Dogs Flashcards
(180 cards)
1
Q
Scientific name of the dog
A
Canis lupus familiaris
2
Q
Family of dogs?
A
Canidae
3
Q
Order of dogs?
A
Carnivora
4
Q
Most common breed of dog used in research?
A
beagle
5
Q
Gray collies are a model for what?
A
cyclic hematopoiesis
6
Q
Golden retrievers are a model for what?
A
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
7
Q
What are the genetics of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
A
x-linked recessive deletion of dystrophin gene
8
Q
Doberman pinschers are a model for what?
A
hereditary canine spinal muscle atrophy; narcolepsy
9
Q
Bedlington terriers are a model for what?
A
Copper storage dz (Wilson’s dz)
10
Q
A breeder who raises all animals on their premises from a closed colony is what type of dealer?
A
Class A
11
Q
A breeder who purchases dogs from other facilities to sell to research is what type of dealer?
A
Class B
12
Q
Can NIH researchers use dogs from Class B dealers?
A
No as of 2015
13
Q
What are conditioned dogs?
A
random-source dogs that have been treated and vaccinated in preparation for research
14
Q
What is AAFCO?
A
Association of American Feed Control Officials
15
Q
What does AAFCO do?
A
Advisory body that provides mechanism for feed standards
16
Q
What is an open-formula diet?
A
defined concentration of all ingredients, info publicly available
17
Q
What is a closed-formula diet?
A
diet that meets minimum label requirements; exact composition of ingredients may vary from batch to batch and information isn’t publicly available
18
Q
What is a fixed-formula diet?
A
Quantitative ingredient formulation doesn’t change but info is proprietary
19
Q
What is a purified diet?
A
Formulated from purified ingredients
20
Q
How long after the mill date does feed expire?
A
6 mo
21
Q
What age beagles have the best conception rates?
A
2-3.5yo
22
Q
Length of gestation in dogs?
A
60-65d
23
Q
A vaginal smear from a bitch shows intermediate and superficial cells, RBCs, and neutrophils with some anuclear squames. What stage of estrus is she most likely in?
A
proestrus
24
Q
A vaginal smear from a bitch shows mostly anuclear squames and superficial cells. What stage of estrus is she most likely in?
A
estrus
25
A vaginal smear shows mostly intermediate cells with superficial cells, squames and neutrophils. What stage of estrus is she most likely in?
early diestrus
26
When a dog is in anestrus, what is seen on the vaginal cytology?
small numbers of parabasal and intermediate cells
27
What type of placentation do dogs have?
Endotheliochorial deciduate zonal placentation
28
What hormone is responsible for pregnancy maintenance in dogs?
progesterone
29
What effects does progesterone have during pregnancy?
endometrial gland growth, uterine milk secretion, placental attachment, inhibition of uterine motility
30
What is a possible predictor of impending parturition in dogs?
temperature drop to less than 100F
31
What is the Ferguson reflex?
Oxytocin release as a fetus engages the cervix
32
What are the three stages of parturition?
1- cervical dilation
2- expulsion of fetuses
3- expulsion of placenta
33
When should veterinary care be sought for a dog in parturition?
No pups for >5hrs or >2hrs between pups
34
When do puppy eyes open?
12d
35
When do puppy ears open?
12-20d
36
When are puppies weaned?
6-8w
37
What type of catheter is used for transcervical catheterization for intrauterine AI?
Norwegian AI catheter
38
What is the hormonal cause of pseudopregnancy in dogs?
Decreasing progesterone at the end of diestrus leads to clinical signs
39
What is the socialization period of dogs with other dogs? With people?
3-8w for other dogs
| 5-12w for people
40
Most common causes of canine infectious respiratory disease?
Bordetella bronchiseptica,
Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus,
Canine parainfluenza virus,
Canine influenza virus
41
Clinical signs of a mild respiratory infection?
Acute onset loud, dry, hacking cough with cough elicited on tracheal palpation
42
Transmission of Bordetella bronchiseptica?
Aerosoll, direct contact
43
Diagnosis of canine respiratory disease?
clinical signs, known history of exposure, isolation in nasal swabs
44
How is kennel cough treated?
reserve abx for severe/persistent infection since dz course is 10-14d regardless of tx; give supportive care +/- bronchodilators
45
What is the most common Group C streptococcus to infect dogs?
Strep zooepidemicus
46
T/F: Strep zooepidemicus is commensal in healthy dogs.
No- opportunistic pathogen
47
A dog dies peracutely. Necropsy reveals bulls-eye lesions on the pleural surface of affected lobes. What is your primary differential?
Strep zooepidemicus
48
Your facility has an outbreak of canine respiratory disease due to Strep zooepidemicus. How do you control it?
Quarantine affected dogs, disinfect fomites
49
What types of Leptospirosis cause renal and hepatic disease?
Canicola, Bratislava, Grippotyphosa
50
What types of Leptospirosis cause primarily hepatic disease?
Icterohaemorrhagiae, Pomona
51
What are clinical signs of acute leptospirosis in dogs?
lethargy, depression, stiffness, vx, anorexia, renal or hepatic failure
52
.What reproductive sequelae are associated with leptospirosis?
Abortion, stillbirth
53
Peracute death with interstitial nephritis with gross renal swelling, lung swelling, and hepatic foci of hemorrhage and necrosis are characteristic of what disease in dogs?
leptospirosis
54
What is the first-line treatment for leptospirosis?
doxycycline + aggressive fluid therapy
55
T/F: Most dogs are asymptomatic carriers of Campylobacter jejuni.
T.
56
What pathology is associated with Campy jejuni enterotoxin?
Dilated, fluid-filled bowel loops with few histo lesions
57
What pathology is associated with Campy jejuni cytotoxin?
friable, hemorrhagic mucosal surface with ulceration
58
What stain is used to visualize Campy jejuni?
Warthin-starry silver stain
59
How is Campylobacter diagnosed?
Culture, dark field/phase contrast microscopy
60
How is Listeria diagnosed?
Paired serology for surveillance, PCR for active cases
61
What two types of Helicobacter infect dogs?
Gastric group,
| Enterohepatic group
62
What allows gastric Helicobacters to survive in the stomach?
Urease +
63
What stain is used to identify Helicobacter in dogs?
Warthin-starry silver
64
The urea breath test has a high specificity and sensitivity for diagnosis of what organism?
gastric Helicobacter
65
Carnivore protoparvovirus 1 is more commonly known as what?
Canine parvovirus strain 2
66
Which parvovirus strain causes disease in adult dogs?
2c
67
What cells does canine parvovirus have a tropism for?
rapidly dividing cells in intestine, bone marrow, lymphoid tissues
68
How is parvo diagnosed?
fecal ELISA; PCR for strain identification; post-mortem histology
69
What are characteristic histologic findings of canine parvo?
necrosis and dilation of intestinal crypt cells with secondary villous collapse
70
What are the three stages of rabies?
prodromal, furious, paralytic
71
How is rabies definitively diagnosed?
IFA of virus in negri bodies of hippocampal cells within 48hrs of death
72
How is Giardia diagnosed?
direct fecal smear, zinc sulfate, SNAP test (expensive and gives false positives)
73
How is Toxocara canis transmitted?
Transplacental, transmammary, fecal-oral
74
What are the two most common hookworm species of dogs?
Ancylostoma caninum, A. braziliense
75
What should be given to pregnant bitches to prevent transplacental transmission of ascarids?
fenbendazole between GD 40- 2w of lactation
76
What should be used to treat hookworms in young puppies?
Pyrantel pamoate (safest)
77
Young 2-week old puppies present with dairrhea, anemia, and hypoproteinemia. What is a primary differential?
hookworms (too young for whips)
78
What is required for infection with cestodes?
Ingestion of intermediate host
79
How is Demodex canis transmitted?
direct contact between dam and nursing pups
80
What are treatments for generalized demodicosis?
Milbemycin, ivermectin, Bravecto (Fluralaner), Nexgard (afoxolaner)
81
What is the primary significance of ticks in dogs?
vectors of infectious diseases
82
What genus of ticks is most associated with tick paralysis?
Dermacentor
83
What is the most common flea of dogs?
Ctenocephalides felis
84
What is an important consideration for treating fleas?
must treat both the animal and the nevironment
85
What type of hypothyroidism is most common in dogs?
Secondary hypothyroidism
86
Lymphocytic thyroiditis is encountered most often in what breed?
beagles (also golden retrievers, doberman pinschers)
87
A dog presents with obesity, decreased activity level, occasional tenesmus, and patchy areas of alopecia mixed with hyperpigmented areas. The dog's symptoms get worse when the dog run is colder. What is your primary differential?
hypothyroidism
88
How is hypothyroidism treated?
L-thyroxine
89
Which form of thyroid hormone should be measured for diagnosis of hypothyroidism?
T4 (thyroxine)
90
How much caloric restriction in dogs leads to safe weight loss?
60% of calculated energy requirement for an ideal weight
91
A dog on a weight loss plan is losing 1-2% of his BW per week. How do you adjust the plan based on this information?
Keep it the same- this is the ideal rate of loss
92
A wound created under aseptic conditions is classified as what type of wound?
clean
93
A wound that occurred recently and has minimal contamination is what type of wound?
clean-contaminated
94
A wound that occurred several hours ago and is grossly contaminated is what type of wound?
contaminated
95
A wound with purulent exudate is classified as what type of wound?
dirty
96
What is the ideal pressure for lavaging wounds?
8psi (35mL syringe w 19ga needle)
97
Closure at the time of initial wound therapy is what type of closure?
Primary
98
Closure within 3-5 days of wounding, prior to GT bed formation is what type of closure?
delayed primary
99
Closure of a wound after 5 days, when a GT bed is formed, is what type of closure?
Delayed
100
Allowing a wound to granulate without surgical intervention is what type of closure?
Second intention healing- not a closure
101
What is the treatment for decubital ulcers or pressure sores?
Providing padding, rotating q2h if pt is recumbent, drying and cleaning if urine scald is affected, use a donut bandage to prevent pressure over the ulcer
102
What dogs are predisposed to acral lick granulomas?
Dobermans and other large breed dogs
103
How are acral lick granulomas treated?
E-collar with topical/systemic tx; behavior modification and relief of boredom
104
Elbow hygromas are most common in what type of dog?
large/giant breed dogs <2yo
105
What stain is used to visualize corneal ulcers?
fluorescein stain
106
Where should central lines be placed to prevent mechanical trauma to the right atrium and tricuspid valve?
CVC only
107
A dog with a chronic catheter presents with hypothermia, pale MM, tachypnea, tachycardia, hyperthermia, and band neutrophils on a smear. What is your primary differential?
Shock due to sepsis
108
What are the three aims of treatment for dogs with sepsis?
(1) support cardiovascular system
(2) remove septic focus
(3) block systemic response with inflammatory mediators
109
Adult respiratory distress syndrome and associated respiratory failure may occur secondary to what condition?
aspiration pneumonia associated with oral gavage or anesthesia
110
What are the four types of burns?
thermal, chemical, radiation, electrical
111
What is the most common cause of burns in dogs?
inappropriate use of external heat causing thermal burns
112
What type of pain is still present with burns even though nerve endings are damaged
inflammatory pain
113
What is the most important part of a treatment regimen for burns?
analgesia
114
Extravascular doxorubicin can be treated with what?
dilution with saline, local hyaluronidase + warm compresses, DMSO
115
Perivascular vinblastine can be treated with what?
dilution with saline, local hyaluronidase + warm compresses
116
Thiacetarsemide injection can be treated with what?
local lidocaine + saline
117
What is the mechanism for radiation burns?
O2 free radical formation
118
How long should you wait before administering radiation to a surgical site?
at least 7 days
119
How long after radiation treatment should surgery be avoided and why?
for 1-2mo because it impedes wound healing
120
Most common tumor in male beagles?
Lymphoma
121
Most common tumor in female beagles?
mammary tumors
122
Hypercalcemia is associated with what neoplastici conditions?
AGASACA, lymphoma
123
What immunophenotype are cutaneous lymphomas commonly identified as?
CD8+
124
What stain differentiates lymphoblastic markers, allowing characterization of lymphomas?
CD34 stain
125
How do mast cell tumors stain with CD34?
positive
126
What is the most common skin tumor in dogs?
mast cell tumor
127
What stain is used to identify mast cell granules?
Toluidine; also wright's, Giemsa, Romanowsky
128
What systemic effects can a mast cell tumor have?
release of histamine results in gastric ulcers and immune system derangements + possibility of metastasis
129
What system is used to stage mammary tumors?
TNM (tumor size, LN involvement, metastasis)
130
Are mammary gland tumors more common in the cranial or caudal mammary chain?
caudal
131
What margins should be removed with mammary tumors?
2cm
132
What is the oldest known continuously passaged somatic cell line?
canine TVT
133
How do TVTs interfere with research studies?
tumor-specific IgG production that interferes w immunologic research
134
95% of intact males will have what condition by 9 years of age?
BPH
135
What is the difference between BPH in dogs and humans?
humans have stromal hyperplasia; dogs have glandular hyperplasia
136
Best treatment for BPH?
castration
137
Canine BPH is used to model what?
ultrasonic histotripsy treatments
138
Juvenile polyarteritis syndrome is seen in what 2 breeds?
beagles, welsh springer spaniels
139
What is the etiology of juvenile polyarteritis syndrome?
autoimmune necrotizing vasculitis
140
How is juvenile polyarteritis treated?
chronic corticosteroids?
141
What two breeds are predisposed to interdigital cysts?
GSD, beagle
142
What is cherry eye?
prolapse of the gland of the nictitating membrane
143
What is a sequela of excision of the nictitating gland vs reduction with cherry eye?
KCS
144
Who's going to pass boards?
You are! If you keep studying...
145
Space requirement for a dog <15kg per the Guide?
8ft2
146
Space requirement for a dog <30kg per the Guide?
12ft2
147
Space requirement for a dog >30kg per the Guide?
24ft2
148
What is the height requirement for dog enclosures per the AWR?
height + 6in
149
What is the space requirement for dogs per the AWA?
(L+6)^2/144 + 5%/puppy
150
How many dogs can be transported together by truck or train?
4
151
How many dogs can be transported together by air?
2 if <9kg, <6mo of age
152
A transport crate has ventilation on 2 sides. What are the requirements?
16% per side, 14% of total surface area
153
A transport crate has ventilation on 3 sides. What are the requirements?
8% on 2 sides + 50% of one side, 14% of total surface area
154
A transport crate has ventilation on 4 sides. What are the requirements?
8% of the surface area of each side
155
How wide must the rims be on ventilated surfaces?
0.75in
156
What are the labelling requirements for crates?
Live Animals in 1in letters + the direction the crate should sit in
157
Indoor dogs must be kept at what temperatures?
50-85F
158
How long can the temperature go below 45 or above 85F for dogs?
<4hrs
159
How often must dogs be checked in transit?
Every 4 hours, + when possible for air
160
What are the required dimensions for a circular dog tag?
1.25in diameter
161
What are the required dimensions for an elliptical dog tag?
2x0.75in
162
What information must be on dog tags?
USDA
facility ID
animal ID
163
How long must dog tags be kept after a dog is euthanized or dies?
1 year
164
How long do facilities have to wait before reusing the tag number?
at least 5 years
165
What is the form number used to record inventory of dogs and cats?
Form 7005- Record of Acquisition and Dogs and Cats on Hand
166
What is the form used to record dogs who leave the faiclity?
APHIS Form 7006- Record of Disposition of Dogs and Cats
167
What is the APHIS Form 7001?
USDA health certificate
168
What holding period is required for dogs acquired by a dealer or exhibitor?
5 days
169
How long do pound or shelter dogs have to be held after acquisition?
10 days
170
A dog from the pound was held for 10 days on stray hold before transfer to the humane society. It was just picked up b ya rescue. How long does the rescue have to hold it before offering it for adoption?
24 hours- the hold period was satisfied elsewhere
171
A dog is emaciated, heartworm positive, and in fulminant heart failure after being picked up by a shelter. Does it need to wait the 10 day holding period prior to euthanasia?
No
172
A dog was purchased by a dealer from a breeder. Does it still need to undergo the 5-day holding requirement?
No- only 24hrs
173
What is the minimum age to transport a dog?
8 weeks + weaning
174
How old must a dog be for a rabies vaccine to be valid for APHIS importation?
12 weeks
175
For dogs imported into the US, how recently must a dog have been vaccinated against rabies?
at least 30 days, no more than 12 months
176
How many dogs can be housed in the same primary enclosure?
12
177
How old do puppies have to be to be housed with an adult dog who is not the dam or foster dam?
4 months
178
Individually housed dogs have to be provided the opportunity to exercise when they are older than what age?
12 weeks
179
How often does an exercise exemption for dogs need to be reviewed?
Every 30 days
180
Where must ventilation openings be located in transport enclosures?
At least 1/3 in the upper half of the crate
