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Foundations of Medicine JMO > Bacteriology > Flashcards

Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

What shape is a Coccus/cocci bacteria

A

Spherical

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2
Q

What name is given to a coccus bacteria that divides in 1 plane to form 2 cocci?

A

Diplococcus

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3
Q

What type of bacteria is a streptococcus bacteria?

A

A chain coccus - Division in 1 plane produces chains

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4
Q

What type of bacteria is a staphylococcus?

A

A bunch/clump coccus - Division in 3 planes produces a clump

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5
Q

What shape is a Bacillus/Bacilli bacteria?

A

Rod-shaped - can form chains

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6
Q

What shape is a Fusiform bacteria?

A

Long, slender rods

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7
Q

What shape is a Vibrio bacteria?

A

A curved rod

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8
Q

What is a common example of a vibrio bacteria?

A

Vibrio cholerae = cholera

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9
Q

What shape is a spirillum bacteria?

A

A rigid spiral

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10
Q

What shape is a spirochaete bacteria?

A

A flexible spiral

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11
Q

What causes sporulation?

A

Stress or starvation of a prokaryote

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12
Q

What forms a spore?

A

The mother cell begins binary fission and one chromosome is sacrificed to form the spore.

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13
Q

Which common bacteria produces spores?

A

Clostridiodes difficile

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14
Q

How does sporulation increase the severity of infection?

A

It increases resistance to many antimicrobial challenges as they have no ribosomes or cell membrane to target and they are small enough to be easily spread

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15
Q

What are the stages of gram staining?

A

Stain with crystal violet
Treat with Gram’s iodine
Decolourize with acetone or ethanol
Stain with basic fuchsin or safranin
Gram + = Violet, Gram - = pink

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16
Q

What are the limitations of gram staining?

A

Not all microorganisms stain well with Gram stain e.g. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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17
Q

What is an aerobic bacteria?

A

A bacteria that grows in oxygen

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18
Q

What is an obligate aerobe?

A

A bacteria that requires oxygen to live

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19
Q

What is an obligate anaerobe?

A

A bacteria that is killed by oxygen

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20
Q

What is a facultative anaerobe?

A

A bacteria that can tolerate aerobic and anaerobic conditions

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21
Q

What is a capnophilic bacteria?

A

A bacteria that prefers high CO2 levels

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22
Q

What is a microaerophilic bacteria?

A

A bacteria that prefers low oxygen levels

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23
Q

What is a selective media?

A

A medium that selects for the growth of one prokaryote over another

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24
Q

What medium is selective for Staphylococci bacteria?

A

Mannitol Salt Agar - 7.5% salt allows isolation of Staphylococci

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25
How does the Salmonella-Shigella agar isolate for Salmonella and Shigella?
It contains bile salts that inhibit coliforms
26
What is a differential media?
Agar that contains chemicals that produces visible stains in colonies that facilitate identification
27
Which differential medium facilitates the identification of Enetrobacteriacae?
MacConkay Agar
28
Which differential medium facilitates the identification of lactose fermenters such as E. coli?
Eosin and Methylene Blue agar
29
What is a pathogen?
A harmful organism that produces a pathology
30
What is a commensal/ a mutualism/ a symbiosis?
An organism that is part of the natural flora
31
What is an opportunistic pathogen?
An organism that causes infection when opportunity/change in natural immunity arises
32
What is a contaminant?
An organism that is growing in a culture by accident
33
What is virulence?
The capacity of a microbe to damage the host
34
What are some examples of protozoan diseases?
Leishmaniasis Malaria Toxoplasma Cryptosporidiosis - found in under chlorinated swimming pools Entamoebosis
35
What are some examples of fungal infections?
Candida (E.g. Candida albicans = Thrush) Aspergillus (Moulds)
36
What are the 2 gram negative prokaryotes we should known?
Neisseria spp Escherichia spp
37
What are examples of gram positive prokaryotes we should know?
Streptococcus spp Staphylococcus spp Enterococcus spp Clostridium
38
What are the 2 types of Neisseria prokaryotes we should know?
Neisseria meningitidis = most common cause of bacterial meningitidis Neiseria gonorrhoeae = only cause of gonorrhoea
39
What is a coliform?
A species of gram negative bacilli that looks like Escherichia coli (E.coli) when on gram film and when cultured by blood agar
40
Under what main group do coliforms fall?
Enterobacteriaceae
41
What are some examples of gut commensal coliforms?
Most E.coli strains Klebsiella spp Enterobacter spp Proteus spp
42
What are some examples of significant gut pathogens?
Salmonella spp Shigella spp Verotoxin producing Escherichia coli (VTEC) such as E.coli O157 and O104
43
What 1st line antibiotic is used for the treatment of infections caused by coliforms?
Gentamicin
44
What are the risks of gentamicin use?
It is highly toxic and can cause kidney damage
45
Why do patients with coliform sepsis become very unwell quickly?
Because when the coliform bacteria die, they release endotoxins (LPSs on gram negative bacteria)
46
What is sepsis?
A host response to a severe infection
47
What is septicaemia?
Blood poisoning caused by the movement of bacteria into the blood stream
48
What occurs during sepsis to cause septic shock?
Infection causes increased permeability of blood vessel walls, meaning fluid moves into tissues This decreases blood volume and pressure, so heart rate increases This decreases oxygen perfusion of vital organs This leads to septic shock
49
How does sepsis increase risk of haemorrhage?
Increased permeability of blood vessels causes blood clotting This uses up all clotting factors This means there's a higher risk of haemorrhage
50
How does septicaemia cause fever (symptom of sepsis)?
Antigens in the blood stream cause stimulation of macrophages These macrophage release cytokines that move to the anterior hypothalamus Prostaglandin E is released which increases the body's thermal set point This triggers a cold response
51
What temperature is defined as fever?
38-40 degrees celcius
52
What are febrile convulsions?
Fits that can occur in children due to a fever
53
What diseases are caused by Group A Streptococci?
Streptococcal sore throat (Scarlet fever) Invasive diseases such as Necrotising fasciitis Puerperal sepsis (Infection of pregnant and post-natal women)
54
What Group A Streptococcus is responsible for 50% of bacterial sore throats?
Streptococcus pyogenes
55
What is an alpha haemolytic bacteria?
A bacteria that causes oxidation of red blood cells turning it a green-brown colour
56
What is a beta haemolytic bacteria?
A bacteria that causes full rupture of red blood cells
57
Are GAS bacteria alpha or beta haemolytic?
Beta
58
What is pneumonia?
An acute inflammation of the lungs, usually caused by the inhalation of Streptococcus pneumoniae It causes the plugging of alveoli and bronchioles by a fibrous exudate
59
What is the most important group of non-haemolytic streptococci?
Enterococci
60
What are 2 examples of enterococci that we should know?
Enterococcus faecalis Enterococcus faecium
61
What disease is most commonly caused by enterococci?
Urinary Tract Infections
62
What is a VRE?
A Vancomycin Resistant Enterococci, a very resistant strain of enterococci
63
What are examples of Staphylococci?
Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus saprophiticus
64
Is Staphylococcus aureus coagulase positive or negative?
Positive = can coagulate plasma in the blood
65
Is Staphylococcus epidermidis coagulase positive or negative?
Negative = cannot coagulate plasma in the blood
66
What is MRSA?
Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus
67
What bacteria is the most common cause of skin, soft tissue and wound infection?
Staphylococcus aureus
68
What are the 3 species of Clostridioides we should know?
Clostridioides difficile - common cause of diarrhoea after taking antibiotics Clostridioides perfringens - Causes 'gas' gangrene, a severe soft tissue infection following wound contamination Clostridioides tetani - Causes tetanus, a usually fatal paralytic disease
69
Which class of bacteria posses endotoxins?
Gram -ve bacteria
70
Which class of bacteria posses exotoxins?
Gram +ve bacteria
71
What happens to Staphylococcus aureus on a blood agar plate?
It shows up golden on a blood agar plate
72
What type of inheritance causes blood related disorders and blood types?

Foundations of Medicine JMO (56 decks)

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