF channels are required to accommodate the full range of voice and data services? [SATCOM]
A set of four
35
Describe the Inmarsat SATCOM antenna?
Intermediate gain antenna is an electrically steerable phased array Includes an internal Low Noise Amplifier/Diplexer
36
Why does the Inmarsat SATCOM interface with the ADIRUs?
To provide the Beam Steering Unit (BSU) with relative azimuth and relative elevation command Lets the steerable beam pointing of the IGA for optimum reception and transmission
37
How many hours of flight crew conversations and communications and aural warnings will the CVR record?
2 hours
38
When does the CVR record automatically?
On ground when at least 1 engine is running, and For 5 minutes after the last engine is shut-down
39
What does the CVR record in normal mode?
1. CAPT through AMU 2. F/O through AMU 3. 3rd occupant through AMU 4. Ambient noise, supplied through a pre-amplifier 5. ATIMS text messages from ATC
40
When is the CVR automatically provided power?
* In flight with engines in operation or stopped * On the ground with one engine or more in operation * On the ground during the first five minutes of energising the aircraft electrical network * On the ground until a maximum of five minutes after the second engine shutdown
41
What conditions are required to allow CVR erasure?
* Aircraft on the ground * Parking brake applied * Right and left MLG shock absorbers compressed
42
For how long must RCDR CVR ERASE P/BSW be pressed to allow CVR erasure?
5 seconds
43
Which microphones are 'HOT' with regards to the CVR?
* All flight crew boom microphones at all times * Oxygen masks when the oxygen pressure switch is closed * Hand microphones only when the PTT switch on the microphone is activated
44
Why does the ELT transmit on 3 frequencies?
Homing signals for civil, military and to satellite systems
45
What is the local user terminal receiving range?
2.5 km
46
What happens when the local user terminal is not in receiving range? [ELT]
Satellite system stores the distress signal until transmission is possible
47
What is the precision of the position for the aircraft which is processed by a local user terminal? [ELT]
Radius of approximately 1.8 km
48
Where is the ULB installed (not attached to the CVR)?
In the aft or bulk cargo compartment
49
At what depth of sea-water is the ULB (not attached to the CVR) resistant to?
6096 m (20000 ft)
50
Where are the CIDS directors located?
80VU
51
What is on the connection box of the last DEU on a data bus and why?
Bus Terminating Resistor (BTR) for impedance matching
52
Which DEUs are connected to the middle line data bus?
DEU B
53
What is the maximum number of DEU As?
16
54
How will the DEU As be affected by a broken wire in the databus lines?
DEU A downstream of the open circuit will not operate, but those upstream will DEU As on other side of aisle will work without any issues, but speakers will increase volume so that PAs are heard on the other side
55
What is the maximum number of DEU Bs?
8
56
How is the cargo smoke system linked to the CIDS directors?
Controller Area Network (CAN) bus
57
How is the FAP linked to the CIDS directors?
Ethernet buses
58
What are the two parts of the CIDS directors?
* DIR main functions with the integrated Vacuum System Control (VSC) function * Smoke detection board
59
What type of fault system is CIDS?
Type 1
60
What happens in the CIDS if operated in emergency mode?
28V DC is supplied from the essential bus DIR operates the top line cut-off relay to cut power to DEU As unless there is a PA signal present
61
What components are unavailable if the service bus is unavailable? [CIDS]
* Second DIR * Non-essential DEU circuits * FAP * AIPs and ACPs
62
Why are the AIPs and ACPs inoperative where the service bus is unavailable?
They are supplied with service bus power by the type B DEUs
63
How many Passenger Interface and Supply Adapters (PISA) can each DEU A control?
6
64
What do the standalone PISAs interface with?
* Loudspeaker * NS & FSB signs * Attendant work lights
65
What provides each DEU with its address?
Two coding switches on the connection box
66
Why are DEU As not the same as DEU Bs?
Due to a mount coding device
67
How does the door/slides page of the FAP show that a door is locked and the associated slide is armed?
A green symbol
68
How can you get full lighting in the lavatory without the door being closed?
P/BSW on FAP 'LAV LIGHT'
69
How does the AIP indicate to DEU B that it is ok?
1 Hz waveform
70
How many chimes can sound at once where various passenger to cabin attendant call P/BSWs are pressed?
3
71
What happens when a passenger to cabin attendant call P/BSW is pressed?
* Associated seat row numbering light comes on * A high 1 chime is broadcast over all attendant and passenger loudspeakers * Blue LED on all ACPs come on continuously
72
What happens when a passenger to cabin attendant call (from lavatory) P/BSW is pressed?
* Integrated call light comes on * A chime is broadcast on all attendant and passenger loudspeakers * Amber LED comes on continuously on the respective ACP * Respective lavatory call amber LED comes on
73
In automatic mode, when are the no smoking and exit signs switched on?
When the landing gear is down and locked
74
What are automatically switched on when the aircraft reaches an excessive altitude? [CIDS]
Fasten seat belts and the exit signs
75
Why do the FADECs interface with the CIDS directors?
Automatic audio level increase (+ 6 dB) at engine start
76
Why do the Cabin Pressure Controllers interface with the CIDS directors?
Automatic announcement and audio level increase (+ 4 dB) in case of cabin depressurisation
77
What are the major CIDS faults (class 1)?
* CIDS DIR 1 & 2 fault * Top line bus failure * Middle line bus failure * 25% of DEU As failed * 50% of DEU Bs with failed connected handsets
78
What indication will the flight crew receive about major CIDS faults and when are these inhibited?
Amber master caution, single chime and ECAM message CIDS 1 + 2 FAULT Inhibited in flight phases 3, 4, 5, 7, 8
79
Which databus does the AAP use?
RS232
80
When software loading, when will an amber message be given with regards to OBRM? [CIDS]
When the 'IN SLOT' and 'ACTIVE' data is different
81
How can the relevant flashcard installed in the FAP be removed?
The REMOVE touchkey on the FAP set-up page
82
What are the priority levels of the audio system?
1. Flight compartment 2. Cabin attendant stations 3. Pre-recorded announcement 4. BGM and/or entertainment system
83
Where are the service interphone jack locations?
1. FWD avionics 2. Right lateral avionics 3. Main (aft) avionics 4. Pack area 5. Engines (option) 6. Stabiliser bay 7. APU bay
84
When must the service interphone override P/B be pressed in?
To switch it to manual mode, such as when the aircraft is on jacks, to simulate the aircraft being on the ground
85
What is the difference between CDSS configuration 1 and 2?
CDSS configuration 2 shows the camera picture on the SD Separate CDSS system controller is located in the 80VU
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