Block 2 #2 Flashcards
(115 cards)
1
Q
What are the 5 forces that would act on fracture?
A
Bending
Torsion
Tension
Compression
Shear
2
Q
What is the shear force?
A
Compressive force directed along oblique fracture line
3
Q
What are 6 configurations of fractures?
A
Transverse
Oblique
Spiral
Comminuted
Segmental
Avulsion
4
Q
What is a configuration fracture?
A
Perpendicular to axis
Bending
5
Q
What is a short oblique fracture?
A
<2x bone diameter
6
Q
What is a long oblique fracture
A
> 2x bone diameter
7
Q
What force causes an oblique fracture?
A
Shear force
8
Q
What is a spiral fracture?
A
Oblique fracture with a twist
Torsional force
9
Q
What is a comminuted fracture?
A
More than 2 pieces
10
Q
What is a segmental fracture?
A
At least 2 distinct fracture lines that isolate a cylindrical intermediate segment of bone
11
Q
What is an avulsion fracture?
A
Pull of a ligament or tendon causes bone to pull away
12
Q
When is the classification of open fractures?
A
Gustilo-Anderson Open Fractures
13
Q
Increasing grade of Gustilo-Anderson equals what?
A
Worse prognosis
14
Q
What is Type 1 Gustilo-Anderson?
A
Small skin wound (<1cm)
inside to out
15
Q
What is a Type 2 Gustilo-Anderson?
A
> 1cm skin wound
outside to in
16
Q
What is a Type 3 Gustilo Anderson?
A
Extensive soft tissue damage
17
Q
What is a Type IIIa Gustilo Anderson?
A
IIIa = good soft tissue coverage despite extensive lacerations/flaps
18
Q
What is a Type IIIb Gustilo Anderson?
A
IIIb = Extensive soft tissue loss and bone exposure. Requires reconstructive surgery
19
Q
What is Type IIIc Gustilo Anderson?
A
Arterial injury associated with open fracture - requires arterial repair
20
Q
What does gas opacity over a fracture in radiographs mean?
A
That it is an open fracture
21
Q
What is the #1 open fracture place for dogs? cats?
A
Radius ulna for dogs
Femur for cats
22
Q
What is post traumatic osteomyelitis?
A
Bone infection resulting from trauma that allows bacteria to get in
23
Q
What is the source of chrondrocytes?
A
Groove of Ranvier
24
Q
What is between Groove of Ranvier and metaphysics?
A
Ring of LaCroix
25
Does growth plate have a vascular supply?
NO
26
Does a pressure or traction growth plate cause growth?
Pressure
27
What percent does the distal ulna contribute to growth
100%!
28
What is the classification for growth plate fractures?
Salter Harris
29
What is type I Salter Harris?
Straight across
30
What is type II Salter Harris?
Growth plate and metaphysis
31
What is type III Salter Harris?
Growth plate and epiphysis
32
What is type IV Salter Harris?
Growth plate, epiphysis, metaphysis
33
What is type V Salter Harris?
Crushing of growth plate
34
What is Salter Harris pneumonic?
Have to imagine metaphysis at top and epiphysis at bottom
S=Straight across
A = Above
L = lower
T = Through
ER = cRush
35
Can you see a Salter Harris V in radiographs?
NO
36
What is Salter Harris VI?
Local avulsion/groove of Ranvier disruption
37
What is a valgus deformity?
Lateral deviation of limb distal to deformity
38
What is a varus deformity?
Medial deviation of limb distal to deformity
39
What does a shortened limb usually cause?
Angulation of the limb (either valgus or varus)
40
Which Salter Harris lesion causes OA?
III and IV because it involves articular surface
41
How do you describe the displacement of fracture?
Describe displacement of distal segment relative to proximal
42
How do you know if a fracture is chronic or acute?
Acute if soft tissue swelling
43
What does a displacement of any part of pelvis imply?
At least 2 fractures
44
What are the 3 joints of the elbow?
Humeroradial
Humeroulnar
Proximal radioulnar
45
What is the weight bearing joint of the elbow?
Humeroradial
46
What is the Campbell's test?
Pronation and supination of the elbow
47
What will ALL dogs with elbow dysplasia get?
Arthritis!
48
What is FCP?
Fragmented coronoid process
49
What is OCD?
Osteochondritis dessicans
A piece of bone separated over tiem
50
What is UAP?
Ununited anconeal process
51
Is anconeal process top or bottom of bone?
Top
52
Is coronoid process top or bottom of groove?
Bottom
53
Where will a short radius put pressure?
coronoid process (FCP)
54
Where will a short ulna put pressure?
Anconeal process (UAP)
55
What does IOHC stand for?
incomplete ossification of humoral condyle
56
When is union of humoral condyle?
Should be at 10 weeks
57
What are the 6 diseases of elbow dysplasia?
FCP - fragmented coronoid disease
UAP - ununited anconeal process
OCD - osteochondritis dessicans
Incongruity
IOHC - incomplete ossification of the humoral condyle
58
What animals does osteochondritis occur in?
Young, rapidly growing animals
59
How does osteochondrosis appear on radiographs?
A flat region on the head of the bone
60
How does osteochodrosis dessicans appear on radiographs?
Small mineral fragment on the head of the bone
Flat spot plus bone mineralization (flap)
61
What word can you describe an osteochondrosis lesion as?
cyst-like appearance in boneq
62
What is the result of elbow dysplasia?
Joint incongruity
63
What is the triad of disease for elbow dysplasia?
Ununited anconeal process
Fragmented coronoid process
Humeral OC
64
What is the most common cause of elbow dysplasia?
FCP
65
What is panosteitis?
Medullary sclerosis near nutrient foramen
66
What is hypertrophic osteodystrophy (HOD)
Periosteal proliferation around metaphyses
67
What is craniomandibular osteopathy?
Often occurs with HOD
proliferation on mandibles
68
What is avascular necrosis of the femoral head and how is it different from hip dysplasia?
Disruption of blood supply to femoral head causing necrosis
Hip dysplasia doesn't cause necrosis as well as joint space widening
69
What is femoral neck metaphysical osteopathy?
Apple core appearance of CATS
70
What exactly is laminitis?
Rotation and sinking of P3
71
Is moth eaten aggressive or non aggressive?
Likely aggressive
72
What is permeative bone destruction?
Numerous small, ill-defined holes (sponge-like)
73
Is permeative bone aggressive or non aggressive?
Very aggressive
74
What can be said about lesion transition in terms of aggressive vs non-aggressice
Long zone of transition tends to be more aggressive than a short zone
75
Where does primary bone neoplasia arise?
Inside bone
76
Where does metastatic neoplasia arise?
Outside of bone
77
What are infected bone lesions called? (aggressive)
Osteomyelitis
78
What is discospondylitis?
Infection of intervertebral discs and adjacent vertebral bodies
79
What is a sequestrum?
Fragment of devascularized bone due to trauma
80
What are the categories of erosive arthropathies?
immune mediated (multiple joints)
infection (one or more)
neoplasia (single joint)
81
What are the categories of non-erosive arthropathies?
Immune-mediated
Effusion only
DJD with time
82
What is another name for degenerative joint disease?
Osteoarthrosis
83
What causes DJD?
Trauma, infection, neoplasia, instability, developmental
84
What radiographic findings are found on DJD?
Basically anything abnormal
85
What does sclerosis show up as on radiographic findings?
Increased bone opacity
86
What is hip dysplasia characterized by?
Hip laxity
87
Will hip dysplasia usually affect both hips?
YES
88
What test is done for hip dysplasia?
Abduction-relocation
89
What is Legg Calve Perthe disease (LCP)?
Non-inflammatory aseptic necrosis of femur head and neck
Toy breeds and terriers
90
In which direction is the hip luxated?
craniodorsal
91
Which direction are the toes rotated?
Valgus (laterally)
92
What is the last chronicity: Acute, chronic, __________
pseudoacetabulum (may not have to treat)
93
What is an avulsion luxation?
Femoral head is still there but pulls chunk of bone out
94
What is chronic femoral capital physeal fracture?
apple-core remodeling
(Related to early neuter and obesity in male cats)
95
How do infections usually enter closed joints?
urogenital infection
96
What is the magic number for hip dysplasia?
105 degrees
97
How many branches of the cranial cruciate are there?
2
98
What is the cranial cruciate's main job?
Stop tibia from moving forward (cranial drawal)
Internal tibial rotation
Stifle hyperextension
99
Will dogs have a tear on the opposite side soon?
50% in 1-2 years
100
~~~~What are the landmarks of the cranial drawer test?
Fabella
Patella
Tibial tuberosity
Fibular hear
101
What are the 2 tests that can be done to determine cranial cruciate tear?
Cranial drawer
Tibial compression test
102
What may also be affected during a cranial cruciate tear?
MEDIAL meniscus
103
What is typically diagnostic of meniscal involvement?
Mensical "click"
104
What does MPL stand for?
Medial patella luxation
105
What does LPL stand for?
Lateral patella luxation
106
What is coxa vara?
Decreased femoral neck angle
107
What is coxa valga?
increased femoral neck angle
108
What is coxa vara indicative of?
MPL
109
What is coxa valga indicative of?
LPL
110
What is grade I luxating patella?
Luxation by force onle
111
What is grade II luxating patella?
Luxates easily but still rides in groove
112
What is grade III luxating patella?
Can be manually reduced but wants to stay out
113
What is grade IV luxating patella?
cannot be reduced
114
How do you diagnose a luxating patella?
Medial and lateral luxation to move patella out
115
What is a disease that predisposes dogs to luxating patella?
Distal femur angular deformity
