Birds Flashcards
(123 cards)
1
Q
Scientific name of zebra finch
A
Taeniopygia guttata
2
Q
Scientific name?
A
Taeniopygia guttata
3
Q
Organism found in zebra finches. ID?
A
Macrorhabdus ornithogaster
4
Q
Mite found in zebra finch. ID?
A
Neocheyletiella parvisetosa
Skin mite that produces silken capsule-like nests on feathers
5
Q
Primary differential for adult female zebrafinch?
A
Egg yolk coelomitis
6
Q
Primary differential for aged female zebra finch?
A
Ovarian tumor
7
Q
Primary differential for zebra finch with clinical presentation shown?
A
Avian polyomavirus- see discreet nodules, unilateral periorbital swelling
IN inclusion bodies on histopath
8
Q
Cause of lesions in quail?
A
Toe balls due to accumulation of fecal material, food, bedding, and male cloacal gland foam
9
Q
Scientific name and which of these is male, L or R?
A
Coturnix japonica, male is on L
10
Q
A
11
Q
Common name of Serinus canaries
A
Canary
12
Q
Common name of Sternus vulgaris
A
European starling
13
Q
Common name of Lonchuria striata domestica
A
society finch
14
Q
Common name of Passer domesticus
A
house sparrow
15
Q
Common name of Melopsittacus undulatus
A
Budgeriar
16
Q
Scientific name of Japanese quail
A
Coturnix japonica
17
Q
Scientific name of chicken
A
Gallus domesticus
18
Q
Scientific name of turkey
A
Meleagris gallopovo
19
Q
Scientific name of pigeon
A
Columba livia
20
Q
Primary research use of zebra finches
A
Social and motor behaviors, acoustic learning and communication
21
Q
What is a song motif?
A
stereotyped sequence of syllables repeated in a linear sequence in song
22
Q
At what age do zebra finches demonstrate mature songs?
A
80-90 days post hatch
23
Q
T/F: The anterior forebrain pathway is used for both vocal learning and repitition of the adult song.
A
F- it is only used for vocal learning
24
Q
Describe the chromosomal sex determination of birds.
A
ZZ = male, ZW = female
25
at what age is a zebra finch considered a: hatchling?
1-20dph
26
at what age is a zebra finch considered a: fledgling?
21-35dph
27
at what age is a zebra finch considered a: juvenile?
36-65dph
28
at what age is a zebra finch considered a: adult?
91-365dph
29
at what age is a zebra finch considered a: mature adult?
\>1yr
30
What type of feet do zebra finches have?
anisodactylous--\>3 digits forward, 1 back
31
Which side of the reproductive tract is most of ten reproductively active in birds?
left
32
T/F: zebra finches are seasonal breeders.
F
33
How long is the incubation period for zebra finches?
11-14d
34
How do you screen for Chlamydophila or Mycobacterium in zebra finches?
PCR of cloaca
35
Serology is performed for what viral agents in zebra finches?
avian influenz,a paramyxovirus
36
How much space should be provided to zebra finches?
1 cubic foot/bird (no regs)
37
T/F: Zebra finches should be 'rested' from breeding by removing nest materials and boxes for a month twice per year.
T
38
What temperature should zebra finches be housed at?
70-80F
39
Signs of a sick bird?
Obvious wounds, unexpected feather loss, partially closed eyes, open-mouth breathing, irregular body contour (swelling/ruffling), abnormal perch stance, reluctance to move
40
T/F: clipping the toe of a perching bird to obtain blood is acceptable.
F- unacceptable
41
How can blood be drawn from birds?
R jugular, basilic vein, tibiotarsal vein, ulnar vein
42
What should be avoided with intracoelomic injections in birds?
Air sacs
43
Males jabbing or pecking at the head of an opponent is known as what behavior?
bill fencing
44
A female zebra finch presents with a swollen caudal coelom, tenesmus, and tail bobbing. How should you treat your primary differential?
Primary ddx: egg binding; treat with supplemental heat, diluted calcium gluconate, rehydration, prostaglandin E2 gel; if needed can try manual removal but rarely works
45
T/F: Oxytocin should be given to dystocia cases in birds.
F- oxytocin doesn't cause uterine contraction in birds
46
Clinical signs of paramyxovirus 3 (PMV-3)?
neurologic signs, diarrhea, respiratory
47
Avian paramyxovirus 1 is most commonly known as what disease?
Newcastle disease
48
Clinical signs of avian influenza in zebra finches?
sudden death, unthriftiness, respiratory and neuro signs
49
Which strain of influenza results in severe signs and high mortality in zebra finches?
H5N1
50
What virus causes discreet SQ nodules and unilateral periorbital swelling in zebra finches?
polyomavirus
51
Histology of avian polyomavirus
intranuclear inclusion bodies in multiple organs
52
What are characteristics of avipoxvirus in finches?
high mortality in rosy finches, see characteristic Bollinger body intracellular inclusions
53
2 most common mycobacteria in zebra finches?
M. avium avium (m reported), M. genavense (m common)
54
3 zoonotic diseases from zebra finches?
Mycobacterium avium, Salmonella, Campylobacter jejuni, Chlamydophila psittaci, avian flu
55
How should mycoplasmal conjunctivitis in zebra finches be treated?
tetracycline, enrofloxacin, tylosin; or ciprofloxacin eye drops
56
Coccidia that affect zebra finches?
Isospora, Eimeria, Cryptosporidium (rare), Sarcocystis, Neospora caninum
57
Flagellates that affect zebra finches?
Trichomonas, Cochlosoma
58
What is the ventricular roundworm of zebra finches?
Acuaria skrjabini
59
2 zoonotic mites from zebra finches?
Dermanyssus gallinae, Ornithonyssus sylvarium
60
Hyperkeratotic lesions on the beak base and feet are characteristic of what?
Quill mites or scaly mites, Knemidocoptes pilae
61
How are mites treated?
permethrin, ivermectin
62
Primary research use of quail?
developmental biology, endocrinology, aging, immunology, behavior, genetics, reproductive biology
63
Order of quail?
Galliformes
64
Incubation period for quail?
16d
65
Incubation period for chickens?
21d
66
How to differentiate quail cells from chicken cells in chimeras?
Schiff's reagent- quail nuclei stain intensely, chicken nuclei don't
67
What is the preferred amniote model for molecular studies?
mouse
68
What is the preferred amniote model for live imaging?
birds
69
Quail are a model for what disease that results in myotonic dystrophy and acid maltase deficiency?
Pompe's disease
70
Quiver is a neurofilament-deficient mutant in what species?
japanese quail
71
What gland in quail is equivalent to the mammalian prostate?
Proctodeal gland or cloacal gland in males
72
Aged female quail are a model for what disease?
osteoporosis
73
What is the advantage of using quail in aging studies?
hypothalamic systems in quail exhibit neuroplasticity, bone physiology is dynamic
74
How to sex Japanese quail?
Males are slightly smaller, see cloacal foam with gentle manual pressure on gland
75
What is the purpose of lower field myopia for quail?
Allows focus on ground and horizon simultaneously
76
Auditory range of quail?
1-4kHz best
77
An animal showing behavioral components of dust bathing without having this enrichment provided is showing what behavior?
vacuum dust bathing
78
T/F: quail require perches
F- they are ground dwelling and don't use them often
79
How many chromosomes do Japanese quail and hcickens have?
78
80
How can quail be genotyped immediately after birth?
Chorioallantoic membrane on the shell fragments of freshly hatched eggs, feather blood cells, Southern blot
81
At what temperature should quail eggs be kept prior to incubation?
13C
82
How much space should be provided for each quail?
0.25ft2
83
How high should quail cages be?
20-25cm
84
At what temperature should quail be kept?
22-25C
85
A high cholesterol diet results in what condition in quail?
Hypercholesterolemia and atherosclerosis
86
How should quails and chickens be restrained?
Pinning wings against body and letting legs hang or cupping around the wings with both hands
87
When do quail reach sexual maturity?
6-8w
88
What is female puberty in production poultry?
Average age of first egg laid for the flock
89
What is sexual maturity in production poultry?
time at which egg production of the flock reaches 50%
90
When is male puberty for production poultry?
First appaerance of secondary sex characteristics like crowing and production of foam
91
What temperature should quail eggs be incubated at?
38C, 50-65% RH
92
Most common cause of injuries in quail?
Traumatic pecking to the head and back of neck
93
What can decrease the incidence of pecking injuries in poultry?
not using multi-male breeding groups, trimming beak and nails
94
Male quail get what tumor most often?
Sertoli cell tumor
95
Three most significant infectious viruses of quail?
quail bronchitis virus, Newcastle virus, EEE
96
What type of virus is quail bronchitis virus?
type 1 avian adenovirus
97
Age most often affected by quail bronchitis virus?
\<6w
98
Necropsy findings of quail bronchitis virus?
tracheal opacity, thickening of trachea with partial obstruction, mucosal exudate; basophilic intranuclear inclusions; necrosis of spleen, liver, cloacal bursa
99
Clinical signs of newcastle disease?
subclinical, lethargy, ruffled feathers, dyspnea, torticollis, paralysis, hemorrhagic diarrhea
100
Necropsy findings of Newcastle disease?
tracheal hemorrhage, pulmonary edema, proventricular hemorrhage, intestinal congestion
101
Genus of EEE?
arbovirus
102
Transmission of EEE?
arthropod vectors; cannibalism
103
Characteristic finding of EEE in quail?
duodenal catarrhal enteritis
104
Causative agent of egg drop syndrome?
duck adenovirus A
105
Causative agent of hydropericardium syndrome?
fowl adenovirus serotype 4
106
Most common disease caused by herpesvirus in quail?
Marek's disease
107
Primary differential for weight loss, blepharitis, conjunctivitis, blindness, crusty papules at the commissures of the beak and external nares, and decreased egg production in quail?
quail poxvirus
108
Encephalomyelitis, ganglionitis, and proventricular lymphoid hyperplasia are characteristic of what disease?
avian encephalomyelitis virus
109
Japanese quail are the natural host for what virus associated with reticulum cell neoplasia and lymphoma?
reticuloendotheliosis virus (retrovirus)
110
What causes quail disease?
Clostridium colinum
111
Causative agent of fowl typhoid
Salmonella gallinarum
112
Causative agent of pullorum disease
Salmonella pullorum
113
most common infectious bacterial disease in poultry
E. coli
114
T/F: Campylobacter leads to acute gastroenteritis resulting in rapid death in most birds.
F- they recover and show few clinical signs
115
Causative agent of fowl cholera
Pasteurella multocida
116
Ag Guide limits for ammonia exposure in birds?
25ppm ideally, don't exceed 50ppm
117
Can nest boxes be added to the floor space when calculating space requirements for birds?
No (Ag Guide)
118
Vertical distance between tiers of aviary caging for Ag poultry should be max how far apart?
0.5-1m
119
Horizontal distance between tiers of aviary caging for Ag poultry should be max how far apart?
0.8m if they will fly between them; at least 2m if not
120
Height of tiers for aviary caging in Ag poultry should be a max of what height?
2m
121
Chickens raised under USDA organic provisions must have access to what?
outdoor space
122
Poorly sized perches for poultry result in what?
Keel malformations
123
What are standard agricultural practices for poultry?
beak trimming, toe trimming (only benefits turkeys), snood removal (only if \<3w), dubbing (comb/wattle removal, only if in cages where they will be injured), pinioning (not ok), induced molt (non-fasting better than fasting)
