How can members of the order Lagomorpha be differentiated from the order Rodentia?
An additional pair of incisor teeth is located directly behind the large incisors on the upper jaw.
2. Give the genus and species name of the domestic rabbit.
3. Which of the following most accurately describes aspects of the rabbit which make it a good research model?
a. Large ears
b. Readily accessible blood vessels
c. Ideal candidate for antibody production and blood collection
d. Blood flow to the ears is the primary means of temperature control
e. All of the above
4. The majority of rabbits used for research are of the ___________ breed.
New Zealand White
5. Give the term of the practice used by domestic rabbits in recycling protein and B complex vitamins.
6. The mean lifespan of rabbit erythrocytes is _______ days.
7. The rabbit counterpart for the neutrophil is a __________________.
8. Basophils may represent up to _______% of circulating leukocytes.
9. __________________ are usually the predominant leukocyte in the peripheral blood of domestic rabbits.
10. Rabbits are a (fore, mid or hind) gut fermenter.
11. Name the spherical, thick-walled enlargement which is found at the ileocecal junction of rabbits.
12. The ______________ ____________ is a round patch of lymphoid tissue adjacent to the cecum.
13. The _____________ is found at the tip of the cecum.
14. GALT stands for _______-__________________ _________________ _______________
gut-associated lymphoid tissue
15. Brunner’s glands are found in what portion of the small intestine?
16. The pH of rabbit urine is (acidic, alkaline) and contains ____________________ and ___________________ (what type) crystals.
primarily calcium carbonate monohydrate and ammonium magnesium phosphate (triple phosphate) crystals after rabbits begin eating solid food
17. Dark reddish, orange urine is found in the rabbit’s pan liner? What do you suspect is the cause?
a. Normal urine only
b. Elevated levels of urobilin
d. Could be associated with any of the above
18. The rabbit placentation is
Rabbit placentation is hemoendothelial.
19. The _______________________ virus is a benign disease of cottontail rabbits and is used as a model for papillomatosis and virus-induced malignancy. It produces papillomas with a high incidence of progression to squamous cell carcinoma.
20. The natural host of rabbit (Shope) papillomatosis is:
21. The most common oral location for pedunculated oral papillomatosis lesions in domestic rabbits is:
a. dorsal tongue
b. maxillary gingiva
c. mandibular gingiva
d. ventral tongue
22. Which of the following virus types has been isolated from primary rabbit kidney cultures?
a. Pox virus
d. Polyoma virus
23. Give the genus and species name of the “brush rabbit”.
24. What infectious agents of rabbits has been used as a means of biological control for a specific population of rabbits?
Rabbit calicivirus - Rabbit Hemorrhagic Disease
25. Vectors for transmission of myxomatosis include _____________ and ______________.
fleas and mosquitos
26. Shope fibroma virus was first isolated from a cottontail rabbit (provide genus and species name) in the US in 1932..
27. The primary site for viral replication of rabbit pox in the naturally occurring disease is the ____________________________.
28. True or False???? Herpes sylvilagus replicates well in kidney cells prepared from the domestic rabbit, however viral infection of the NZW rabbit has not been successful.
29. Rabbit hemorrhagic disease (RHD) is caused by a:
30. Which of the following diseases have been used as a form of biological control for wild rabbit populations?
a. Rabbit pox
c. Rabbit hemorrhagic disease
d. Leporid Herpesvirus 1 infection
e. both a and b
f. both b and c
g. all of the above
31. Coronavirus infection may be associated with which of the following clinical syndromes:
b. pleural effusion
d. all of the above
32. Rotaviral infection is usually confined to what animal age groups?
sucklings and weanlings
33. Snuffles, atrophic rhinitis, suppurative otitis media, and genital tract infection are characteristic clinical signs of infection with _________________.
34. True or False: Localized suppurative bronchopneumonia is naturally produced in rabbits inoculated intranasally with Bordetella bronchiseptica.
False - experimentally-induce in cortisone treated rabbits
35. CAR Bacillus infection can be demonstrated best by which of the following techniques?
a. silver stain
b. H & E stains
c. electron microscopy
d. both a & b
e. both a & c
36. List 4 of the eight agents now recognized to play a role in the “enteritis complex” of rabbits.
rotaviruses, coronaviruses, Clostridium, E. coli, Lawsonia, Salmonella, Vibrio, coccidian
37. The most common clostridial pathogen associated with the enteritis complex in juvenile rabbits is:
a. C. difficile
b. C. spiroforme
c. C. perfringens
d. E. coli
38. Which of the following microscopic staining methods yields a better demonstration of the characteristic bundles of filamentous bacilli associated with Tyzzer’s disease?
a. Warthin-Starry silver method
c. H & E
d. both a and b
e. both b and c
39. Which of the following characteristics is NOT consistent with enteropathogenic (EPEC) strains of E. coli?
a. cause intestinal disease
b. produce enterotoxins
c. not enteroinvasive
d. none of the above
b. produce enterotoxins
40. True or False: Dutch Belted rabbits naturally infected with enterohemorrhagic strains of E. coli develop renal disease similar to the hemolytic-uremic syndrome seen in humans.
41. What methods can be used to identify bacteria in the apical cytoplasm of the crypt-villus column?
a. Silver stains
b. Periodic-acid Schiff stain
c. Electron microscopy
d. All of the above
42. Which of the following diseases is associated with the following clinical signs: succussion splash, teeth grinding, cecal impaction, cecal dysbiosis and accumulation of large quantities of gelatinous mucus in the colon?
c. Mucoid enteropathy
43. Abortion and sudden death , particularly in does in advanced pregnancy, are characteristic signs of ______________________.
44. “Sore hocks”, or ulcerative pododermatitis, is associated with __________________ infections.
45. Rabbit syphyllis or “vent disease” is caused by _______.
How is diagnosis confirmed?
Dark-field examination of wet mounts is recommended
Silver staining, Plasma Reagin Antibody Test, & Fluorescent Treponemal Antigen Test are also available
46. True or False: Helicobacter does not infect domestic rabbits.
47. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is transmitted via:
a. ingestion of contaminated food or water
b. contaminated bedding
48. True or False: Isospora is the most common genus of coccidia seen in rabbits.
False; Eimeria is more common
49. What are the two most common pathogenic species of intestinal coccidia in rabbits?
E. intestinalis, E. flavescens
50. Enterocyte repair in surviving rabbits following experimental infection with E. intestinalis takes:
a. 2 days
b. 6 days
c. 14 days
d. 21 days
51. Which of the following represents the range of prepatent periods for species of Eimeria in rabbits?
a. 5-12 days
b. 2-3 weeks
c. 1-7 days
d. 4-5 weeks
52. True or False: Clinical signs of Eimeria infection in rabbits is mostly frequently observed in neonatal kits.
False; observed in post-weaning period
53. In rabbits, why does dissemination of “night feces” not seem to play a big role in transmission of coccidia?
oocytes sporulate at room temperature
54. True or False: In rabbits, immunity against one strain of Eimeria gives protection against other strains.
Microscopic changes associated with intestinal Eimeria infections in rabbits are typically found where?
Caudal half of small intestine and cecum
56. Which of the following can be used to diagnose coccidial infections in rabbits?
a. Fecal flotation
b. Mucosal scrapings
d. All of the above
57. What is the most significant genus and species causing hepatic coccidiosis?
58. How soon after ingestion of sporulated oocyts can sporozoitesbe observed in the liver?
a. 12 hrs
b. 24 hrs
c. 48 hrs
d. 96 hrs
59. True or False: In hepatic coccidiosis schizogony occurs in epithelial cells of the bile ducts.
60. What is the prepatent period of Eimeria stiedae?
a. 5-7 days
b. 15-18 days
c. 2-3 weeks
d. 4-6 weeks
61. True or False: E. stiedae most commonly infects weanling rabbits.
62. True or False: Raised, linear bosselated, yellow to gray circumscribed lesions scattered throughout the parenchyma of the liver accurately describes hepatic coccidiosis gross liver findings.
63. True or False: In rabbits infected with E. stiedae, infected bile ducts have hypoplastic epithelium with papillary projections.
False; hyperplastic epithelium
64. True or False: Histologic changes induced by E. stiedae are pathognomonic.
65. True or False: E. cuniculi is an obligate intracellular microsporidian.
66. What are characteristic features of E. cuniculi that have caused taxonimists to place it as a microsporidian and not a protozoa?
Absence of diplokarya observed in protozoa and presence of coiled polar filament in the mature spore stage
67. Encephalitozoonosis causes a more severe disease in which of the following animals?
a. Mice and monkeys
b. Pigs and monkeys
c. Mice and guinea pigs
d. Dogs and monkeys
68. True or False: E. cuniculi can infect rabbits by both oral and respiratory routes.
Initially, which of the following are the main target organs of E. cuniculi?
a. Brain, liver, kidney
b. Liver, spleen, lung
c. Lung, liver, kidney
d. Lung, brain, spleen
c. Lung, liver, kidney
Those with high blood flow
True or False: E. cuniculi spores survive for less than 1 week at 4C, but may remain viable for at least 6 weeks at 22C
71. Which of the following best describes the histological lesions observed with E. cuniculi?
72. True or False: E. cuniculi spores are gram positive.
73. What colour does carbol fuchsin stain E. cuniculi spores?
74. True or False: CNS involvement of E. cuniculi occurs very quickly after infection.
False; 30 d post-exposure
75. In rabbits infected with E. cuniculi, uvetis and cataracts are a common finding in which of the following breeds:
a. New Zealand Whites
d. Dwarf rabbits
76. What staining differentiates Toxoplasma from E. cuniculi?
Toxoplasma: Gram negative, PAS negative, stains well with H&E
E. cuniculi: Gram positive, PAS positive, does NOT stain well with H&E, are acid fast
77. Which of the following is the most widely used diagnostic test for E. cuniculi?
c. Intradermal skin test
78. True or False: There are confirmed cases of E. cuniculi infection in human AIDS patients.
79. True or False: Cyptosporidia is a common primary pathogen in rabbits.
80. What is the natural host for Baylisascaris procyonis?
81. True or False: Embryonation of B. procyonis is a rapid process.
False; takes 30 d
82. How long can a B. procyonis egg survive in the environment?
a. 3 weeks
b. 1 year
c. 6 months
d. 3 months
83. True or False: Humans are at risk of zoonosis from rabbits infected with B. procyonis.
False; rabbit is a dead end host
84. True or False: Psoroptes cuniculi spends its entire life span in the external ear.
85. How is P. cuniculi most easily diagnosed?
Wet mount prep from ear
86. Which stage of Sarcoptes scabiei evokes a hypersensitivity reaction?
The feeding activity of larvae and nymphs
87. Give two contributing factors to barbering.
Boredom and low roughage diets
88. True or False: Exfoliative dermatosis is a pruritic skin disease.
89. Which bacteria is most commonly associated with ulcerative pododermatitis?
90. Where is the most common site of vertebral fracture/dislocation?
Lumbosacral region (L7)
91. What is the common name for Trichobezoar?
92. List 4 contributing factors to the development of gastric trichobezoars.
Insufficient dietary roughage, excessive grooming, poor gastric motility, sedentary lifestyle
93. In which breed of rabbit has cardiomyopathy associated with ketamine/xylazine administration been observed?
94. Finding pale mineralized streaks in musculature on post-mortem in a rabbit would be consistent with which disease?
Vitamin E deficiency
95. List 4 predisposing factors to pregnancy toxemia.
obesity, fasting, hereditary disposition, impaired blood flow to uterus, pituitary dysfunction
96. Mild anemia, tremors and posterior ataxia is consistent with which toxicosis?
97. Congenital glaucoma is most common in which breed?
New Zealand White
98. True or False: Congenital glaucoma is known to be a painful condition.
99. Which of the following describes the inheritance of congenital glaucoma:
a. Sex linked
b. Autosomal recessive with complete penetrance
c. Autosomal dominant
d. Autosomal recessive, with incomplete penetrance
100. In rabbits with malocclusion the _________ is abnormally long relative to the __________.
101. What is the most common spontaneous tumor occurring in Oryctolagus cuniculus?
102. Uterine adenocarcinomas usually spread to the:
a. Lung and liver
b. Lung and kidney
c. Kidney and liver
d. Lung and bone
103. Which virus is associated with lymphoproliferative disorders in cottontail rabbits?
104. True or False: Thymomas are a common tumor indomestic rabbits.
105. Teat and mammary gland enlargement are often associated with which tumor?
pituitary gland tumors