Biology Final Flashcards
(161 cards)
0
Q
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is... A. A somatic cell of a female B. A sperm C. An egg D. A zygote E. A somatic cell of a male
A
B. A sperm
1
Q
What is true concerning cancer cells?
A. They do not exhibit density dependent inhibition when growing in a culture.
B. When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.
C. They are not subject to cell cycle controls.
D. B and C only
E. A, B, and C
A
E. A, B, and C
2
Q
Autosome
A
A chromosome that is not a sex chromosome
3
Q
In eukaryotic cells, the timing of the cell cycle is regulated by proteins called... A. The nuclear envelope B. Spindle fibers C. Centrioles D. Cyclin
A
D. Cyclin
4
Q
Downs Syndrome
A
3 #21 chromosomes
5
Q
Klinefelter’s Syndrome
A
XXY, XXXY, etc
6
Q
Jacob’s Syndrome
A
XYY
7
Q
Trisomy
A
XXX
8
Q
Turner’s Syndrome
A
Only X for the sex chromosome
9
Q
Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n=16?
A. The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell
B. Each cell has 8 homologous pairs
C. The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell
D. During the S phase of the cell cycle, there will be 32 separate chromosomes
A
B. Each cell has 8 homologous pairs
10
Q
If mammalian cells receive a go-ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint, the research team would first see the radioactive thymine
A. In the replicated strands of DNA
B. In the telophase
C. In the non-dividing state of interphase
D. In metaphase
A
A. In the replicated strands of DNA
11
Q
Cell reproduction in prokaryotic cells differs from eukaryotic cells in that
A
Each prokaryotic cell has a circular chromosome but the chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are linearly condensed into chromosomes
12
Q
Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of
A
The random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I.
13
Q
Chiasmata are what we see under a microscope that let us know what has occurred
A
Crossing over
14
Q
Chiasmata
A
The points of contact between paired chromatids during meiosis, resulting in a cross-shaped configuration and representing the cytological manifestation of crossing over.
15
Q
Crossing over
A
Exchange of genes between homologous chromosomes
16
Q
Sister chromatids
A
Corresponding legs of a chromosome that are bound by a centromere; identical
17
Q
Homologous chromosomes
A
Chromosome pairs that code for the same trait but have different structures
18
Q
Chromatin
A
Loosely bound DNA before coiling
19
Q
Chromosomes
A
Are made of coiled DNA with two chromatids bound by a centromere after replication
20
Q
Hydrangea plants of the same genotype are planted in a large flower garden. Some of the plants produce blue flowers and others pink flowers. This can best be explained by
A
Environmental factors such as soil pH
21
Q
Two characters that appear in a 9:3:3:1 ratio in the F2 generation should have what property?
A
Sixteen different phenotypes
22
Q
Two true breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers. All F1 individuals have red, axial flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently. If 1000 F2 offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red, terminal flowers?
A
190
23
Q
Trait
A
A variant for a character
24
Character
A heritable feature that varies among individuals
25
Gene
A heritable unit that determines a character and can exist in different forms
26
In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes located?
Thylakoid membrane and inner mitochondrial membrane
27
During aerobic respiration, electrons travel downhill in which sequence?
Food to NADH to the ETC to oxygen
28
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Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen is present or absent?
A. Chemiosmosis
B. Oxidative phosphorylation
C. Electron transport
D. The citric acid cycle
E. Glycolysis
```
E. Glycolysis
29
When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a byproduct of which of the following?
A. The electron transfer system of photosystem 1
B. The electron transfer system of photosystem 2
C. Splitting of water molecules
D. Forming NADP+
C. Splitting of water molecules
30
A young animal has never had much energy. He is brought to a veterinarian for help and is sent to the animal hospital for some tests. They discover his mitochondria can only use fatty acids and amino acids for respiration, and his cells produce more lactate than normal. What is wrong?
His mitochondria lack the transport protein that moves pyruvate across the outer mitochondrial membrane.
31
After the second agitation of the membrane vesicles, what must be lost from the inner mitochondrial membrane?
ATP synthase, in whole or in part
32
Have sexual spores found in a club shaped cell
Basidiomycota
33
Sexual spores found in sac-like structures
Ascomycota
34
Tough zygospore that can stay dormant for long periods of time
Zygomycota
35
Flagellated spores
Chytridomycota
36
What would happen if mosquitoes disappeared from the Plasmodium life cycle?
The Plasmodium life cycle would be interrupted and the infection could not be passed on.
37
Which term most accurately describes the nutritional mode of healthy P. bursaria?
A mix between autotroph and heterotroph
38
At which location is the mycelium currently absorbing the most nutrients and producing fruiting bodies?
At the outer line of the circle
39
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Which type of fungi have a mutualistic relationship by breaking down nutrients for plants?
A. Parasitic fungi
B. None of the choices
C. Truffles
D. Lichen
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B. None of the choices
40
Which of these are mutualistic partnerships that involves a protist and a host organism?
A. Cellulose digesting protists: wood eating termites
B. Zooxanthellae: coral reefs
C. Giardia: humans
D. All except C
D. All except C
41
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Which of these structures are most likely to be a component of both Chytrid zoospores and motile animal cells?
A. Flagella
B. Haustoria
C. Pseudopods
D. Cilia
E. Pellicle
```
A. Flagella
42
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The Ascomycetes get their name from which aspect of their life cycle?
A. The shape of their spore
B. The type of vegetative mycelium
C. Vegetative growth form
D. Sexual spores
E. Asexual spore production
```
D. Sexual spores
43
Paramecium
Ciliophora
44
Plasmodium
Sporozoa
45
Red algae
Rhodophyta
46
Brown algae
Phaeophyta
47
Common molds
Zygomycota
48
Club fungi
Basidiomycota
49
Spirogyra
Chlorophyta
50
Diatoms
Chrysophyta
51
Euglena
Euglenophyta
52
Volvox
Chlorophyta
53
Dinoflagellates
Pyrrophyta
54
What is the most probable fate of a newly emerging virus that causes a high mortality rate in its host?
The newly emerging virus will die out rather quickly or will mutate to be far less lethal
55
If the vertical axis refers to Darwinian fitness then what is the most valid and accurate measure of fitness?
Number of generations per unit of time
56
If new genetic variation in the experimental populations arose solely by spontaneous mutations, then the most effective process for subsequently increasing the prevalence of the beneficial mutations in the population over the course of generations is
Binary fission
57
The thermoacidophile, Sulfolobus acidocaldarius, lacks peptidoglycan. What is likely true of this species?
Archaean, optimal pH of enzymes lies below 7, could inhabit certain hydrothermal springs
58
Though plants, fungi, and prokaryotes all have cell walls, we place them in different taxa. What observation comes closest to explaining the basis for placing these organisms in different taxa well before relevant data from molecular systematics became available?
Their cell walls are composed of very different biochemicals
59
What is true about prokaryotes?
They divide by binary fission, without mitosis or meiosis
60
What molecule makes up the viral envelope?
Glycoproteins
61
The sneezing, runny nose, and itchy eyes associated with allergies are caused when
Mast cells release histamines
62
What differentiates T cells and B cells?
T cells but not B cells can directly attack and destroy invading pathogens
63
Which of the following might be a child with Bruton's disease (underdeveloped B cells)?
A. John- immature T cells, missing CD4 receptors
B. Denise- low level of antibody response
C. Jeff- no plasma cells
D. Susan- no evidence of a thymus gland
C. Jeff- no plasma cells
64
Some viruses can undergo latency (dormancy), the ability to remain inactive for some period of time. Which of the following is an example?
Herpes simplex viruses whose reproduction is triggered by physiological or emotional stress in the host
65
When will helper T cells be activated?
When an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell
66
Oxygen and carbon dioxide move across respiratory membranes by
Simple diffusion
67
Why is double loop circulation better for larger, more active animals than single loop?
It is difficult for single pump to force blood through the entire system of a large animal
68
What is the simplest form of a nervous system?
Nerve net
69
True or False: mollusks have an open circulatory system where blood flows freely through open spaces called lacunae and sinuses.
True
70
Chitin
A polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of crustaceans
71
Carapace
Hard exoskeleton found in crustaceans
72
Endoderm
Inner layer of the germ layers
73
Karyotype
A display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized according to size and shape
74
What takes place in both mitosis and meiosis?
Separation of sister chromatids
75
What occurs in meiosis and not mitosis?
Synapsis
76
Synapsis occurs during
Prophase 1
77
Independent assortment occurs during
Metaphase 1
78
True or false: the controls on cell division can be turned on and off
True
79
Only _____ can cause genetic diversity in asexual reproduction.
Mutations
80
There are _____ the number of centromeres as chromatids.
Half; example: 20 chromatids=10 centromeres
81
After telophase 1, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is
Haploid; two chromatids
82
What is nondisjunction?
When the chromosome pairs don't separate during anaphase
83
What results from nondisjunction during meiosis 1?
Two n+1 gametes and two n-1 gametes
84
What results from nondisjunction in meiosis II?
Two normal, one n-1, and one n+1
85
Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis?
To allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled or breaking
86
What happens during meiosis?
Reduction division, Synapsis, independent assortment, crossing over
87
The daughter cells at the end of mitosis have ______ number of chromosomes and _______ amount of DNA as their parent cell during G1.
The same; the same
88
Oncogenes
BAD
89
Proto-oncogenes
GOOD
90
Chromosomes form tetrads during
Prophase 1 of meiosis
91
If a p53 is mutated, the cell will
Continue to divide
92
P53 is like
The brake
93
If spindle fibers are disrupted, cell cycle will stop at
Metaphase
94
What could result in a tumor?
Over division of cells and lack of appropriate cell death
95
Substitution
One base is changed to another
96
Deletion
One base is deleted
97
Insertion
One base is inserted
98
Frameshift mutations
Result in all of the following codons being changed
99
What fuses in middle of plant cell during cytokinesis?
Golgi apparatus vesicles
100
______ wraps DNA into _______.
Histone; nucleosomes
101
During what stage does coiling occur?
Prophase
102
3:1 ratio suggests
Heterozygous parents
103
Roan coats are an example of
Codominance
104
To get 1 red: 2 roan: 1 white
Roan x roan
105
A cross between individuals heterozygous for a single character
Mono hybrid cross
106
A cross between an individual with an unknown genotype and homozygous recessive individual
Testcross
107
ETC pumps H+ ions into
The mitochondrial intermembrane space
108
What requires ATP?
Calvin Cycle
109
What produces oxygen?
The light reactions
110
Produces NADPH?
Light reactions
111
Requires carbon dioxide?
Calvin Cycle
112
Produces three carbon sugars
Calvin cycle
113
Requires glucose
Neither the light dependent or Calvin cycle
114
_____ carbons produced by each turn of the citric acid cycle.
2
115
How much ATP is generated by each turn of the citric acid cycle?
1
116
In cellular respiration, where are the proteins of the ETC located?
Mitochondrial inner membrane
117
End products of glycolysis?
ATP, NADH, and pyruvate
118
Cellular respiration harvests the most chemical energy from what?
Chemiosmotic phosphorylation
119
The splitting of carbon dioxide occurs
Never!! Neither in photosynthesis nor in respiration
120
What occurs during Calvin cycle?
Regeneration of carbon dioxide acceptor, oxidation of NADPH, consumption of ATP, and carbon fixation
121
Why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved?
Found in cytosol, doesn't involve oxygen, present in most organisms
122
NADH makes _______ ATP
3
123
FADH2 makes _______ ATP
2
124
RNA and ATP are both
Nucleotides
125
Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules while cellular respiration...
Releases it
126
During cellular respiration, oxygen
Acts as a receptor for electrons and hydrogen
127
1 molecule of glucose broken down during cellular respiration makes ______ ATP
36-38
128
Krebs cycle occurs in
Mitochondrial matrix
129
When yeast do through fermentation, _____ is produced.
Ethanol (alcohol)
130
In photosynthesis, chemiosmosis translocates protons from
The stroma to the thylakoid space
131
Carbon dioxide is released during
The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coA
132
Substrate level phosphorylation
Making ATP without ATP synthase
133
Find photosystem II...
Test for liberation of oxygen in the light
134
Trypanosoma and Plasmodium both
Can frequently change their surface proteins
135
Lichens are symbiotic associations of fungi and
Cyanobacteria or green algae
136
Fungi and Protists
Are eukaryotes
137
Fungi and bacteria
Can both go through extracellular digestion
138
Protists exchange genetic material during
Conjugation
139
Sporozoans are
Parasitic
140
_________ would benefit most if their fungi competitors died.
Prokaryotes
141
Amoebas feed by
Phagocytosis
142
Plasmodium is
A sessile organism
143
Which Protists get nutrients from absorbing molecules from other organisms through their cell walls and membranes?
Water molds
144
This phylum includes yeast and penicillin species
Ascomycota
145
All fungi are
Heterotrophic eukaryotes
146
Cytoplasmic projection
Pseudopod
147
True or false: Yeast are multicellular fungi.
False; unicellular
148
What is the basic structure of a virus?
DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat
149
Photoautotrophs use
Light as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source
150
Can survive with oxygen or without oxygen
Facultative anaerobes
151
Must have oxygen
Obligate aerobes
152
Can't be in the presence of oxygen
Obligate anaerobes
153
What three characteristics classify prokaryotes?
Shape, movement, how they get energy
154
Rabies
Example of zoonosis
155
Which is an example of a vector and the disease it spreads?
The deer tick and Lyme disease
156
The body's most important nonspecific defense is
The skin
157
HIV kills
Helper T cells
158
Four types of animal tissue are
Nervous, epithelial, muscle, and connective
159
What do scientists rely on to classify animals?
Embryological development and adult body plans for ALL animals
160
A coelom is a body cavity completely lined with
Mesoderm
