sheep and goats Flashcards
(155 cards)
1
Q
Order for sheep and goats?
A
Artiodactyla
2
Q
Scientific name of sheep
A
Ovis ares
3
Q
Scientific name of goats
A
Capra hircus
4
Q
Scientific name of beef cattle
A
Bos taurus
5
Q
Scientific name of zebu cattle
A
Bos indicus
6
Q
Main use of medium wool breeds
A
meat sheep
7
Q
Southdown, suffolk, and hampshire are examples of what?
A
meat or medium wool breeds of sheep
8
Q
Toggenburg, La Mancha, and Saanen are examples of what?
A
dairy goat breeds
9
Q
Kiko, boer, and pygmy are examples of what?
A
meat breeds of goat
10
Q
Holstein-Friesian, jersey, and brown swiss are examples of what?
A
dairy cattle breeds
11
Q
Which of the following breeds may have a red and white mottled coat color?
a. Jersey
b. Ayrshire
c. brown swiss
d. guernsey
e. holstein
f. all of the above
g. ayrshire, guernsey, and holstein
h. ayrshire and guernsey
A
g. ayrshire, guernsey, and holstein (there are red and white holsteins)
12
Q
Angus, hereford, and simmental are examples of what?
A
beef cattle breeds
13
Q
What areas of research are sheep used in?
A
production ag
cardiac
reproductive techniques
genetics
14
Q
Is the polled trait dominant or recessive in goats?
A
dominant
15
Q
How does the polled trait relate to hermaphroditism in goats?
A
Sex-linked recessive trait associated with the polled gene that results in intersex offspring when they are homozygous
16
Q
What are nubian goats a model for?
A
beta mannosidosis
17
Q
How many chromosomes do sheep have?
A
54
18
Q
What breed of sheep is a model of congenital thyroid goiter?
A
merino
19
Q
Corriedale sheep are a model of what disease?
A
Dubin-Johnson syndrome (congenital hyperbilirubinemia d/t hepatic organic anion excretory defect)
20
Q
Dubin-Johnson syndrome (congenital hyperbilirubinemia d/t hepatic organic anion excretory defect) is found in which breed of sheep?
A
corriedale
21
Q
Southdown sheep are a model for what disease?
A
Gilbert’s syndrome (congenital hyperbilirubinemia d/t hepatic uptake defect)
22
Q
Gilbert’s syndrome (congenital hyperbilirubinemia d/t hepatic uptake defect) is found in which breed of sheep?
A
southdown
23
Q
Rambouillet are a model for what disease?
A
gamma-glutamyl carboxylase deficiency (see decreased vit K coagulation factors)
24
Q
Dorset are a model for what disease?
A
glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (x-linked recessive)
25
suffolk sheep are a model of what disease?
GM1 gangliosidosis
26
Fainting goats are a model for what disease?
inherited caprine myotonia congenita (Thomson's disease)
27
A newborn Nubian kid goat from an inbred research herd presents for inability to rise and a mildly domed skull. What is your primary differential?
beta mannosidosis (lysosomal storage disease)
28
A 6 month old suffolk sheep presents for gradually worsening ataxia over a period of 1-2 months. What congenital disease should be on your differential list?
GM1 gangliosidosis (lysosomal storage disease)
29
What areas of research are goats used in?
```
antibody production
immunology
mastitis, nutrition, parasitology
genetic diseases
osteoporosis
```
30
Inherited cardiomyopathy and leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome are congenital disorders present in what breed of cattle?
holstein
31
Lipofuscinosis is found in what breed of cattle?
Ayrshire
32
Glycogenosis is found in what breeds of cattle?
Shorthorn
| Brahma
33
Hemochromatosis and beta mannosidosis are congenital disorders found in what breed of cattle?
Salers
34
A holstein calf presents for exam due to lack of weight gain and apparent growth stunting. She has a history of recurrent pneumonia as a calf and currently has marked neutrophilia on bloodwork. What congenital condition should you have on your differential list?
bovine leukocyte adhesion deficiency
35
What are the 6 most important things to screen sheep for?
(1) Coxiella burnetii
(2) Contagious ecthyma
(3) Caseous lymphadenitis (CLA)
(4) Johne's disease
(5) Ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP)
(6) Parasites
36
At a minimum, what should sheep be vaccinated against?
Tetanus
| Clostridial disease
37
What are the 6 most important things to screen goats for?
(1) Coxiella burnetii
(2) Caprine arthritis encephalitis (CAE)
(3) Brucellosis
(4) Tuberculosis
(5) Johne's disease
(6) Parasites
38
What dry bulb temperatures are recommended for farm animals and poultry?
61-81F
39
How much space is required for a single sheep weighing <25kg?
10ft2
40
How much space is required for a single sheep weighing <50kg?
15ft2
41
How much space is required for a single sheep weighing more than 50kg?
20ft2
42
How much space is needed for each pair-housed sheep weighing <25kg?
8.5ft2
43
How much space is needed for each pair-housed sheep weighing <50kg?
12.5ft2
44
How much space is needed for each pair-housed sheep weighing more than 50kg?
17ft2
45
How much space is needed for each sheep in a flock of 5+ weighing <25kg?
7.5ft2
46
How much space is needed for each sheep in a flock of 5+ weighing <50kg?
11.3ft2
47
How much space is needed for each sheep in a flock of 5+ weighing more than 50kg?
15ft2
48
T/F: BUN is a good indicator iof renal function in ruminants.
F- metabolism of urea nitrogen by rumen microflora alters this assay
49
What type of sheep are the most gregarious?
fine-wooled breeds
50
What type of sheep are often solitary?
long-wooled breeds
51
T/F: To restrain sheep, it is ok to hold them by the wool.
F- this can damage both the wool and the underlying skin
52
What is the biggest risk of using chain link fencing with sheep and goats?
Horns or feet getting c aught
53
What are the parts of the stomach in ruminants?
rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum (ROAR)
54
What is the true stomach in ruminants?
abomasum
55
What volatile fatty acids are produced in the rumen?
acetic, propionic, butyric acid
56
What is the main source of energy in ruminants?
volatile fatty acids (propionic acid, not glucose)
57
In what tissues does lipogenesis occur in sheep?
adipose and mammary tissue (not liver like other species)
58
By what process do neonates absorb intestinal Ig in colostrum?
pinocytosis
59
What are hemal lymph nodes?
small nodules associated with blood vessels that contain RBCs in sheep and deer
60
Is a surgical adrenalectomy possible in sheep?
No- they have accessory adrenal tisuse interspersed throughout the abdomen
61
What type of placentation do ruminants have?
epitheliochorial cotyledonary
62
What are the infolded functional unit of the placenta called?
placentome
63
What is the cycle length of sheep?
14-19d
64
What is the cycle length of goats?
18-24d
65
Gestation length of sheep and goats?
150 days
66
What is crutching?
removing wool around perineal and mammary area prior to birth- ok to do
67
What is mulesing?
Removing skin folds in perineum- not ok to do
68
Which of the following is most likely to need intervention to assist the kids after parturition?
a. A sheep with twins
b. A cow with twins
c. A cow with a singleton
d. A goat with triplets
e. A goat with twins
a. A sheep with twins
69
How should colostrum be treated to prevent transmission of caprine arthritis encephalitis?
heat treat for 1 hr at 131F
70
Causative agent of lumpy jaw?
Actinomyces bovis
71
Causative agent of anthrax?
Bacillus anthracis
72
Causative agent of enterotoxemia or struck?
C. perfringens type C
73
Causative agent of pulpy kidney dz?
C. perfringens type D
74
Causative agent of bighead, black disease, or red water?
C. novyi
75
Causative agent of blackleg?
C. chauvoei
76
Causative agent of malignant edema?
C. septicum
77
Causative agent of caseous lymphadenitis?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
78
Causative agent of silage disease?
Listeria monocytogenes
79
Causative agent of Johne's disease
Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis
80
You have had heavy rainfall after an especially dry summer. Three older ewes out in the pasture die acutely with unclotted hemorrhage from the nose and mouth. They have incomplete rigor mortis. What is a primary differential?
anthrax
81
How is anthrax diagnosed?
Clinical signs, blood smear, culture (don't do this yourself)
82
How should samples be collected from an animal with suspected anthrax?
Collect blood from recently dead animal for culture. DO NOT necropsy, especially in animal areas.
83
A goat has small pustules at the teats, axilla, and perineum. What is the most likely diagnosis and treatment?
Caprine staphylococcal dermatitis. Treat with medicated shampoos and extra enrichment to prevent rubbing
84
A ewe with a retained placenta two weeks ago has third eyelid prolapse and severe bloat. You notice she is standing stiffly. What is your primary differential?
tetanus
85
Two of your rams fought 3-5 days ago. You notice one of them now has severe edema of the head and neck. What is a bacterial differential?
Clostridium novyi
86
You ran your calves through the chute to deworm them. One of the largest presents lame within hours and is found dead the next morning. On necropsy, the lame leg has necrosis and emphysema of the muscle. Primary differential?
blackleg d/t Clostridium chauvoei
87
How is CLA diagnosed?
ELISA, smear of exudate or LN aspirate, culture
88
An older ewe presents with chronic wasting and pasty feces. What is your primary differential?
Johne's disease (M. paratuberculosis
89
What is the primary method of transmission of Johne's within endemic herds?
neonates nursing from infected dams
90
How is Johne's disease treated?
Test and cull
91
Causative agent of wooden tongue?
Actinobacillus lignieresii
92
Causative agent of vibriosis?
Campylobacter
93
2 most common agents associated with contagious foot rot?
Dichelobacter nodosus
| Fusobacterium necrophorum
94
Causative agent of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitiis?
Moraxella bovis
95
What clinical signs are associated with Brucella infection in sheep and goats?
3rd trimester abortion
96
What is the most common Brucella species in sheep and goats?
Brucella melitensis
97
What Brucella species causes orchitis in sheep?
Brucella ovis
98
How is brucellosis transmitted?
Ingestion of infected tissues or fluids
99
What vaccines are used for Brucella?
RB51 live vax in cattle
| B. melitensis Rev 1 strain vaccine for sheep/goats
100
How should foot rot be treated?
Manual trimming, local antibiotics, foot bath, improve husbandry
101
What are clinical signs of Q fever in sheep?
late abortion, stillbirth, weak lambs
| OR asymptomatic
102
How is Coxiella burnetii treated?
oxytetracycline
103
What BSL level should be used for lab procedures involving Coxiella burnetii?
BSL2
104
What BSL level should be used for procedures involving inoculation, incubation, harvesting cells, or necropsy of animals infected with C. burnetii?
BSL3
105
What type of virus is Jaagsiekte?
Type D retrovirus
106
What is the causative agent of ORF?
contagious echthyma, a parapoxvirus
107
A ram presents with crusting of the face and nose and cyanotic mucous membranes. Some of the ewes this year had lambs with arthrogryposis. What is your primary differential?
bluetongue virus
108
Bluetongue has a tropism for what cell type?
endothelial cells
109
What ruminant is most likely to be asymptomatic when infected with foot and mouth disease?
goats
110
You've had a higher than normal rate of stillbirth in your sheep flock this year. One of the surviving lambs has tremors, hirsutism and mild tendon contracture. What is your primary differential?
border disease (pestivirus)
111
Developmental defects are associated with border disease infection at what gestational age?
45-80 GD
112
Persistent infection is associated with border disease infection at what gestational age?
80+ GD
113
In what genus and family is Caprine arthritis and encephalitis virus?
genus Lentivirus
| family Retroviridae
114
What is the most important viral disease of goats?
caprine arthritis and encephalitis
115
Clinical signs of caprine arthritis and encephalitis
>6mo- stiffness, lameness, laminitis, mastitis, pneumonia
| 2-6mo- paresis progressing to tetraplegia, blindness, ataxia, head tilt
116
What sheep virus is in the same genus as CAE and causes weakness, weight loss, and progressive pulmonary disease in sheep?
Ovine progressive pneumonia
| Visna Maedi virus
117
What are the two most common causes of viral diarrhea in small ruminants?
Rotavirus
| Coronavirus
118
Some older sheep in a flock of suffolks are noted for having intention tremors and uncoordinated movement. Several have abrasions and ulceration of the skin in places they have been furiously itching. What is your primary differential?
scrapie
119
How is scrapie diagnosed?
tonsil from deceased sheep
| third eyelid from live sheep
120
What chromosomal sites govern susceptibility to scrapie?
Codons 136, 154, 171
121
What phenotype is most resistant to scrapie?
Sheep with RHA alleles
122
What is the most important parasite of small ruminants?
Haemonchus
123
What is the causative agent of red water or Texas cattle fever?
Babesia bigemina
124
What is the main clinical sign of Neospora caninum in cattle?
abortion
125
You have several 2-week-old lambs with copious hemorrhagic diarrhea. One has rectal prolapse. What is the primary parasitic differential?
Eimeria (coccidiosis = bloody scours)
126
What is the primary clinical sign of Toxoplasma gondii in sheep?
Fetal resorption, abortion, weak infants
127
What is the primary clinical sign of Toxoplasma gondii in goats?
abortion and death
128
What diarrheal organism of young ruminants can be diagnosed with iodine, acid-fast, PAS or methenamine silver stain of feces?
Cryptosporidium
129
Nasal bots are the larval form of what parasite?
Oestrus ovis (botfly)
130
How should nasal myiasis be treated?
ivermectin in early fall, fly repellant
131
You work in the SE US and see a deer with an open wound that has some maggots in it. The maggots have two dark lines running down the head. What is your primary differential?
Cochliomyia hominivorax
132
What are sheep keds?
Melophagus ovinus, wingless fly
133
Most common dermatophyte of ruminants?
Trichophyton mentagrophytes
134
What is spider lamb syndrome?
Hereditary chondrodysplasia
135
feeding leguminous hay or grains like barley, corn and soybean meal can result in what condition of ruminants?
frothy bloat - stable froth that can't be expelled
136
What is the causative agent of grass tetany?
hypomagnesemia on lush pasture
137
Hypocalcemia can result in what condition in ruminants?
parturient paresis, milk fever
138
What is the prognosis for pregnancy toxemia in goats?
Poor- 80% mortality
139
How is pregnancy toxemia diagnosed in ruminants?
clinical signs, ketonuria, ketonemia, hypoglycemia (<25)
140
A buck presents for intermittent arched back, raised tail, kicking at his belly, and occasional tenesmus. What is your primary differential?
urinary calculi
141
What type of calculi are most common in small ruminants?
calcium phosphate
| ammonium phosphate
142
How is urolithiasis treated?
Amputation of urethral appendage, PU
| Increase dietary roughage and salt, add ammonium chloride to the diet to acidify urine
143
Copper deficiency results in what clinical signs?
blindness, ataxia, depigmented uncrimped wool
144
Copper toxicity in sheep results in what clinical signs
anemia, icterus, weakness, recumbency, death
145
What characteristic gross lesions are present at necropsy in sheep with copper toxicity?
gunmetal kidneys
| icterus in multiple organs
146
What is the causative agent of white muscle disease?
selenium/vitamin E deficiency
147
Thiamine deficiency results in what clinical signs?
polioencephalomalacia- blindness, CNS signs
148
What is the shock organ associated with anaphylaxis in ruminants?
lung
149
What is the most common neoplasm of sheep?
viral lymphosarcoma/leukemia
150
What is the most important neoplasm of goats?
thymoma
151
What are the most common neoplasms in cattle?
lymphoma, SCC
152
When was AMDUCA passed?
1994
153
What does AMDUCA stand for?
animal medicinal drug use clarification act
154
What does AMDUCA do?
regulates extra-label drug use in food animals
155
What is the veterinary feed directive?
requires veterinary written authorization for drugs used in or on animal feeds
NO EXTRA-LABEL USE
