Revision session unknowns Flashcards
1
Q
What is the plasmalemma also known as?
A
Cell surface membrane
2
Q
What molecules can diffuse easily through the cell surface membrane?
A
Water
Oxygen
Small, hydrophobic molecules
3
Q
What are the characteristics of inclusions of a cell?
A
They are dispensable and may only be present as transients
4
Q
What forms the microfilaments?
A
Actin molecules
5
Q
Why are microfilaments dynamic skeletal elements?
A
Actin can assemble and dissociate
6
Q
What are intermediate filaments made of?
A
6 different intermediate proteins
7
Q
What are the microtubules formed from?
A
Alpha and beta tubulin
MAPs = Microtubule Associated Proteins
8
Q
What is euchromatin?
A
Eu = Undergoing
DNA that is dispersed and is actively undergoing transcription
9
Q
What is heterochromatin?
A
DNA that is tightly packed and is not undergoing transcription
10
Q
What is the purpose of the golgi apparatus?
A
Modification and packaging
Adds sugars
Cleaves proteins
Sorts macromolecules into vesicles
11
Q
What are the 3 main categories of intercellular junctions?
A
Occluding junctions (Zonula occludens)
Anchoring junctions
Communicating junctions (Gap junctions)
12
Q
What are the 2 types of anchoring junctions?
A
Desmosomes (Macula adherens)
Adherent junctions (Zonula Adherens)
13
Q
What are the main characteristics of an occluding junction?
A
Prevents diffusing (Occlude = block off)
Appears as a focal point between membranes
14
Q
What are the characteristics of an adherent junction?
A
Link actin bundles via E-cadherin molecules
15
Q
What are the characteristics of a desmosome?
A
Links intermediate fibres via attachment plaques
Common in skin
16
Q
What are the characteristics of a communicating junction?
A
Contains a circular patch containing many connexion pores, allowing diffusion
17
Q
Which type of epithelium produces keratin?
A
Squamous epithelium
18
Q
What does a tendon connect?
A
Bone to Muscle
19
Q
What does a ligament connect?
A
Bone to bone
20
Q
What are the 4 main types of connective tissue?
A
Soft
Hard
Embryonic
Special
21
Q
What are the 4 main types of soft connective tissue?
A
Loose
Dense
Reticular
Adipose
22
Q
What are the 2 main types of dense connective tissue?
A
Dense regular
Dense irregular
23
Q
What are the characteristics of a smooth muscle cell?
A
No striations
Cigar shaped nuclei
Form long fibres
24
Q
What are the characteristics of a skeletal muscle cell?
A
Striations
Giant, multi-nucleated cells at sarcolemma periphery
25
What are the characteristics of a cardiac muscle cell?
Striations
Intercalated discs between cells
Single nucleus
26
What are the 2 main types of ground substance?
Glycoprotein
GAGs (Glycosaminoglycosides)
27
What supporting cells are found in the CNS?
Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Microglia
28
What supporting cells are found in the PNS?
Schwann cells
29
What is the name of the connective tissue coat that surrounds the PNS?
Epineurium
30
What is the name of the connective tissue coat that surrounds the CNS?
Meninges
31
What is the function of microglia?
Immune surveillance
32
What is the function of an oligodendrocyte?
Produces myelin to myelinated nerves in the CNS
33
What is the function of an astrocyte?
Ion transport
Support
Forms the blood brain barrier
34
What are the 3 main layers of the GI tract?
Mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis externa
35
What are the 3 layers of the Mucosa?
Epithelium
Lamina propria
Muscularis mucosa
36
What are the 2 layers of the muscularis externa?
Internal muscularis externa - Circular
External muscularis externa - Horizontal
37
What are the main layers of the blood vessel wall?
Tunica intima
Basal lamina
Basement membrane
Internal elastic membrane
Tunica media
External elastic membrane
Tunica adventitia
38
What is meant by dorsiflexion?
Flexion of the toes and foot upwards
39
What is meant by plantarflexion?
Extension of the toes and foot downwards
40
What action occurs when the thumb and pinkie are touched together?
Opposition
Reversed by reposition
41
What action occurs when the fingers are splayed out?
Abduction of digits
Reversed by adduction
42
What is meant by dorsal?
Posterior or Superior surface
43
What is the anterior surface of the hand called?
Palmar surface
44
What is the anterior surface of the wrist called?
Polar surface
45
What is the inferior surface of the tongue called?
Ventral surface
46
What is the inferior surface of the foot called?
Plantar surface
47
What are the 3 types of joints?
Synovial
Cartilaginous
Fibrous
48
What are the 2 types of cartilaginous joint?
Primary cartilaginous joint
Secondary cartilaginous joint
49
What is an example of a primary cartilaginous joint?
Synchondrosis - A joint at which bones connect via hyaline cartilage
e.g. epiphyseal growth plate
50
What is an example of a secondary cartilaginous joint?
Symphyses - A joint at which bones connect via fibrocartilage
e.g. intervertebral disc - A cartilaginous disc found between vertebrae
51
What are the 3 main types of fibrous joint?
Syndesmoses - Interosseous membrane
Sutures - Strong joint between skull bones
Fontanelle - Large suture between neonatal skull bones
52
What are the 3 main fontanelle types?
Anterior fontanelle
Posterior fontanelle
Lateral fontanelle
53
What are the 3 origins of the deltoid muscle?
Spine of scapula - Anterior
Acromion process of scapula - Middle
Lateral 1/3rd of clavicle - Posterior
54
What is the insertion of the deltoid muscle?
Deltoid tuberosity of humorous
55
What is the insertion of the biceps brachii?
Tuberosity of the radius
56
What are the origins of the biceps brachii?
Coracoid process of scapula
Supraglenoid tubercle of scapula
57
What type of muscle is the orbiculares oculi?
Circular
58
What type of muscle is the deltoid?
Pennate - meaning feather
59
What type of muscle is the biceps brachii?
Fusiform
60
What type of muscle is the external oblique?
Flat with aponeurosis
61
What type of muscle is the rectus abdominus?
Quadrate
62
What occurs in paralysis of a muscle?
No motor innervation, so reduced tone
63
What occurs in spasticity of a muscle?
No descending brain control
Increased, non descending tone
64
What is muscle atrophy?
Myocyte shrinkage
65
What is muscle hypertrophy?
Myocyte enlargement
66
What are the 3 main sections of the aorta?
Ascending aorta
Arch of aorta
Descending aorta
67
What are the 2 sections of the descending aorta?
Thoracic aorta
Abdominal aorta
68
What are the first 2 branches of the aorta (In the ascending aorta)
Left and right coronary artery
69
What are the 3 branches of the arch of the aorta?
Brachiocephalic trunk
Left common carotid artery
Left subclavian artery
70
Describe the sequence of arteries in the arms?
Subclavian artery
Axillary artery
Brachial artery
Ulnar or radial artery
71
Describe the sequence of arteries to the legs?
Common iliac artery
External iliac artery
Femoral artery
Popliteal artery
Anterior or posterior tibial or fibular artery
72
.
.
73
What 3 structures are contained in the spermatic cord?
Vas deferens
Pampiniform plexus
Testicular artery
74
Where is spermatozoa formed in the testes?
Seminiferous tubules
75
What forms the pelvic inlet?
The top circle formed by the hip bones
76
What are the 3 layers of the uterine wall?
Perimetrium - outer
Myometrium - middle
Endometrium - inner
77
Where does the sympathetic outflow leave the spinal cord?
Between T1 and L2 spinal nerves
78
What are the 4 main parasympathetic ganglia of the parasympathetic cranial nerves?
Ciliary - 3
Pterygopalatine - 7
Submandibular - 9
Otic - 10
79
What is the name given to the end of the spinal cord?
Conus medullaris
80
What is the name given to the bundle of nerves that falls below the spinal cord (L2-S5 spinal nerves)
Cauda equina
81
What is the name given to the connective tissue below the conus medullaris?
Filum terminale
82
What bones from the appendicular skeleton?
Shoulder and pelvic girdle
Arm bones
Leg bones
83
What bones form the axial skeleton?
Skull
Chest (Sternum and ribs)
Vertebral column
84
Which bone does not articulate with any others?
Hyoid bone
85
What direction is DNA replicated?
5' to 3'
86
What enzyme is involved in DNA replication?
DNA polymerase
87
What are the 4 main methods of genetic analysis?
FISH
Array CGH
PCR
Next Generation Sequencing
88
What is involved in FISH analysis?
Fluorescent probes are addd to DNA to detect specific genes
89
What is involved in Array CGH?
Analysis of the whole genome
Can't detect balanced arrangement
DNA referred to a reference DNA sample
90
What is involved in PCR testing?
Many copies of one small part of the genome is copied
These sections can then be sequenced
91
What is involved in Next Generation Sequencing?
The whole genome or all known exons can be sequenced
92
What is meant by a balanced change in genes?
All the genetic material is maintained, just in different places
93
What is meant by an unbalanced change in genes?
Has missing or additional genetic material
94
What is aneuploidy?
Whole extra or missing chromosomes
95
What occurs in Down's syndrome?
Trisomy 21 in which there is an extra copy of chromosome 21
96
What occurs in Edward's syndrome?
Trisomy 18 in which there is an extra copy of chromosome 18
97
What will occur with trisomy 14?
Miscarriage
98
What occurs in Turner Syndrome?
Only 1 X-chromosome in a female
99
What occurs in triple X syndrome?
An extra X-chromosome in a female
100
What occurs in Kleinfelter syndrome?
An extra X chromosome in a male
101
What is meant by Robertsonian translocation?
2 chromosomes get stuck together
Only causes problems for offspring
102
What is meant by reciprocal translocation?
Segments of genetic material are exchanged between chromosomes
103
What is a polymorphism?
A variation in the human genome that occurs in >1% of the population
104
What is meant by a Mendelian disorder?
A disorder caused by a mutation in a single gene, with a high penetrance
105
What is an oncogene?
A mutated gene that allows for continuous cell division
106
What is a tumour suppressor gene?
A gene that forms proteins to prevent cell division
107
What is the most common antibody in the body?
IgG
108
Which antibody is found in breast milk to provide neonatal protection?
IgA
109
Which antibody is responsible for allergy and asthma?
IgE
110
What is the main use of amoxacillin?
Both gram +ve and -ve bacteria
111
What is the main use of flucloxacillin?
Streptococcus and Staphylococcus species
112
What is the main use of Penicillin V?
Both gram +ve and -ve
113
What are the 3 basic penicillins?
Benzathine - IM
Benzylpenicillin - IV
Phenoxymethyloenicillin - Oral
114
Give an example of a glycopeptide?
Vancomycin
115
Give an example of an aminoglycoside?
Gentamicin
116
What is the main use of gentamicin?
Gram -ve aerobic organisms e.g. coliforms
117
Give an example of a tetracycline?
Doxycycline
118
What are the main uses of tetracyclines (Doxycycline)?
Intracellular bacteria
Atypical bacteria
119
What are some examples of macrolides?
Erythromycin - Gram -ve
Clarithromycin - Gram -ve
Azithromycin - Gram +ve
120
Which antibiotic groups target cell wall synthesis?
Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbapanems
Glycopeptides
121
Which antibiotic groups target protein synthesis?
Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides
Macrolides
122
Which antibiotic groups target nucleic acids?
Metronidazole
Fluoroquinolones
Trimethoprim
123
Which antibiotic should NEVER be taken with alcohol?
Metronidazole
124
What are the 4Cs that increase C.diff risk?
Cephalosporins
Ciprofloxacin
Clindamycin
Co-amoxiclav
125
What are the main uses of metronidazole?
Anaerobes and protozoa
126
What are the bumps of the brain called?
Gyrii
127
What are the crevices in the brain called?
Sulci
128
What is meant by positive feedback?
The amplification of an initial change (e.g. increasing strength of contractions in birth)
129
What is meant by negative feedback?
The opposition of an initial change
130
What is the equation for Cardiac Output?
CO = Heart Rate x Stroke Volume
131
What is the equation for MAP?
MAP = CO x SVR
MAP = [2D + S] ÷ 3
132
What is the normal MAP range?
70-105 mmHg
133
Describe the response to high blood pressure in the body?
Increased firing rate of Carotid and aortic baroreceptors
Increased stimulation of Herring's nerve (Branch of Glossopharyngeal nerve) by carotid baroreceptors
Increased stimulation of Vagus nerve by aortic baroreceptors
This is sent to the Medulla oblongata
This leads to an increased parasympathetic tone along Vagus nerve, leading to decreased force of contraction and heart rate
134
What is the formula of Stroke Volume?
SV=End Diastolic Volume-End Systolic Volume
135
What are the functions of Angiotensin II?
Stimulates release of aldosterone
Causes vasoconstriction
Stimulates thirst
Stimulates ADH release
136
What is the function of aldosterone?
It acts on the kidneys to increase sodium and water retention
137
What are the 2 types of Natriuretic peptides?
ANP - Released in response to atrial distension
BNP - Important in heart failure diagnosis
138
What is the control centre for thermoreception?
Hypothalamus
139
What is an exergonic reaction?
A reaction with a -ve ∆G
140
What is an endergonic reaction?
A reaction with a +ve ∆G
141
What are the 4 main steps of translation?
Initiation
Elongation
Peptide bond formation
Termination
142
What is the main molecule involved in elongation?
EF-1alpha and GTP
143
What is the main molecule involved in translocation?
EF-2
144
What is an enzyme on its own called?
An apoenzyme
145
What is an enzyme with a co-factor called?
A Haloenzyme
146
What type of enzyme performs phosphorylation?
Protein kinases
147
What does the line weaver-burke plot of a competitive inhibitor vs no inhibitor look like?
2 lines that cross the y-axis at the same point
Km is read at the x-axis (Different Km)
Vmax is the y-intersect (Same Vmax)
148
What does the line weaver-burke plot of a non-competitive inhibitor vs no inhibitor look like?
2 lines that cross the y axis at different points but cross the x-axis at the same point
Km is read at the x-axis (Same Km)
Vmax is read at the y-axis (Different Vmax)
149
What does the michaelis-menten curve of a non-allosteric inhibitor look like?
A standard curve with a plateau
150
What does the Michaelis-menten curve of an allosteric inhibitor look like?
A sigmoid curve
151
What is potency?
The concentration of drug required to give a certain effect
152
What is the formula for TI (Therapeutic Index)?
TI = TD50 ÷ ED50
153
What occurs at the end of G1 (Checkpoint)?
CDK4 activated by Cyclin D
CDK4 phosphorylates Retinoblastoma
Retinoblastoma releases E2F
E2F allows progression into S phase
154
What occurs in S phase?
E2F initiates DNA replication
E2F also increases Cyclin A levels
Cyclin A activates CDK2
CDK2 also promotes DNA replication
155
What occurs at the end of G2 phase (Checkpoint)?
Checkpoint regulated by p53
p53 checks for DNA damage and can pause the entry into the cell cycle
It then attempts to either repair the DNA or stimulate apoptosis via the extrinsic pathway
156
What is dysplasia?
Disordered growth, not in response to a stimulus (High grade = more disordered)
157
What is Hyperplasia?
Increase in number of cells
158
What is the double hit hypothesis?
The idea that 2 faulty genes are required to cause cancer so inheritance of 1 faulty gene still only increases chances, not causes it
159
What is NER?
Nucleotide Excision Repair
160
What occurs in Xeroderma Pigmentosa?
Genetic defect in NER, meaning mutations aren't repaired
161
How can HPV cause cancer?
E7 proteins binds to Rb and releases E2F
E6 proteins increase p53 destruction
162
What are the main Hallmarks of cancer?
Sustained growth
Loss of growth inhibition
Unlimited replication
Resisting apoptosis
Inducing angiogenesis
Disordered repair mechanisms
Invasion and metastasis
163
How do cancer cells maintain growth signalling?
Oncogenes stimulate growth and allow constant 'green light' for growth
164
How do cancer cells prevent growth inhibition?
Mutation of tumour suppressor genes, which usually destroy damaged cells (e.g. p53)
165
How do cancer cells gain unlimited replicative potential?
They can turn on telomerase genes that produces telomerase. This allows for constant regeneration of telomeres which usually run out and prevent growth
166
How do cancer cells resist apoptosis?
Bcl-2 binds to Bax/Bac and prevents the intrinsic pathway
167
How do cancer cells induce angiogenesis?
They can release VEGF (Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor) which forms more blood vessels, needed to keep up with Oxygen demands
168
How can cancer cells disorder repair mechanisms?
They can mutate NER and MMR genes which repair damaged DNA
169
How can cancer cells evade the immune system?
Cancer cells become very mutated and display non-self antigens, triggering an immune response
To avoid this, they release PDL-1 (Programmed Death Ligand) which inhibits T cell proliferation
170
How can cancer cells invade tissue and metastasise?
Increased expression of Matrix MetalloProteins (MMPs) allows the tumour to chew through surrounding tissue and basement membrane
171
What is a QALY?
Quality Adjusted Life Year
1 year of life spent in perfect health
172
What cost is identified as cost effective?
£20,000 per QALY
173
What is meant by incidence?
rate of new cases (Number of new cases in a given time)
174
What is meant by prevalence?
The number of current cases at a specific time
175
What is the SIMD?
Scottish Index of Multiple Deprivation
176
What is meant by Evidence Based Medicine?
The use of current, best evidence to treat a patient
177
What are some disadvantages of Evidence Based Medicine?
Keeping up
Gaps in research
Research quality
"Messy" real world settings
178
What is meant by quantitative data?
Data that includes numeric values, preferably evaluated by statistical analysis
179
What is meant by qualitative data?
Involves collection and interpretation of textual, verbal and visual data
Often used to determine relationships between data and question generation
180
What makes good evidence?
Replication ability with the same findings regardless of time, people involved and measurement tools
181
What are the most reliable forms of evidence?
Systematic reviews
Meta-analyses
182
What is meant by systematic reviews and meta-analyses?
Forms of secondary analysis of primary data.
This clearly defines outcomes, criteria, exposure/treatment and research questions
183
What does PICOS stand for in randomised control trials?
P - Population
I - Intervention
C - Control
O - Outcome
S - Study design
184
What is meant by a false positive?
People who get a positive result but don't have the disease
185
What is meant by a false negative?
People who get a negative result but have the disease
186
What is meant by sensitivity?
seNsitivity - Not Negative (Think opposite)
% people with disease that test positive
True positives / Total with disease
187
What is meant by specificity?
sPecificity - Not Positive (Think opposite)
the percentage of people who test negative for a specific disease among a group of people who do not have the disease
True negatives / Total without disease
188
What is meant by the Positive Predicted Value?
% people with a positive test that have it
Opposite of sensitivity
True positives / Total Positives
189
What is meant by the Negative predicted value?
% people with a negative test that don't have the disease
Opposite of specificity
True Negatives / Total Negatives
190
What is meant by absolute risk?
Number of new cases in an at risk population ÷ Total number of at risk patients
191
What is meant by relative risk?
Absolute risk of individuals exposed to risk factor ÷ Absolute risk of individuals not exposed
192
What is meant by the Odds Ratio?
Odds of disease in population exposed to risk factor ÷ Odds of disease in population not exposed
193
What name is given to epithelial cancers?
Carcinomas (Car = shell (Like skin))
194
What is an adenoma?
Benign glandular epithelial tumour
195
What is an adenocarcinoma?
Malignant glandular epithelial tumour
196
What is a papilloma?
A benign squamous epithelial tumour
197
What is a Squamous Cell Carcinoma?
A malignant squamous epithelial tumour
198
What is a transitional/urothelial cell carcinoma?
A tumour of the bladder epithelium
199
What are sarcomas?
Malignant lesions of the connective tissue
200
What is a lipoma?
A benign fat tissue tumour
201
What is a liposarcoma?
A malignant fat tissue tumour
202
What is an osteoma?
A benign bone tumour
203
What is an osteosarcoma?
A malignant bone tumour
204
What is an enchondroma?
A benign cartilage tumour
205
What is a chondrosarcoma?
A malignant cartilage tumour
206
What is a rhabdomyoma?
A benign skeletal muscle tumour
207
What is a rhabdomyosarcoma?
A malignant skeletal muscle tumour
208
What is a leiomyoma?
A benign smooth muscle tumour
209
What is a leiomyosarcoma?
A malignant smooth muscle tumour
210
What is a neurofibroma?
A benign tumour of a nerve cell
211
What is a schwannoma?
A benign tumour of the schwann cells
212
What is a Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumour?
A malignant tumour of the myelin sheath of the nerves of the PNS
213
What is a haemangioma?
A benign blood vessel cancer
214
What is an angiosarcoma?
A malignant blood vessel cancer
215
What is a Kaposi's sarcoma?
A malignant blood vessel cancer related to AIDS or Herpes Virus 8
216
What is the medical name for a freckle?
Ephelis
217
What is the medical name for a mole?
Naevus
218
What is a malignant cancer of the melanocytes of the skin called?
A melanoma
219
What is an ecological study?
The analysis of grouped data from summaries of individual data
They are fast and cheap
They don't provide individual data and can succum to the ecological fallacy - Unsure if those with disease had the exposure
220
What is a cross sectional study?
Measure of exposure and outcome variables at the same time
This can asses the prevalence of a condition and its distribution
It goes prevalence and is useful in chronic conditions
It can't estimate incidence and is prone to bias as those with the condition are more likely to recall exposure
221
What is a case control study?
Compare 2 groups of people with and without disease and with and without expose
It is fast, small sample size required and can evaluate multiple exposures
It can't determine incidence and prevalence and is not useful in rare exposures
222
What is a cohort study?
Group of individuals with and without an exposure are followed up over a long period of time to see if they develop a disease
They can determine incidence and causality of exposure
They are expensive and time consuming and people can die during the trial
