BB CH 9 KD Flashcards Preview

Rabbits > BB CH 9 KD > Flashcards

Flashcards in BB CH 9 KD Deck (228):
1

1. True or False. Animals classified in the genus Lepus are the only true hares.

True

2

__________ _________ is the only domesticated rabbit

Oryctolagus cuniculas

3

3. True or False. The Belgian Hare is derived from the genus Lepus.

False; the Belgian Hare is derived from Oryctolagus cuniculas

4

4. What are the two families in the order Lagomorpha?

Ochotonidae (pikas) and Leporidae (rabbits and hares)

5

5. What genus does the cottontail rabbit belong to?

Sylvilagus

6

6. What is the most common use of the rabbit in research?

Production of polyclonal antibodies

7

7. Why is the rabbit preferred for polyclonal antibody production?

Large body size and blood volume; easy access to vascular system; large amount of information available on purification of immunoglobulins

8

8. True or False. Rabbit models of human disease include hydrocephalus induced by hypovitaminosis A, hypervitaminosis A, acute respiratory syndrome induced by phorbol myristate acetate, inflammatory bowel disease, and diabetes mellitus.

True

9

9. What are the six rabbit cancer models listed by the AFIP?

VX-2 tumor
spontaneous endometrial adenocarcinoma, monoclonal gammopathies,
nephroblastoma
lymphoblastic leukemia,
malignant fibroma

10

10. The VX-2 carcinoma results from the malignant transformation of the viral induced _______ _________.

Shope papilloma

11

11. What is the most common neoplasm in aged rabbits?

Enometrial adenocarcinoma

12

12. What chemical is used to induce nephroblastomas in pregnant does

Ethylnitrosurea

13

13. The rabbit has been used to study infectious diseases, including:
A. Campylobacter enteritis
B. Chagas disease
C. cryptococcal meningitis
D. Herpes simplex encephalitis
E. staphylococcal blepharitis
F. all of the above

F; all of the above

14

14. What is WHHL?

Watanabe heritable hyperlipidemia

15

15. What deficiency is seen in the WHHL rabbit?

Low density lipoprotein receptors in the liver

16

16. The St. Thomas Hospital strain has a _______ (normal, abnormal) functioning _____ (LDL, HDL) receptor but still maintains a hypercholesterolemic state.

normal; LDL

17

17. What is the dental formal in the rabbit?

i2/1, c0/0, pm3/2, m2-3/2 X2= 26-28 teeth

18

18. What are the peg teeth? Where are the peg teeth located? What is the function of the peg teeth

Peg teeth are a small pair of incisors directly caudal to the primary maxillary inciosrs; the peg teeth are used to bite and shear food.

19

19. True or False. Molars do not have roots and are characterized by deep enamel folds.

True

20

20. What are the salivary glands in the rabbits? Which salivary glands are paired? Which gland is the largest?

Parotid, submaxillary, sublingual, and zygomatic; all are paired; parotid is largest

21

21. Which salivary gland does not have a counterpart in humans?

zygomatic

22

22. True or False. The esophagus of the rabbit has separate portions of striated and smooth muscle along its length.

False; the esophagus of the rabbit has 3 layers of striated muscle that extend the length of the esophagus down to the and including the cardia of the stomach.

23

23. What are the parts of the rabbit’s stomach?

cardia, fundus, pylorus

24

Does the rabbit have a gall bladder? Name two animals that do not have a gall bladder.

Yes. Rabbits have a Gall Bladder. Horses and Rats do not have gall bladders.

25

25. How do kits receive most of their passive immunity?

VIa the yolk sac prior to birth (not the colostrum)

26

26. What is the sacculus rotundus?

lymphoid tissues at ileo-cecal junction

27

27. What are cecotrophs?

Fecal pellets that contain nitrogen (niacin, riboflavin, pantothenate, and cyanocobalamin. Rabbits consume them directly from the anus.

28

28. True or False. The musculature of the thoracic wall contributes directly to the respiratory effort in the rabbit.

False; the activity of the diaphragm contributes directly to the respiratory effort of in the rabbit.

29

29. How is artificial respiration in the rabbit performed? Why is this method important? What method of artificial respiration should not be used?

Alternating the head of the rabbit in the up and down position 30-34 times per minute; this method best simulates the rabbit's natural respirations. Chest compression is ineffective. musculature of the thoracic wall contributes little to the rabbit's respiratory efforts.

30

30. What features of the rabbit makes endotracheal intubation difficult to perform?

Long and narrow pharynx; large tongue; laryngospasms

31

31. The rabbit lungs consist of _____ lobes. What is the lobe pattern

6 lobes; R and L have cranial, middle, caudal lobes with the caudal lobe divided into lateral and medial portions.

32

32. Characterize the tricuspid valve in the rabbit heart

tricuspid valve has only two cusps

33

33. The aortic nerve responds only to __________ (chemoreceptors, baroreceptors).

baroreceptors

34

34. The blood supply to the brain is mainly via the ______ _________ _______.

internal carotid artery

35

35. The kidney of the rabbit is:
A. Unipapillate
B. multipapillate
C. Neither A nor B

Unipapillate

36

36. In the kidney, the medullary tissue may be perfused while the cortex is ischemic. Why does this happen?

blood vessels that perfuse the medulla remain open during many conditions

37

37. Can creatinine clearance be used to measure the glomerular filtration rate? Why or why not?

Yes; rate of creatinine clearance is equal to that of inulin clearance.

38

38. True or False. Albuminuria can be found in young healthy rabbits.

True

39

39. In normal rabbits, the urine:
A. Is normally yellow, but can take on reddish to brown hues.
B. Usually has few cells, bacteria or casts.
C. Has a pH at about 8.2
D. Is typically cloudy in adults due to relatively high concentrations of ammonium magnesium phosphate and calcium monohydrate precipitates.
E. All of the above.

E, all of the above

40

40. Differentiate between the urethral orifices in the buck and the doe

Bucks: rounded orifice
Does: slitlike orifice

41

41. Why is it necessary to close the superficial inguinal ring when performing an orchiectomy by open technique?

To prevent herniation.

42

42. True or False. The two uterine horns are connected to the vagina by separate cervices (bicornuate uterus).

True (bicornuate uterus)

43

43. What type of placenta is found in the pregnant rabbit?

Hemochorial

44

44. Including the ____ the rabbit has a relatively _______ (low, high) metabolic rate.

ears, the rabbit has a low metabolic rate

45

45. What is the result of fasting a neonatal rabbit?

Hypoglycemia and ketosis

46

46. The normal temperature of an adult New Zealand white rabbit at rest is:
A. 37.5-39.0° C
B. 38.5-39.5° C
C. 38.0-39.5° C
D. 37.5-38.5° C
E. 38.5-39.0° C

b. 38.5-39.5

47

47. Explain the importance of the ears in thermoregulation.

Ears have large surface area with an extensive arteriovenous anastomosis system. This helps the rabbit snese and respond to cold and warm temperatures. They also can adjust body temp through a countercurrent heat exchange system.

48

48. Rabbits deprived of water will ______ (increase, decrease) their food consumption

decrease

49

49. ________is normal and accounts for the variation in reported values for RBC diameter

anisocytosis

50

50. The life span of the rabbit RBC averages _______days but some could survive up to ____ days.
A. 57, 67
B. 75, 87
C. 50, 60
D. 55, 66
E. 67, 75

57, 67

51

51. The neutrophil in the rabbit is also known as the pseudoeosinophil or the ______. Why?

Heterophil; red-staining granules in the cytoplasm; But, heterophils are smaller than eosinophils.

52

52. What is Pelger-Huet anomaly

Heterophil nucleus is hyposegmented due to incomplete differentiation of the granulocytes.

53

53. Collection of blood samples in rabbits by what method(s) elevates AST levels due to muscle damage?
A. Decapitation
B. Cardiac puncture
C. Aortic incision
D. Restraint that causes exertion
E. All of the above

E. all of the above

54

54. How many forms of alkaline phosphatase are found in the rabbit? What are they? How does this differ from most other mammals?

Three. One intestinal form and two forms in the liver and kidney. Most other mammals only have two forms of AP, intestinal and liver/bone/kidney.

55

55. Rabbits are ________ (herbivores, omnivores) with a preferred diet that is _____ (low, high) in fiber and _____ (low, high) in protein and soluble carbohydrate.

Herbivores. Low in Fiber. High in Protein

56

56. True or False. Rabbits prefer feed in meal form over pelleted form.

False; rabbits like pellets.

57

57. What is the average life span of the rabbit?

5-7 years

58

58. What is the result of prolonged feeding of diets high in calcium?

Renal Disease

59

59. What is the result of feeding a diet containing excessive Vitamin D?

Calcification of soft tissues

60

60. What is the result of too much or too little Vitamin A in the diet?

Reproductive dysfunction and congenital hydrocephalus.

61

61. What is the daily water intake in the rabbit?

120 ml/kg body weight

62

62. Laboratory reared rabbits are ______ (diurnal, nocturnal), while wild rabbits are ______ (diurnal, nocturnal).

diurnal, nocturnal

63

63. At what age does puberty occur in the New Zealand white rabbit?

5-7 months of age

64

65. True or False. Ovulation in the doe is induced.

True

65

64. How long is the breeding life of the doe?

1-3 years

66

66. Ovulation in the doe can be induced with:
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
C. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
D. Copulation
E. All of the above

e, all of the above

67

67. When can pregnancy in the doe be confirmed? How?

11 days, radiographically and 14 days by palpation

68

68. What is the length of gestation in the rabbit?

30-33 days

69

69. Pseudopregnancy is common in the rabbit and can follow a variety of stimuli, including:
A. Administration of human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Administration gonadotropin releasing hormone
C. Presence of pregnant does nearby
D. Presence of neonates from other does
E. None of the above

e, none of the above; Administration of LH, mating with a sterile male, mounting by does, and presence of bucks nearby

70

70. Parturition is also known ___________.

kindling

71

71. True or False. Breech and anterior presentations are normal in the rabbit.

True

72

72. What is the average number of kits born?

7-9

73

73. What influences litter size?

breed, parity, nutritional status, environmental factors

74

74. True or False. Both does and bucks have 4-5 pairs of nipples

False; bucks have none

75

75. When are kits generally weaned?

5-8 weeks

76

76. According to both the Guide, what is the appropriate cage size for a 2-4 kg rabbit? 1.8 kg? 5.6 kg? 5 kg?

less than 2 Kg = 1.5 ft2

up to 4 Kg = 3 ft2

up to 5.4 Kg = 4 ft2

more than 5.4 Kg >= 5 ft2

77

77. According to the Guide, what is the recommended temperature for the rabbit?

*****61-72 degrees ___******

78

78. In breeding colonies, females should have ________ (10-12, 12-14, 14-16) hours of light

females should have 14-16 hours of light

79

What is the most common clinical manifestation of pasteurellosis in rabbits?
A. Septicemia
B. Rhinitis with or without sinusitis
C. Otitis
D. Diarrhea

B. Rhinitis w/ or w/o sinusitis

80

The common name for Pasteurella induced rhinitis is __________________________?

Snuffles

81

Rabbits with rhinitis also typically develop an associated conjunctivitis. True or False

True

82

Clinical signs for conjunctivitis include all of the following except:
A. Head Tilt
B. Mucopurulent ocular discharge
C. Conjunctival bleeding
D. Swollen eyelids
E. Epiphora
F. Periocular alopecia

A, head tilt

83

Pneumonia is a common clinical condition associated with Pasteurella infections. True or False

True

84

Pasteurella multocida infection can cause:
A. Rhinitis
B. Pneumonia
C. Otitis Media and Interna
D. Subcutaneous and visceral abscesses
E. Septicemia
F. All of the Above

F. All of the above.

85

Rabbits that develop Pasteurella septicemia generally die without any clinical signs. True or False

True

86

How is Pasteurella multocida transmitted

direct contact; aerosol/venerally are less common

87

When do rabbits become infected with Pasteurella multocida?

AT weaning

88

Pasteurella infection is never a subclinical disease in rabbits. True or False

False

89

What type of lung distribution is the typical Pasteurella pneumonia?

Cranioventral

90

Necropsy findings of Pasteurella pneumonia can include all of the following except:
A. Overinflation of the lungs
B. Atelectasis and consolidation
C. Abscess formation
D. Fibropurulent exudate
E. Fibrinopurulent pleuritis and pericarditis

A. over-inflation

91

Pasteurella organisms colonize the ________________________________________

Nasopharyngeal mucosa

92

What is the most definitive means of diagnosis of Pasteurella? ____________________________

culture

93

Rabbits are typically vaccinated for Pasteurella by vendors. True or False

False, no vaccine available.

94

Pasteurella-free colonies have been developed by:
A. Culture and culling the positives
B. Serological testing and culling the positives
C. Treating pregnant does with enrofloxacin past kindling and using the kits to form the
negative colony
D. Rederivation techniques
E. A and C

E

95

18. When using procaine penicillin G in treating pasteurellosis in rabbits, one must be cautious to prevent
the development of _________________________________.

clostridial enterotoxemia

96

19) Rabbits typically remain culture positive from the nasal passages even with antibiotic treatment.
True or False

True

97

20. There has been one exception to the statement in number 19, treatment with
______________________ has shown some rabbits to be culture negative post treatment

Enrofloxacin

98

What antibiotics have been used to treat pasteurellosis in rabbits?
A. Enrofloxacin
B. Tilmicosin
C. Procaine penicillin G
D. Clindamycin
E. All of the above except D

E

99

What is the most common research complication associated with pasteurellosis?
________________________________________________________________________

Infection of injection sites in rabbits used for polyclonal antisera production.

100

23. What is the etiologic agent of Tyzzer’s disease?

Clostridial piliforme

101

Clostridium piliforme is a ____________________ bacterium and is an _____________
______________ pathogen.

spore-forming; obligate intracellular

102

Clostridium piliforme can only be cultured in artificial media. True/False

False; requires tissue culture or embryonated egg media

103

List three possible clinical signs of Tyzzer’s disease. _____________, _____________, ___________

diarrhea, anorexia, dehydration, lethargy

104

Acute outbreaks of Tyzzer’s disease are characterized by high morbidity and low mortality. True/False

false, 90%mortality

105

Transmission of Clostridium piliforme is via the _________________ route

Fecal-oral

106

C. piliforme may cause what type of gross lesions in the liver and myocardium? _________________

pinpoint white foci

107

Gross lesions within the intestinal tract include: ______________, _____________, _______________

hemorrhage on serosal cecal surface, thickened edematous bowel walls, necrotic foci within the mucosa

108

Histologically, hepatic foci of necrosis are surrounded by __________________.

polymorphonuclear neutrophils

109

32. What two stains can be used to identify the bacteria at the periphery of the necrotic lesions caused by
C. piliforme? _____________________ and ________________________

Warthin-Starry or Giesma

110

Tyzzer’s disease can be diagnosed by: _____________, _____________________,_______________

ELISA, Indirect immunoflourescence, special stains

111

What is the best way to prevent Tyzzer’s

Sanitization, decrease stress

112

Spores can be deactivated by using ___________________ or ________________________.

1% peracetic acid, 3% sodium hyp0chlorite

113

What is the primary causative agent of enterotoxemia? _____________________

Clostridium spiroforme

114

C. spiroforme infected rabbits usually present with signs of chronic diarrhea and emaciation. True/False

False, often acute death with no signs

115

40. _____________________ can be associated with overgrowth and proliferation of the C. spiroforme
organisms to cause enterotoxemia.
A. Antibiotics administered
B. Change in gut flora associated with weaning
C. Coinfection with other bacteria
D. A & C
E. All of the above

E

116

To definatively diagnose enterotoxemia, ______________ is required.
A. Sera for ELISA
B. Isolation of the organism
C. Presence of Iota toxin from centrifuged cecal contents
D. All of the above can be used
E. B & C only

E

117

. C. spiroforme has a ________________ appearance in fecal smears

helically, coiled, semicircular

118

Rabbits should be vaccinated at weaning. True/False

No vaccine--FAlse

119

45. _____________________________ has been proposed for the treatment because it binds the bacterial
toxins.

oral cholestyramine

120

46. Strains of __________________ coding for the ______________ gene are particularly pathogenic in
rabbits.

E. Coli, eae

121

The gene identified in question 46 encodes for what protein? ___________________________

Intimin

122

The protein identified in question 47 is a
A. Toxin producer
B. Outer membrane protein needed for development of attaching and effacing lesions
C. A surface protein that mimics self protein to avoid detection by the immune system
D. None of the above

B, outer membrane protein needed for development and attaching and effacing lesions

123

Which of the following has been identified as a clinical syndrome?
A. Neonatal diarrhea with high mortality
B. Weanling diarrhea with high mortality
C. Weanling diarrhea with low mortality
D. All of the Above

D

124

50. Weanling rabbits typically develop a severe yellow diarrhea with high mortality, while suckling rabbits
usually develop a profuse watery diarrhea with variable mortality depending upon the virulence of the
infecting strain. True/False

False; it is the opposite

125

Match the following with the correct serotype(s):
1. Neonatal diarrhea with high mortality A. O15:H B. O190:H2
2. Weanling diarrhea with high mortality C. O128 D. O103:H2
3. Weanling diarrhea with low mortality E. O132 F. O123

1 = B
2 = A,D
3 = C,E,F

126

Gross necropsy findings may include all of the following except:
A. Thickened and edematous ileal, cecal and colonic walls +/- mucosal ulcerations
B. Swollen edematous kidneys with foci of necrosis
C. Yellow-brown feces within the entire intestinal tract of neonates
D. Watery brown cecal contents +/- serosal hemorrhages

B. Swollen kidneys

127

. Histologic lesions may include:
A. Flattened and disorganized intestinal epithelium
B. Colonies of coliforms attached to the intestinal mucosal surface
C. Neutrophil infiltration of the lamina propia
D. Villus atrophy
E. All of the above

E, all of the above

128

54. Attachment of coliforms to the intestinal mucosal surface and effacement of epithelial cells leads to the
loss of the microvillus border and thus leads to an osmotic diarrhea. True/False

False, secretory diarrhea

129

55. Definative diagnosis requires culture of E. coli from feces followed by somatic and flagellar serotyping
to correlate with a known enteropathgenic strain. True/False

True

130

Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. Commercial vaccines are available
B. Good sanitation is important in stopping the spread of disease
C. Chloramphenicol and neomycin have been used successfully to treat this disease
D. Mortality is the major research complication
E. All of the above are true
F. B, C and D are true

F

131

Treponematosis is caused by ________________ and is related to _________________ (human
syphilis).

Treponema paraluis cuniculi, Terponema pallidum

132

The causative agent is a gram positive cocci. True/False

False, gram negative, spiral shaped rod

133

How is the organism transmitted? ______________________

During breeding

134

60. The typical treponemal lesions occur in the vulvar and preputial areas but other mucocutaneous
junctions can be affected. True/False

True

135

The typical lesions:
A. May resolve after many weeks
B. May cause enlargement of the lymph nodes
C. Begin with swelling and erythema +/- vesicles or papules
D. Progress to ulceration with scaling and crusting
E. Can be considered chronic in nature
F. All of the above

F

136

The two other names for treponematosis are ___________ and __________________.

Rabbit syphilis and venereal spirochetosis

137

63. Clinical evidence is very common in rabbit colonies while serologic evidence of infection is
uncommon. True/False

False: it's the opposite

138

What type of stain can be used to identify the spirochete? ___________________________

Warthrin-Starry Silver Stain

139

Diagnosis can be made by:
A. Culture
B. Demonstration of spirochetes in lesions
C. Serologically by using assays designed to diagnose human syphilis
D. A & C
E. B & C

E

140

What antibiotic is an effective treatment? __________________________--

Penicillin

141

Treatment of all animals simultaneously has not been shown to eradicate the infection from a colony.
True/False

False- it is effective

142

The causative agent of proliferative enteropathy is ______________________.

Lawsonia intracellularis

143

Choose all that apply: The organism is :
A. Gram Negative F. A virus
B. Gram Positive G. Coccoid
C. An obligate intracellular bacterium
D. An extracellular bacterium
E. Curved

A, gram negative
C, Obligate intracellular bacterium
E, Curved

144

The organism is species specific to rabbits. True/False

False: affects hamsters, pigs, rhesus

145

What age group is most commonly affected? _______________________

Weanlings

146

What is the most striking feature grossly at necropsy? ____________________________

Thickening/corrugation of the ileum

147

The organisms are most easily found
A. Within the lumen of the intestines
B. In the cytoplasm of the lymphoctyes in the lamina propia
C. In the cytoplasm of the crypt epithelial cells of the ileum
D. Within the nucleus of the crypt epithelial cells of the ileum

C, in the cytoplasm of the crypt epithelial cells of the ileum

148

How is the organism diagnosed?
A. PCR
B. Histologic identification of the organism in the cytoplasm of crypt cells
C. Immunohistochemistry
D. Culture of the bacteria in cultured enterocytes
E. All of the above

E

149

75. Myxomatosis is endemic in rabbits of the genus ______________________ but fatal in rabbits of the
genus ____________________.

Sylvilagus, Oryctolagus

150

Myxomatosis, the fatal disease, is characterized by
A. Fibroma-like lesions
B. Wart-like lesions
C. Granuloma formation
D. Mucinous skin lesions

D. Mucinous skin lesions

151

How is a definative diagnosis of myxomatosis made? ____________________________

Viral culture

152

How is myxomatosis spread? ___________________________________________________

direct contact, fleas, mosquitos

153

Myxomatosis, the endemic disease is characterized by:
A. Fibroma-like lesions
B. Wart-like lesions
C. Granuloma formation
D. Mucinous skin lesions

A, fibroma like lesions

154

80. How can one distinguish the fibroma-like lesions caused by the fibroma virus from the fibroma-like
lesions caused by the myxoma virus in Slyvilagus? _______________________________________

Inject bibroma material into Oryctolagus rabbits; if they develop fibromas, it is the fibroma virus; if they develop mucinous lesions, it is the myxoma virus

155

Characterize the fibromas caused by the fibroma virus. ________________________________

Flat, SQ, easily moveable tumors

156

Which of the following may be found in a rabbit pox virus infection?
A. Eye lesions consisting of blepharitis, conjunctivitis, keratitis with corneal ulcers
B. Edematous face
C. Wide spread skin lesions
D. Fever and nasal discharge
E. Extensive nodules in multiple organs with widespread necrosis at necropsy
F. All of the above

F, all of the above may be found

157

83. Histologically, multiple characteristic cytoplasmic inclusions typical of a pox virus infection can be
found in a rabbit poxvirus infection. True/False

False, inclusions are rare

158

84. Herpesvirus sylvilagus is known as ______________________ and is isolated from
__________________.

Leporid herpesvirus 1, cottontail rabbits

159

Herpesvirus cuniculi is known as _________________ and is isolated from _________________.

Leporid herpesvirus 2, domestic rabbits

160

The cottontail papilloma virus is used as a model to study _____________ and ____________.

oncogenic virus biology, induction of protective immunity against papillomaviruses

161

Rotavirus is ubiquitous and causes a high rate of morbidity and mortality. True/False

FAlse, rare clinical disease

162

Which of the following are possible disease manifestations of a coronavirus infection?
A. Liver failure
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Kidney failure
D. Diarrhea
E. A & D
F. B & D

F, CHF and Diarrhea

163

Calicivirus causes a disease called ______________________________.

Rabbit hemorrhagic disease

164

What is the only consistent microscopic lesion in calicivirus infections? _____________________

Periportal hepatic necrosis

165

What is the typical cause of death with RHD? ____________________________

DIC

166

RHD can be transmitted by
A. Intestinal secretions
B. Fomites
C. Respiratory secretions
D. All of the Above
E. B & C

D, all of the above

167

Hepatic coccidiosis is caused by _____________________________.

Eimeria stiedae

168

Which of the following statements about hepatic coccidiosis is true?
A. Transmission occurs via fecal-oral route
B. Prevention can be achieved by adding sulfaquinozaline to the feed
C. Most clinical signs develop due to blockage of the bile ducts and the resulting liver
dysfunction
D. Diagnosis can be made by: fecal floatation, oocyst identification in gall bladder exudate,
or on impression smear of cut liver sections
E. All of the above

E, all of the above

169

The greatest mortality from intestinal coccidiosis occurs in geriatric rabbits. True/False

False, post-weanling rabbits

170

Why is frequent sanitation pivotal in prevention of intestinal coccidiosis? ___________________

It requires 3 days for oocysts to sporulate and become infective after shedding into feces

171

98. Immunity to intestinal coccidiosis can be developed through use of an oral vaccine or after infection
with a nonpathogenic strain of Eimeria. True/False

True

172

99. Floroquinolones added to the water is an effective control and prevention of intestinal coccidiosis.
True/False

False, sulfamerazine or sulfaquinoxaline

173

__________________ is the causative agent of encephalitozoonosis and was historically known as

Encephalitozoon cuniculi, Nosema cuniculi

174

Clinical signs of encephalitozoonosis can include
A. Tremors
B. Seizures
C. Motor paralysis
D. Torticollis
E. All of the above

E, all of the above

175

Lesions due to encephalitozoonosis can be seen in the
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Spinal cord
D. Brain
E. All of the above
F. B, C, & D

F: Kidney, Spinal Cord, Brain

176

Organisms can be demonstrated in the histologic lesions. True/False

False, free in the kidney tubules

177

_________________________________ is a characteristic lesion and can be seen in the brain and the
kidneys.

granulomatous inflammation

178

List three ways to diagnose this disease. _______________,_____________,_________________

Histology, serology, indirect fluorescence antibody, PCR

179

What testing methods must be used to eliminate this organism from a colony and why?
_______________________________ _________________________________

Serology; it is latent

180

Encephalitozoon can easily be killed by lysol, formalin or ethanol. True/False

True

181

Psoroptes cuniculi is the causative agent of _______________________ and is a
_________________________.

Psoroptic mange, nonburrowing mite

182

How long is the life cycle of this parasite and how long can it survive off of the host?

21 days, 7-20 days

183

How is this infestation diagnosed? ________________________________

Visualization of mites in exudate via otoscopic exam, or a dissecting scope

184

What are the clinical signs of this infestation? ________________________________________

Pruritis, head shaking, crusty exudate

185

Ivermectin and rotenone have been used successfully to treat this disease. True/False

True

186

Cheyletiella mites are nonburrowing mites and are intensely pruritic. True/False

False, not pruritic

187

What anatomic site is most commonly infested with this parasite?

Scapular area

188

What is the microscopic distinguishing feature of this parasite?

Large curved claw on palpi

189

Cheyletiella is a zoonotic pathogen and can be successfully treated with ivermectin. True/False

True

190

Sarcoptes is a burrowing mite and thus must be diagnosed by ______________________.

Skin scrape

191

Sarcoptes can cause
A. Hair loss and abrasions
B. Intense pruritis
C. Serous encrustations and secondary bacterial infections
D. Amyloidosis is the liver & kidneys in severe infestations
E. All of the above
F. A, B, & C

E, all of the above

192

There isn’t any documented treatment and thus, infested animals should be euthanized. True/False

False, treat with ivermectin

193

Because the oxyuris eggs require 72 hours to become infective once passed in the feces, cleaning cages every
two - three days can be an effective means of controlling this infection. True/False

False, immediately infective

194

. Clinical signs of pinworms include diarrhea, straining and rectal prolapse. True/False

FAlse, no clinical signs

195

Where are mature pinworms located? ____________________ & ________________________

Cecum, colon

196

Which treatments have been effective in eliminating pinworms?
A. Fenbendazole
B. Ivermectin
C. Sulfonamides
D. Piperazine citrate
E. A, B, & D
F. A & D

F, Fenbendazole and Piperazine

197

What is the more contemporary name of Oxyuris ambigua? ________________________________

Passalurus ambiguus

198

125. What two causative agents are the most common cause of ringworm in the infrequent occasion that
laboratory rabbits become infected. _______________________ & ________________________

Trichophyton mentagrophytes, Microsporum canis

199

126. The typical lesions of ringworm can be characterized by
A. Pruritus
B. Patchy alopecia with crusting
C. A circular lesion with a peripheral raised rim of inflammation and broken hairs
D. All of the above

D, all of the above

200

127. What methods are used to diagnose ringworm? __________________________________________

KOH scraping with processing to examine for mycelia or arthrospores

201

128. A negative Wood’s light exam rules out ringworm. True/False

False

202

129. What treatment options are available for ringworm? ____________________________________ _________________________________________________

Griseofulvin, 1% copper sulfate, metastbilized chlorous acid chlorine dioxide

203

130. What is the most common cause of deep or systemic mycoses in rabbits? _____________________

Aspergillus

204

131. Pulmonary aspergillosis lesions can be characterized by
A. Free floating arthrospores within the alveoli
B. Macrospores within the type II pneumocytes
C. Hyphae surrounded by eosinophilic asteroid bodies
D. Mycelia within the type II pneumocytes

C, Hyphae surrounded by eosinophilic asteroid bodies

205

132. Pneumocystis carinii causes pneumonia in ___________________________ rabbits.

immunocompromised

206

133. Clinical signs of gastric trichobezoars include:
A. Vomiting
B. Prolonged anorexia
C. Metabolic disturbances
D. All of the Above
E. B & C

E, anorexia and metabolic disturbance

207

134. What is the most frequent site of fracture in rabbits with a traumatic vertebral fracture injury?

L7

208

135. The common name for ulcerative dermatitis is ____________________________.

Sore hocks

209

136. The area ulcerative dermatitis most frequently affects is ________________________.

Plantar aspects of metatarsal/metacarpal regions

210

Heritable Diseases
137. Lack of vitamin ________ can result in hydrocephalus either due to an inherited inability to
metabolize it, or due to a lack of it in pregnant does.
A. B
B. D
C. A
D. E

C, Vitamin A

211

138. What inheritable eye anomaly is common in New Zealand White rabbits bred for research

buphthalmia, congenital glaucoma

212

Clinical signs hypovitaminosis A typically begin at weaning. True/False

False, 3-4 months of age

213

Clinical signs of hypovitminosis A can include
A. Corneal ulceration and rupture
B. Corneal edema
C. Decreased libido and spermatogenesis in affected males
D. Increased corneal vascularity
E. All of the above

E, all of the above

214

What is the most common inherited disease of domestic rabbits? __________________________

Mandibular prognathism

215

The incisors wear more slowly on the anterior/posterior aspect in rabbits partly because the enamel is
thicker/thinner on this side

Anterior, thicker

216

Rabbits with malocclusion have a normal dental formula. True/False

True

217

144. In rabbits with malocclusion, the maxilla is _____________ in length, while the mandible is
_____________________ in length

short, normal

218

145. The condition characterized by the complete abduction of one or more legs and the inability to
assume a normal standing position is called ______________________________.

Splay leg

219

Inherited self-mutilation behavior occurs in the _______________________.

Checkered cross

220

What is the most common tumor in rabbits? _____________________________

Uterine adenocarcinoma

221

Embryonal nephromas are common tumors and usually result in the death of the neonate. True/False

False, an incidental finding

222

What tumor models had cells that were originally derived from rabbits? ___________________,
______________________, and ________________________.

VX-2 carcinoma, the Brown-Pearce carcinoma, Greene melanoma

223

150. What two types of crystals are normally present in rabbit urine? ___________, ______________

Calcium carbonate; triple phosphate

224

151. Hydrometra typically occurs in female rabbits postpartum. True/False

False, in unmated female rabbits.

225

What is the colliculus seminalis?

A valve like structure at the entrance of the vesicular gland from the urethra which controls release of sperm and vesicular gland secretions in rabbits and prevents entry of urine into reproductive glands.

226

What accessory sex glands are located along the dorsal aspect of the male rabbit urethra?

Seminal gland, vesicular gland, proprostate, prostate, paraprostate and bulbourethral gland.

227

Does the rabbit have an os penis?

NO

228

Why is rabbit urine generally cloudy?

High precipitate concentrations of ammonium magnesium phosphate and calcium carbonate monohydrate