Biochemistry Final Flashcards by Alli Locke

What is the classification of vaccines

Alive weakened pathogens: live attenuated

Dead pathogens: inactivated

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are the types of pathogens used in vaccines

Viruses, bacteria, protein based, polysaccharide based (pure, conjugate)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are live attenuated vaccines

Weakened form of bacteria or virus, similar to natural infection, effective in one dose, possible severe reaction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are some examples of live attenuated vaccines

Measles, Herpes, TB, Typhoid

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are inactivated vaccines

Cannot replicate, generally not as effective, requires multiple doses, humoral immune response, may diminish with time

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are some examples of inactivated vaccines

Hep A and B, HPV, Rabies, Cholera, Plague, Lyme, Toxoid

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is a toxoid

A bacterial toxin whose toxicity has been inactivated or suppressed either by chemicals or heat while immunogenicity is maintained

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is an example of a toxoid

Tetanus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Why is HIV so hard to vaccinate against

Because the virus attacks the helper t cells (the virus’ evolution is too fast)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is acellular vaccine

Only inject pieces of the vaccinations

Just as effective without side effects

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is MMR

3 in one vaccine, Measles, Mumps, Rubella

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are the disadvantages of attenuated vaccines

The virus may very rarely revert to its virulent form and cause disease

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is a subunit vaccine

Hep B surface antigen is produced from a gene transfected into yeast cells and purified for injection as a subunit vaccine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is a recombinant vaccine

genes for desired antigen inserted into virus that has a low virulence

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what are the disadvantages of a recombinant vaccine

dangerous and new/experimental

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the definition of epidemiology, distribution refers to:

Who
When
Where

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the definition of epidemiology, determinants includes

Agents
Causes
Control measure
Risk Factors
Sources
(all of the above)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

John Snow’s investigation of cholera is considered a model for epidemiologic field investigations because it included

all of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

pubic health surveillance includes which of the following activities

B, C, D

case reports, graphs, writing a report

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The hallmark feature of an analytic epidemiologic study is

use of an appropriate comparison group

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cruise ship from puerto rico

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Comparing numbers and rates of illness in a community, rates are preferred for

estimating subgroups at highest risk

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

For the cruise ship scenario described in Question 6, how would you display the time course of the outbreak

epidemic curve

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

For the cruise ship scenario, if you suspected that the norovirus may have been transmitted by ice made or served aboard ship, how might you display place

A, B, C
spot map assigned dinner seating
spot map by cabin
shaded map of united states by state of residence

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which variables might you have included in characterizing the outbreak described in question 7 by person

A, C age of passenger status as passenger or crew

When analyzing surveillance data by age, which of the following age groups is preferred

depends on the disease

a study in which children are randomly assigned is an example of which type of study

A, E experimental clinical trial

The Iowa Women's health study is an example of which type of study

B, C Observational Cohort

British investigators conducted a study to compare measles-mumps-rubella

B, D observational Case control

A cohort study differs from a case control study in that

subjects are enrolled or categorized on the basis of their exposure status in a cohort study but not in a case control study

A key feature of a cross sectional study is that

A, C, D

the epidemiologic triad of disease causation refers to

agent, host, environment

A reservoir of an infectious agent can be

all of the above

Indirect transmission includes which of the following

B, C, D mosquito borne foodborne doorknobs or toilet seats

Disease control measures are generally directed at which of the following

all of the above

40-50 cases per week, last week 48 cases

endemic

fewer than 10 cases per year, last week 1 case

sporadic

usually no more than 2-4 cases per week, last week 13 cases

outbreak

A propagated epidemic is usually the result of what type of exposure

person to person

what do all hepatitis viruses have in common

they all lead to inflammation of the liver

Helicobacter pylori infection may lead to

ulcers

a patient presents with a fever and an elevated white blood cell count. the most likely agent of infection is

a fungus, bacteria, or virus

the rash in the above image is caused by

Borrelia burgdorferi

Botulism differs from tetanus in that

botulism causes flaccid paralysis and tetanus causes spastic paralysis

urinary tract infections are most likely due to

gram negative bacteria

which of the following is an advantage of the organ system approach to disease

knowledge of the organ systems that are experiencing symtpoms is diagnostic of the portal of entry

the blood brain barrier is

all of the above

antibiotics are commonly prescribed for

UTI's

urinary tract infections ca be localized to

all of the above

Clostridium tetani bacteria infections usually occur via

exposure of a wound to C tetani spores

tetanus toxin causes

decreased release of neurotransmitter from inhibitory neurons

which from of plague is easily transmitted from person to person

pneumonic blauge

The Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria

is surrounded by a polysachcaride capsule that makes phagocytosis very difficult

Yersinia pestis is the causative agent of

plague

which of the following is true of Neisseria menigitidis

it enters the cerebrospinal fluid via transcytosis

the cause of crutzfeldt-jakob disease, a spongiform encephalopathy, is most commonly thought to be

a prion

bacterial infection of the blood

bacteremia

selectively permeable membrane that supplies blood to the brain

blood brain barrier

a tick bone disease caused by borrelia bacteria

borreliosis

food borne disease caused by botulinum toxin that causes muscle paralysis

botulism

a disease caused by yersinia bacteria that causes lymph nodes that turn black

bubonic plague

a painless ulceration sore in primary stage syphilis - treponema bacteria

chancre

an obligate bacteria that is an intracellular parasite

chlamydia

transmitted from mother to child, 40% stillbirth, nose pus and rash

congenital syphilis

inflammation of the heart and inner lining

endocarditis

a bulls-eye rash of Lyme's disease

erythema migrans

inflammation of the liver caused by infection or toxins

hepatitis

a lesion of infection or canceric cells that develop to secondary sites away from the site of infection

metastatic lesion

severe skin infection that is called flesh eating disease caused by gram positive streptococca pyogenesis

necrotizing fasciitis

highly virulent and contagious yersinia lung infection

penumonic plague

lesion called a chancre 21 days after infection, treponema bacteria

primary syphilis

an infectious agent that misfolds host proteins and makes them defective

prion

viruses that have non enveloped RNA and cause severe diarrhea in children

rotavirus

6-8 weeks becomes systemic, latent rashes, lesions

secondary syphilis

infection of the blood stream

septicemia

infection of blood by yersinia pestis bacteria

septicemic plague

serious and harmful immunological consequence of cross reaction between host on tigens and bacterial antigens

sequela

brain wasting disease caused by a prion

spongiform encephalopathy

10-30 years, cardiovascular syphilis, neurosyphilis

tertiary syphilis

tetanus causing exotoxin produced by tetani bacteria

tatanospasmin

the movement of a cell from one side of a cell to the other side

transcytosis

the presence of large numbers of virions in the blood

viremia

an infection that normally affects animals but can be transmitted to humans as well

zoonotic disease

what is found in patients with prostate carcinoma, but not in patients that only have benign prostatic hyperplasia

Prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP)

which childhood cancer has bombesin as a tumor marker

neuroblastoma

what cancer is NOT associated with B-hCG

Prostate carcinoma

what tumor marker is extremely elevated in a patient with a hydatidiform mole

B-hCG

what cancer marker is associated with CA-125

surface epithelial tumors of the ovaries

which tumor marker is associated with pancreatic cancers

CEA | CA-19-9

What tumor marker is associated with melanoma

S-100

obstructive billiary disease and paget's disease of the bone have which of the following tumor markers in common

alkaline phosphatase

antibiosis is

an association between organisms that is injurious to one of them

TRUE OR FALSE: prokaryotic cells are human cells that are targeted by bacteria

false

the way in which an antibiotic attacks a pathogenic microorganism is

antimicrobial activity

a super infection is caused by

a pathogen that is resistant to the antibiotic

what destroys many types of bacteria?

broad spectrum antibiotics

TRUE OR FALSE: the bacteriostatic strategy is a direct hit, killing the pathogen

FALSE

what is the spectrum of antimicrobial activity

the number of different types of pathogenic microorganisms that an antibiotic can destroy

sulfanilamide is a

antimetabolite

TRUE OR FALSE the bacteriostasis strategy causes the host' immune system to fight the pathogen through phagocytosis

True

TRUE OR FALSE penicillin is a cell wall inhibitor

True

what did paul ehrlich do

dye that stains bacteria cells and not animal cells | helped with syphilis

what did alexander fleming do

penicillin mold kills bacteria

what type of microbes produce the most antibiotics

???

general side effects of antibiotics

toxicity: KD, LV, nerve damage | allergies

spectrum of activity

antimicrobial medications vary with respect to the range of microorganisms they kill or inhibit

broad-spectrum antibiotics

kills wide range

narrow spectrum antimicrobial

some kill only limited range

5 modes of action of antimicrobial drugs

1. inhibit cell wall 2. inhibit protein 3. inhibit nucleic acid 4. injury to plasma membrane 5. inhibit essential metabolites

what does penicilin do

inhibits cell wall synthesis

what does aminoglycosides do

bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing it to distort and malfunction blocking initiation of translation

what does tetracycline do

bind to 30s subunit blocking attachment of tRNA

what do macrolides do

bind 50s subunit and prevent continuation of protein synthesis

what do rifamycins do

block prokaryotic RNA polymerase from initiating transcription

what does polymyxin do

binds to membrane G-bacteria and alters permeability

what do quinolones do

inhibit enzymes that maintain the supercoiling of closed structural DNA

what do sulfa drugs do

inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites

what are the modes of action of currently used antifungal drugs

1. agents affecting fungal sterols 2. agents affecting fungal cell walls 3. agents inhibiting nucleic acids

what are the modes of action of currently used antiviral drugs

various points of viral reproduction

bacteriostatic

inhibit growth of microorganisms

bactericidal

kill microorganisms

chemotherapeutic index

lowest dose of toxic to patient divided by dose typically used for therapy

synergistic

action of one drug enhances the activity of another

antagonistic

activity of one drug interferes with the action of another

what are the mechanisms of drug resistance

limits use of all known antimicrobials

what are the three tests of efficacy of antimicrobials

1. diffusion susceptibility test 2. minimum inhibitory concentration test 3. minimum bactericidal concentration test

what are the modes of action of Praziquantel

used in treatment of tapeworms by altering plasma membrane

Biochemistry Final Flashcards

(127 cards)