Block 6 Week 1 Flashcards
(588 cards)
1
Q
When do the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd molars erupt in a horse?
A
2.5
3.5
4.5
2
Q
When are the newly erupted teeth “in wear”?
A
6 months
3
Q
What is the number of the canine in the triadian system?
A
04
4
Q
What sex usually has canines?
A
Males
5
Q
What is the number of the wolf tooth?
A
05
6
Q
What may happen where a wolf tooth NEEDs to be extract?
A
Blind wold tooth
7
Q
When do foals deciduous teeth firth errupt?
A
01 = 6d
02 = 6w
03 = 6m
8
Q
What equine teeth have caps?
A
06, 07, 08
9
Q
What is the last tooth to errupt?
A
08
10
Q
How many teeth are a foal born with?
A
12 (4 arcades with 3 premolars each)
11
Q
What type of feed will develop larger points?
A
Hay (vs pellets)
12
Q
Why does hay develop larger points?
A
Larger role powerstroke required
13
Q
What is the toxicity/bacteria from clover called?
A
Slobbers
14
Q
What is dropping of feed called?
A
Quidding
15
Q
What is the most common clinical sign in dental-related sinus (sinusitis) disease?
A
Unilateral nasal discharge
16
Q
What is the most common tooth for infection?
A
09
17
Q
What is the hardest part of the tooth?
A
Enamel (96% mineralized)
18
Q
What is the tooth made of from the outside in?
A
Cementum > Enamel > Dentin
19
Q
What does floating do?
A
Removes sharp enamel points
20
Q
What are cheek teeth enamel overgrowths?
A
Points
21
Q
Where are hooks most common?
A
Maxillary 2nd premolar (106 and 206)
22
Q
Where are ramps most common?
A
Mandibular 3rd molar (311 and 411)
23
Q
What is a step?
A
Excessive crown often due to opposing missing tooth
24
Q
What is the equivalent of a cavity in a horse?
A
Infundibular caries
25
What tooth is most affected by dental diseases?
09 tooth
26
What is the definition of an infundibular caries?
Progressive acidic demineralization secondary to bacterial fermentation
27
What does EOTRH stand for?
Equine Odontoclastic Tooth Resorption and Hypercementosis
28
What is EOTRH?
Tooth resorption and destruction in addition to cemental deposition.
Mainly proliferative (hypercementosis)
29
What is the pathophysiology of EOTRH?
Aged mouth has less periodontal ligament but exposed to same masticatory force. Continued stress causes micronecrosis and release of cytokines leading to recruitment of clastic cells
30
What is the mean age of diagnosis?
24
31
What is deglutination?
Act of swallowing
32
What are the 3 steps to deglutination?
Oropharyngeal phase
Esophageal phase
Gastroesophageal phase
33
What are the 3 steps to the oropharyngeal phase?
Oral
Pharyngeal
Cricopharyngeal (UES relaxation)
34
What are clinical signs associated with swallowing disorders?
Dysphagia
Regurgitation
Hypersalivation
Exaggerated swallowing
35
What is esophagitis?
Inflammation disorder of esophageal mucosa
36
What are 3 exogenous causes of esophagitis?
Caustic agents / chemicals
Foreign bodies
Drugs (pill-induced)
37
What is an endogenous cause of esophagitis?
Gastric reflux
Theres no protection from stomach acid above the LES
38
What is a very common predisposing cause of reflux esophagitis?
General anesthesia
39
What is a very common drug to cause esophagitis via pill-induced esophagitis?
Doxycycline
40
What causes the prognosis of esophagitis to decreases significantly?
Healing with stricture
41
What is the gold standard to diagnose esophagitis?
Endoscope
42
What are the most common sites for esophageal FBs?
UES
Thoracic inlet
Heart base
LES
43
Need to refer an esophageal FB is you dont have an endoscope ASAP
44
What is most common cause of an esophageal stricture in a cat?
Doxycycline/clindamycin tablets in CATS
45
List 2 other causes of esophageal strictures
Gastroesophageal reflux during anesthesia
Secondary to foreign body
46
What are 2 diagnostics for esophageal stricture?
Barium swallow study
Endoscopy
47
What is a congenital malformation of great vessels and branches that entraps the intrathoracic esophagus?
Persistent right aortic arch (PRAA)
48
Esophagus runs right under the aortic arch so if there is a ligamentum arteriosum, it will squeeze the esophagus
49
What is clinical sign of PRAA?
Regurgitation of solid food at weaning (young)
50
What is the most common type of megaesophagus?
Idiopathic
(Congenital or acquired)
51
What is the second most common type of megaesophagus?
Myasthenia gravis
52
What is a large risk associated with megaesophagus?
Regurgitation resulting in recurrent aspiration pneumonia
53
Should you do a barium swallow study for megaesophagus?
NO!! RISK OF ASPIRATION
54
What is a diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis related megaesophagus?
AchR antibody titer test
55
What is the vomiting center only found in cats?
Vestibular center
56
What are the 2 vomiting centers in dogs and cats?
Abdominal viscera
Chemoreceptor trigger zone
57
What vomiting zone does hydrogen peroxide work on?
Abdominal viscera
58
What vomiting center does apomorphine work on?
Chemoreceptor trigger zone (delta 2)
59
What vomiting center does xylazine work on?
Chemoreceptor trigger zone (alpha 2)
60
What is closed during vomiting to inhibit aspiration?
Glottis and nasopharynx
61
What does it mean if vomiting undigested food >10hrs post consumption?
Delayed gastric emptying
62
What does it mean if it is projectile vomiting?
Gastric or upper small bowel obstruction
63
Will a dog reingest vomitus?
NO
64
What is seen normally in primary GI diseases?
Vomiting AND diarrhea
65
What is seen in normally in extra-GI diseases?
Vomiting
66
What are some common extra-GI diseases that may cause V+?
Acute/chronic pancreatitis
Acute/chronic Liver disease
acute/chronic kidney disease
Hypoadrenocorticism
Sepsis
67
***What are extra GI-diseases that chronically may affect cats?
Hyperthyroidism
Heartworm disease
68
What are chronic reasons for primary V+ (+/- D) in dogs
IBD
Neoplasia
Infection
GI ulcer
69
What vomiting center do primary GI diseases target?
Gut afferents
70
What vomiting center do secondary GI diseases target?
chemoreceptor trigger zone
71
What do you do first to characterize vomiting?
ALWAYS rule out extra-GI causes first
72
How do you rule out extra-GI causes?
Minimum database
T4, HW
73
How do you get metabolic acidosis from vomiting?
Animals will vomit up more base (duodenal) than acid resulting in a metabolic acidosis (Duodenal vomiting)
74
What color is duodenal vomiting?
Brown
75
How do you get a metabolic alkalosis from vomiting?
Stomach acid is lost primarily by a pyloric obstruction (foreign bodies) causes body to be left with a metabolic alkalosis (Gastric vomiting)
76
Vomiting and/or diarrhea can be attributed to either a primary GI or extra-GI cause
EXTRA GI = Liver, pancreatitis, kidney failure, hypoadrenocorticism
77
FOR CATS ADD HYPERTHROIDISM AND HEARTWORM DISEASES
78
What is the most important Primary GI diagnosis to rule out?
Obstruction
Parvo
79
What is the most important extra-GI diagnosis to rule out?
Acute pancreatitis
Organ failure
80
What is the most common dental disease in small animas?
Periodontal disease
81
What is the only reversible stage of periodontal disease?
gingivitis
82
What is the large breed dog poster child for periodontal disease?
Greyhounds
83
Are cats prone to dental disease?
YES
84
What is stage 1 periodontal disease?
Gingivitis
85
What is CWD on dental chart?
Crowding
86
What is M on dental chart?
Mobility
87
What type of dog are remaining deciduous teeth most common?
Toy breeds
88
What is tooth wear due to rubbing against something foreign?
Abrasion
89
What is tooth wear due to tooth - tooth contact?
Attrition
90
What is trauma to a tooth causing the death of the tooth?
Pulpitis
91
What is the fracture of the top of a tooth called?
Crown fracture
92
What is a crown fracture without pulp showing?
Uncomplicated fracture
93
Are complicated and uncomplicated fractures at risk of infection?
YES
94
What is something that doxycycline can do to teeth?
Cause permanent staining (not enamel defect)
95
What are the equivalent of cavities?
Caries
96
What is caused by an unerupted tooth?
Dentigerous cyst (usually first lower premolar)
97
If any teeth are missing in a dog, what should you do?
Take dental rads
98
What tooth is predisposed to resorptive lesions in cats?
3rd mandibular premolar
99
What is a type III resorptive lesion?
1/2 tooth has root and 1/2 tooth has resorption of root
100
What is severe uremia necrosis caused by?
Leptospirosis
101
What is widespread oral inflammation that required full mouth extractions?
Stomatitis
102
What is excessive growth of gingiva (common) that may trap bacteria causing periodontal disease?
Gingival hyperplasia
103
What is a benign tumor of the mouth?
Epulis
104
What is the most common oral tumor in dogs?
Melanoma
105
What is the most common oral tumor in cats?
Squamous cell carcinoma
106
What is the technique where the plate/film is placed behind the tooth and the rad beam directed straight to the plate?
Parallel technique
107
What is the technique where the film is placed at a 90 degree angle to the tooth?
Bisecting angle technique
108
What teeth can you really only do the parallel technique on?
Mandibular teeth
109
What teeth are always radiographed using bisecting?
Canines
110
What is the # of the carnassial tooth on the top?
08
111
What is the # of the carnassial tooth on the bottom?
09
112
If you are looking at the maxillary incisors, what will the quadrant on the left of the image be?
100s
Just opposite of what youd think
113
Name the parts of the tooth from the pulp out
Pulp > dentin > enamel
114
Where is cementum?
Hard tissue forming the surface of the root
115
What teeth is cat missing on the mandible?
06 and 07
116
What is that act of swallowing called?
Deglutition
117
What is difficulty swallowing, prehending, or chewing?
Dysphagia
118
What 2 phases does regurgitation come from?
Esophageal phase or gastroesophageal phase
119
Is dysphagia common in cats?
NO
120
What normally causes dysphagia in cats?
secondary to structural abnormalities
Oral tumor, ulcer, stomatitis
121
What do you rule out first for oropharyngeal disease?
Structural disease
122
What is the first thing in the diagnostic plan for oropharyngeal disease?
Thoracic rads for aspiration pneumonia
123
What causes a honking sound where arytenoids do not move?
Laryngeal paralysis
124
How do you rule out a functional disease?
Barium swallowing study
125
What is the failure of opening of the upper esophageal sphincter?
Achalasia
126
What is the lack of coordination between pharyngeal and cricopharyngeal phase of swallowing
Dyssynchrony
127
What is inflammation of the esophagus?
Esophagitis
128
What is narrowing of the esophagus?
Esophageal stricture
129
What is essentially the only functional disease of the esophagus?
Megaesophagus
130
What type of disease does dysphagia indicate?
oropharyngeal disease
131
What type of disease does regurgiation indicate?
Esophageal disease
132
What type of disease does regurgitation and dysphagia indicate?
Painful esophageal disease (esophagitis or FB) or diffuse neuromuscular disease
133
YOU MUST RULE OUT STRUCTURAL CAUSES BEFORE DIAGNOSTIC FOR FUNCTIONAL DISEASE
134
What must be tested for in patients with megaesophagus or functional neuromuscular disorders?
Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies
for myasthenia gravis
135
What is gastritis?
Inflammation of gastric mucosa
136
What is the most common type of gastritis?
Idiopathic gastritis
137
What is the most common type of fungus that causes gastritis?
Histoplasma
138
What does gastroenteritis mean?
Stomach AND intestines
139
What does repeat vomiting cause?
Bilious Vomiting Syndrome (reflux gastritis)
140
What is the non-immunologic food sensitivity?
Food intolerance
141
For chronic gastritis, what is a bacteria that may cause pathology but is also a normal gut microbe?
Helicobacter
142
What is the stomach worm of the dog and car?
Physaloptera rara
143
If you hear the history "morning vomiting of bile stained fluid but otherwise healthy", what should you think?
Bilious vomiting syndrom
144
What should you think first when you think about gastroduodenal ulcers?
NSAIDS or steroids
145
What do mast cell tumors secrete?
Histamines
146
Due to increased histamines, mast cell tumors activate the chemoreceptor trigger zone causing vomiting
147
In terms of gastric ulcers, what should you avoid the concurrent use of?
NSAIDs and steroids (or other NSAIDs)
148
What should you do if there is evidence of bleeding elsewhere outside of GI bleeding?
Run coag test and check platelets (IMHA?)
149
What do NSAIDs inhibit the production of?
prostaglandins
150
Why do cats tend to produce more trichobezoars than other species?
They have long contractions (interdigestive migrating motor complexes)
151
What is the most common cause of delayed gastric emptying/
Mechanical obstruction (FB, neoplasia, GDV, polyp, etc)
152
What is the most common cause of functional gastric motility disorder?
Idiopathic
153
What is the #1 clinical sign of delayed gastric emptying?
Vomitus of partial of undigested food >10 hours after eating
154
What is a breed risk factor for GDV?
Deep chested dogs
155
What are 2 food-related risk factors for GDVs?
Rapid eating
Single meals
156
What 3 things (all sort of related) are caused by GDV to venous return?
Caudal vena cava compression
Impaired venous return to heart
Hypovolemic shock
157
What are the 6 important clinical signs of GDV?
Non-productive retching
Abdominal distension and tympany
Tachycardia
Pallor
Shock
158
What type of rads do you take on a suspected GDV dog?
RIGHT LATERAL!!
159
What dog breed is most likely to get GDV?
Great dane
160
A diagnosis of a functional gastric motility disorder is presumptive and is considered a diagnosis of exclusion
161
Whats the hepatocellular panel for hepatocyte injury for large animal include?
AST, ALT, SDH
162
Whats the cholestasis panel include?
ALP, GGT, Bilirubin
163
What is most specific liver enzyme for hepatocellular injury in dogs and cats
ALT
164
What is most specific liver enzyme for hepatocellular injury in large animals?
SDH
165
Which of the liver enzymes are not liver specific?
AST
166
If AST and CK are high, what should you consider instead of liver damage?
Muscle damage
167
High ALP is significant because half life is so short
168
What artery supplies that hard palate?
Major palatine artery
169
What does the palate do?
Stimulates sensory nerves to help trigger swallowing
170
What parts of the palate can cleft palate affect?
Soft, hard, and both
171
Does a cleft lip need to be treated with no clinical symptoms?
NO
172
What can predispose to cleft palate (2)
Stress of mother
Intrauterine trauma
173
What are the 4 salivary glands?
Sublingual, mandibular, zygomatic, parotid
174
What is the most common cause of salivary gland disease?
Idiopathic
175
What is a sialocele?
A subcutaneous cavity containing saliva
176
What is the most common sialocele?
Cervical sialocele
177
What is the second most common sialocele?
Sublingual sialocele
178
What sialocele is likely to cause exophthalmos?
Zygomatic sialocele
179
Where is cervical sialocele located?
Ventral neck
Remove gland to fix
180
What are 4 diseases of salivary glands?
Inflammation (sialadenitis)
Infection
Stone formation (sialolith)
Neoplasia
181
What does a lot of nasoreflux indicate?
A small intestine disease
182
What is ileus
inhibition of intestinal propulsion without signs of mechanical obstruction
183
What type of liver value is also associated with bone growth?
ALP
184
What can also cause an increase in ALP values outside of the body?
Corticosteroids
185
ALP in cats is almost always more sensitive for cholestatic liver disease than GGT except for one instance, what is it?
Feline hepatic lipidosis, ALP will be high but GGT won't
186
What are 3 causes of increased GGT activity
Drugs
Biliary hyperplasia
Cholestasis
187
What are the 3 broad categories that cause hyperbilirubinemia?
Pre-hepatic
Hepatic
Post-hepatic
188
What may cause hyperbilirubemia of pre-hepatic cause?
Hemolytic disorder
189
Do horses get megaesophagus?
Yes but rarely (Friesian - burping)
190
What is the most common esophageal disorder in horses?
Choke
191
What is the common sequela after choke? (2)
Aspiration pneumonia
Stricture
192
What is a common clinical symptom of choke?
BILATERAL nasal discharge
193
HORSES ARE OBLIGATE NASAL BREATHERS
194
How should you feed to prevent choke?
Slow feeding
195
What type of feeds should be given to prevent choke?
Good, soft feeds
196
What should be done to their teeth to prevent choke?
Adequate dental care
197
What is the most common tumor in the esophagus of horses?
Squamous cell carcinomas
198
What is an abnormal amount of nasogastric reflux to get?
>2L
199
What does EGUS stand for?
Equine gastric ulcer syndrom
200
What are 4 risk factors for EGUS?
Intense exercise
Meal feeding
Low roughage feeding
High concentrate feeding
201
What is a cause of equine gastric glandular disease?
NSAIDS
More severe because constantly exposed to acid
202
What should be a huge concern in foals in terms of gastric ulcers?
NSAIDs
203
What parasite would you find in the stomach of horses, potentially incidental?
Gasterophilus intestinalis (bots)
204
What are the 3 aspects of hepatobiliary screening
CBC, chem, UA
205
What in the CBC may contribute to liver disease?
Anemia
206
What 3 liver enzymes are released during hepatocellular injury?
AST, ALT, SDH
207
Of the two, AST and ALT, which is less liver specific?
AST
208
What can elevated AST also be responsive to?
Muscle breakdown
209
If AST is higher than ALT, what should you think?
Muscle breakdown
210
What 2 enzymes are most prominent in cholestasis?
ALP and GGT
211
If glucose is decreased, what does this indicate about the function of the liver?
<30% fxn
212
What does decreased serum cholesterol indicate?
Decreased hepatic synthesis
213
What does increased serum cholesterol indicate?
Secondary to cholestasis
214
Where is albumin synthesized?
Only in the liver
215
What does decreased synthesis of clotting factors indicate?
<30% function
216
What are the 2 primary methods of liver function?
Serum bile acid
Blood ammonia levels
217
What happens to bile acid metabolism during hepatic disease?
Shift toward more renal excretion of bile acids
218
What is the primary test for portosystemic shunting?
Blood ammonia levels
219
What is pancreatic inflammation?
Pancreatitis
220
What about stools is an indicator of pancreatitis?
Large stools
221
What species gets acute pancreatitis more?
Dogs
222
What species gets chronic pancreatitis more?
Cats
223
What is the most common clinical finding for acute pancreatitis in dogs and cats?
Dehydration!!!
224
What is a common clinical finding for pancreatitis in cats?
Hypothermia
225
What do clinical findings do cats with pancreatitis get?
Lethargy, anorexia, hypothermia
226
Do most dogs presenting for pancreatitis vomit?
YES! (90%)
227
What is the most accurate way to diagnose pancreatitis?
Spec PLIs
228
What is the most accurate way to mis-diagnose pancreatitis?
Spec PLIs
229
What is normal, suspicious, and pancreatitis levels for Spec PLIs?
<200 normal
200-400 maybe
>400 probably pancreatitis
230
Is SNAP PLI valuable?
Good at ruling out (Sensitive)
Should really never use SNAP PLI
231
Is ultrasound a reliable way to help diagnose pancreatitis?
Yes!
232
What can hypersalivation in a cow result in?
Acidosis
233
Is bloat an emergency?
YES!!
234
What is the bacteria responsible for lumpy jaw?
Actinomycosis
235
What is the bacteria responsible for wooden tongue?
Actinobacillus ligneressi
236
What is stomatitis?
Inflammation of the mouth
237
How does bovine papular stomatitis present?
Small circular lesions on snout
238
Is icterus caused by pre, post, or hepatic hyperbilirubinemia?
Pre or post!!
239
What is a less common clinical sign of equine hepatic disease related to the sun?
Photosensitization
240
What is the molecule responsible for photosensitization?
Phylloerythrin
241
What is a clinical sign of hepatic encephalopathy seen in horses?
Yawning!
242
What is SDH used for instead of in diagnostics for liver disease?
ALT
243
What is the most specific enzyme for the liver in horses?
SDH
244
What is the toxicity that horses can get from specific weeds?
pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity
245
What does pyrrolizidine toxicity do to hepatocytes?
Enlarged to megalocytes leading to fibrosis
246
What bacteria is responsible for Tyzzer's disease?
Clostridium piliforme
247
What type of horses get Tyzzer's disease?
FOALS
248
Do you recover from Tyzzer's?
No, you die
249
Who gets Theiler's disease?
Adult horses
250
How do you get Theiler's disease?
Associated with administration of equine derived biological products
Likely caused by a hepatitis virus (equine parvovirus)
251
What do you look for in stomach rads to diagnose gastritis?
Wall thickening
252
Can you see gastric masses on rads?
Yes!
253
How do you see ulceration on rads?
Double contrast gastrogram best
254
How do you confirm a pyloric outflow obstruction?
Postitive gastrogram
255
What is the best view to see a GDV?
RIGHT LATERAL
256
What is too large for dog's SI?
>1.6 height of L5
257
What is too large for a cat's SI?
12mm
257
What is too large for a foal's SI?
>length of L1
257
What are intussesceptions often preceded by?
Diarrhe (hypermotility)
258
What is a common impaction of foals?
Meconium
259
Is a perforation (free peritoneal gas) an emergency?
YES
260
What does a functional ilues appear as on rads?
General distention of intestines all over
261
How big is too big for large intestine?
>1.5x length of L7
262
What will foregin body look like with ultrasound?
Likely will create a shadow
263
How do you measure the width of an intestine?
From serosa to lumen
264
EACH LAYER OF THE INTESTINE OR STRUCTURE SHOULD HAVE ALL OF ITS LAYERS
265
What are differentials for loss of wall layering?
Neoplasia, inflammation, edema
266
What is seen in neoplasia with ultrasound of intestines?
Wall thickening and altered wall layering
Presence of altered wall layering makes neoplasia much more likely
267
What is the most common GI neoplasia in cats?
Lymphoma
268
What is lymphangiectasia>?
Protein losing enteropathy
269
What is seen on US for lymphangiectasia?
White specks within lumen
270
What is normal echogenicity of liver?
Similar to falciform or darker (hypoechoic to falciform)
271
How does the normal liver compare to the spleen?
Hypoechoic to spleen
272
How can you tell the liver is abnormal?
If the liver is hyperechoic to the spleen, it is abnormal
273
What are 3 differentials if you have hepatic hyperechogenicity?
Hepatic lipidosis
Diabetes mellitus
Cushing's disease
274
What are 3 differentials if you have hepatic hypoechogenicity (too dark)?
Acute hepatitis
Diffuse neoplasia
Congestion
275
What is the normal thickness of the gallbladder in a cat?
1mm
276
What is the normal thickness of a gallbladder in a dog?
2-3mm
277
What does cholecystitis and edema look like in US?
Double rimmed
278
What is a stone in the gall bladder called?
Cholelithiasis
279
How do you find the pancreas via US in dogs? cats?
proximal duodenum
Spleen
280
What is the echogenicity of the pancreas to the mesentery? the liver?
Hypoechoic to mesentery
Hyperechoic to liver
281
What may a pancreas look like in a Cushings dog?
Hyperechoic
282
Pancreatic cystic lesions are fluid filled on US
283
What are 2 causes of chronic hepatitis?
Copper toxicity
Chronic phenobarb use
284
Who gets chronic hepatitis more often?
Dogs
285
What are the 3 characteristics of cirrhosis?
Fibrosis
Regenerative nodules
Loss of architecture
286
What is a concerning reason for viral chronic hepatitis in dogs?
Leptospirosis
287
What does chronic hepatitis take to definitively diagnose"
Biopsy
288
Where is copper stored?
The liver!
289
What breed is specifically predisposed to copper induced chronic hepatitis?
Labs
290
What stain do you use to see copper toxicities?
Rhodanine
291
How may you have a secondayr accumulation of copper?
Cholestasis
292
What 4 ways can you get acute liver disease?
Toxins
Infectious agents
Systemic or metabolic disorders
Traumatic, thermal, or hypoxia
293
What is a big drug that can cause acute liver disease?
Acetaminophen
294
Gotta know these... What toxins can cause acute liver injury?
Aflatoxin
Amanita mushroom
xylitol
blue-green algae
sago palms
295
What is number 1 cause of infectious agents?
Bacteria (lepto)
296
What is a clinical sign of infectious hepatitis?
"blue eye"
297
What causes it to liver failure above liver disease?
hepatic encephalopathy and coagulopathy
298
What is seen with complete bile obstruction?
Acholic fecess
299
Pre-hepatic jaundice is caused by hemolysis of blood cells which release unconjugated bilirubin into the blood stream which can't be compensated by the liver resulting in more bilirubin
300
Who tends to have more cholestasis?
Cats
301
What is the post-hepatic cause of jaundice?
Pancreatitis
Cholecystitis
Cholelithiasis
Biliary mass
302
What is the most common feline liver disease?
Hepatic lipidosis
303
What is seen in the liver enzyme values of a cat with hepatic lipidosis?
High ALP but normal GGT!!!!
304
What is seen on the ultrasound of a cat with hepatic lipidosis?
Hyperechoic to falciform ligament
305
What is the most common primary disease of the liver/
Cholangitis
306
What is cholangitis?
Inflammation fo teh common bile duct
307
What are the 3 types of cholangitis?
Neutrophilic
Lymphocytic
Chronic
308
What is the most common type of cholangitis in dogs?
Neutrophilic
309
What is triaditis?
Concurrent inflammation of pancreas, liver, and small intestine
310
What is EHBDO?
Extra hepatic bile duct obstruction
311
What does a gallbladder mucocele look like on ultrasound?
a kiwi!
312
What type of portosystemic shunt in most common in large breed dogs?
Intrahepatic
313
What type of portosystemic shunt is most common in small breed dogs?
Extrahepatic
314
What breed is the posterchild of portosystemic shunts?
Yorkshire terrier
315
What clinical sign may you see in a cat with a portosystemic shunt?
Hypersalivation
316
What might a cat with a portosystemic shunt have as an eye color?
Copper iris
317
What are some other clinical findings of PSS?
Stunted growth
pU/pD
Intermittent V+/D+
pica
318
How do you differentiate microvacular dysplasia from PSS?
Protein C
319
How much protein C will dogs with microvascular dysplasia have?
>70%
320
What is an important consequence of PSS?
Hepatic encephalopathy
321
What causes hepatic encephalopathy?
PSS or loss of hepatic mass
322
What is hepatic encephalopathy?
The brain effect of substances normally metabolized by the liver
323
What is the key of hepatic encephalopathy?
Ammonia toxicity
324
What are complications of liver disease?
Coagulopathy
Anemia
Encephalopathy
Intestinal and gastric ulcers
Endotoxemia and infection
Effucions
325
What are the 3 types of liver disease?
Hepatocellular dysfunction
Cholestasis
PSS
326
What does blood ammonia levels primarily tell you?
Presence of PSS
327
What, related to size, may you see on radiographs for the liver?
Microhepatica
328
What is required for a bile acid test?
12 hour fast
329
What does MVD stand for
Microvascular dysplasia
330
What is portal vein hypoplasia
Microscopic shunting of blood from portal vein
331
What causes of diarrhea are piglets (< 1 week) likely to get?
C perf A and C
C difficile
E coli
Coronavirus
Rotavirus
332
What causes of diarrhea are piglets (>1 week) likely to get?
C perf A and C
C difficile
E coli
Coronavirus
Rotavirus
Coccidiosis
333
What is the pH of viral diarrhea in pigs?
acidic
334
What is the pH of bacterial diarrhea in pigs?
Bacterial
335
What gross lesions will be seen in C difficile pigs?
Mesocolonic edema and colitis
336
What diarrhea is mostly likely to have blood in it for pigs?
C perfringens type C!
337
What is a lesion of C perfringens in pig's intestines?
Acute hemorrhagic enteritis
338
What are the 2 viruses of unweaned piglets?
Coronavirus and rotavirus
339
Which of the coronaviruses cross protect, which does not?
TGE and PRCV cross protect
PEDV does not
340
What is a clinical sign of coronavirus
Watery diarrhea (corona smell)
341
Will you see eimeria in pigs?
NEVER
342
What is the bacteria name of coccidiosis?
Cystoisospora suis
343
How do you diagnoses cystoisospora suis?
7-14 day old pigs that arent reacting to antibiotics
344
What is the #1cause of diarrhea in nursery pigs??!!!!!!!!!!!
E coli (not salmonella!)
345
What is a neurologic disease associated with E coli?
Edema disease due to leaky vessels
346
What is a common clinical sign associated with edema disease?
Swollen eyelids
347
What is a clinical sign of salmonella septicemia?
Cyanosis, widespread
348
What is the whipworm of pigs?
Trichuris suis
349
What might you see in diarrhea of trichuris suid?
Blood
350
How must you treat trichuris suis?
Fenbendazole (not ivermectin)
351
What is the roundworm for pigs?
Ascaris suum
352
What is a necropsy sign on the liver for ascaris suum?
Milk spots
353
What is the most common disease of grow/finish pigs?
Lawsonia!!
354
How do you prevent lawsonia?
Vaccines work
355
What causes swine dysentery?
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
356
What is the main vector of brachyspira hyodysenteriae?
Mice! 180 days
357
What is the leading cause of death in adult horses?
Colic
358
How long is the small intesting of a horse?
70'
359
What are 3 examples of intraluminal obstructions?
Enterlith, impaction, mass
360
What are enteroliths made of?
Struvite
361
What are some common clinical signs of a strangulating obstruction?
Hypovolemic shock, septic shock (toxic line), pain, obstructive shock
362
How does endotoxemia develope?
Develops with intestinal stasis
Bacteria can migrate out of lumen
363
What is a risk factor for a strangulating lipoma?
Older age
364
What is a risk factor for an epiploic foramen entrapment?
Cribber
365
What is a risk factor for an inguinal hernia?
Stallion, possibly post breeding
366
What is a risk factor for a large colon volvulus?
Post-foaling mare, change in diet
367
Are simple obstructions incredibly painful?
NO!
368
What is a good differential for a colic lookalike?
Laminitis
369
What causes colic pain?
Enteric neurons
370
What is the most common type of impaction in neonates?
Meconium impaction
371
Where are enterliths common?
California
372
What are the diagnostic steps to a colic exam?
PE/vitals
NG tube
Rectal
Abdominal US
Abdominocentesis
373
What do absent GI sounds usually mena?
Complete obstruction/strangulation
374
What would a lot of reflux that is sour/fermented indicate?
Small intestine strangulation
If a ton of reflux, likely anterior enteritis
375
Should you give more fluids in the NG tube if you suspect small intestine strangulation?
NO!!!
376
During abdominocentesis, what does a very high lactate (in comparison to blood lactate) indicate?
Ischemic, strangulation!!!
377
What is the most common cause of equine colitis?
Salmonella!
378
What is an additional cause of colitis in horses?
Clostridium perfringens A and C
379
What is the bacterial name for Potomac Horse Fever?
Neorickettsia risticii
380
When is peak PHF time?
June-September
381
What is 2 non infectious cause of diarrhea in horses?
Carbohydrate overload
Blister beetle
382
What is a potential complication with PHF?
Laminitis
383
What things should you work-up during a colitis case?
Salmonella culture
PHF IFA
Diarrhea panel
384
What is a clinical sign of anterior enteritis?
Large volumes of NG reflux
385
What are 4 infectious causes of chronic diarrhea in horses?
Salmonella, Lawsonia, Rhodococcus equi, peritonitis
386
What is the most common strongly of horses (chronic diarrhea)?
Small strongyles
387
What can excessive bute cause?
Right dorsal colitis
388
Are neonates hind gut fermenters?
Not yet!
389
When is diarrhea common for foals?
During foal heat at 5-15 days
390
E coli is not a direct GI pathoigen in foals, but diarrhea can occur in septic foals
391
What is the most viral cause of viral foal diarrhea?
Rotavirus
392
When does rotavirus occur for foals?
Less than 2 months of age
393
What rotavirus is there a vaccine for in foals?
Rotavirus A (most common virus)
394
What is the protozoal cause of diarrhea in foals?
Crypto parvum
395
What are the top 3 causes of diarrhea in foals?
1) rota
2) salmonella
3) C. difficile
396
What do all foals with diarrhea have a co infection with?
Coronavirus
397
What should you check on all foals?
IgG
398
What causes diarrhea at weanling foals?
Weaning!
Rhodococcus equi
Lawsonia intracellularis
399
When is Lawsonia most common?
4-7 months
400
What is seen on US for a Lawsonia infection?
Swollen "donut" loops of intestine
401
What is the peritonitis called without an idnetifiable source?
Primary peritonitis
402
What is the primary source of secondary peritonitis?
Gastrointestinal!!
403
What is the primary microbe of gastrointestinal peritonitis?
E coli
404
What does bloodwork show for perotinitis?
Hypovolemia
Hypoproteneimia (into body cavity)
Hyperfibrinogenemia
405
Important: How do you diagnose a septic peritonitis?
High lactate, low glucose
High cell count
High protein
406
What is common cause peritonitis in small animals?
Gi perforations and pyometra
407
What is very common with oral SCC?
Ulceration and bone destruction
408
What is the typical pigment of a melanoma?
Black pigment
409
What in the dog is a jaw only mass?
Canine acanthomatous ameloblastoma
410
What are 2 examples of destructive masses?
Lumpy jaw
Wooden tongue
411
What bacteria causes lumpy jaw?
Actinomycres bovis
412
What bacteria causes wooden tongue?
Actinobacillus ligniersii
413
What are 2 small benign masses in the dog's mouth?
Gingival hyperplasia
Peripheral odontogenic fibroma (POF)
414
What neoplasia will occur within tonsils?
lymphoma
415
What neoplasia will occur on the surface of tonsils?
SCC
416
Whats te difference between and ulcer and erosion?
Ulcer causes fibrin and neutrophil recruitment
Erosion is within epithelium only
417
What is a cause from the liver that may cause ventral tongue ulceration?
Uremia
418
What are 4 causes of oral ulcers in cats?
Calicivirus
Herpesvirus
Stomatitis
Eosinophilic granuloma complex
419
What are 2 major differentials for tonsillar ulcers on pigs?
Pseudorabies
Hog cholera (classical swine fever)
420
"The more fibrin and "stuff" on top of an ulcer, the more likely a secondary infection"
421
What is fusobacterium necrophorum?
Calf diptheria
422
What is candida albicans?
Thrush
423
What are secondary infections of oral ulcers for cows?
Thrush
Calf diphtheria
Wooden tongue
Lumpy jaw
424
What might you find as sequalae of rumen acidosis?
Bacterial infection, fungal infection, caval syndrom, perforating ulcer
425
What is a lesion that is deeper than an ulcer and exits the lumen?
Perforation
426
Is fibrin acute or chronic?
Acute
427
Is fibrosis acute or chronic?
Chronic
428
What predisposes a pig to ulcers?
Finely ground feed
429
Are neoplasms or granulomas more common in stomach?
Neoplasms much more common
430
***What parasite in snakes causes gastric thickening?
Cryptosporidium serpentes
431
***What bacteria in cattle causes the moroccan leather description?
Ostertagia osteragii
432
What causes severe anemia and weight loss in high FAMACHA score in goats (also edema and effusion - bottle jaw)?
H. contortus
433
Sharp line of demarcation of intestinal hemorrahe supports ______?
Strangulation
434
What is a large colon volvulus?
Wraps own intestine around itself and strangulates it
435
What is an intussusception considered?
An obstruction
436
What are the common sites of impaction in a horse?
Pelvic flexture
RDC - small colon junction
437
What parasites in a horse may cause an obstruction?
Anoplocephela perfoliata (tape worm)
parascaris equorum (linear foreign body)
438
What cancer causes the "napkin ring" look to an intestine?
Adenocarcinoma
439
What are the 2 most common fungal agents that cause intestinal thickening?
Pythiosis
Histoplasmosis
440
What may be a cause of nodular thickening of intestinal wall?
Small strongyles
441
***What are 3 very important casues of segmental mucosal thickening?
Johnes
Proliferative enteropathy (lawsonia)
Boxer colitis
442
What can cause hemorrhagic entercolitis?
Dog hookworms
443
Fibrinonecrotic to hemorrhagic enterocolitis is a spectrum
444
***What is the single mainly fibronecrotic disease of the intestine?
Salmonella
445
***What are 2 mainly hemorrhagic diseases of the intestine?
Clostridium A and C
446
What is necrosis of peyer's patches called?
Button ulcers
447
What is a cause of a button ulcer?
(Know these, sorry)
Pestiviruses (BVD)
Parvo
Rinderpest
Salmonella
448
What is the key lesion seen in dogs with protein losing enteropathy (PLE)
lymohagiectasia
449
What are 4 clinical symptoms of a dog with lymphangiectasia
Hypoproteinemia
Lymphopenia
Hypocalcemia
Hypocholesterolemia
450
What 2 diseases may cause intestinal wall thinning?
Coronavirus
Rotavirus
451
What is the nutmeg liver called?
Enhance reticular patterns
452
What is a major cause of enhanced reticular pattern?
Acute toxicity
453
What will cause enhance reticular pattern in pigs?
Vitamin E/Se deficiency
454
What will cause enhanced reticular patter in horses?
Theiler's disease
455
What will cause enhance reticular pattern in dogs?
Caninine infectious hepatitis
456
What would cause large discolored friable areas on a liver?
Clostridium novyi
457
What causes pale/tan liver?
Lipid
Glycogen
Amyloid
Lymphoma
458
What causes diffuse hepatomegaly?
Right heart failure (congestion)
459
What causes nodular hyperplasia?
AgingW
460
What does nodular hyperplasia look like?
just big whitish spots
461
What are 3 reasons for liver nodules?
Nodular hyperplasia
Hepatocellular adenoma
Hepatocellular carcinoma
462
Is sludge common in cats?
No, never incidental
463
What is seen on acute pancreatitis?
Fat saponification
464
What i sthe mass effect due to adhesions and fat saponification?
Phlegmon
465
What does a small, firm pancreas indicate?
Chronic pancreatitis
466
What does a small but not firm pancreas indicate?
Juvenile pancreatic atrophy
467
What should you do if you have a peritoneum case?
Find the source
468
If you find modified transudate, what should you look for?
Find the failing organ
469
What 3 things cause fibrinous pertionitis in swine?
Strep suis
Glaesserella parasuis
Myco
470
What is Type III FIP?
Wet
471
What is type IV FIP?
Dry
472
What is acute abdomen?
Sudden acute abdominal pain
473
What general clinical sign is seen with acute abdomen?
"Prayer" posture
474
What should you look at for acute abdomen on NOVA?
Electrolytes
475
What would you expect for abdominocentesis results of hemoabdomen?
PCV higher or equal to blood
476
What would you expect for abdominocentesis results of uroabdomen?
High potassium
High creatinine
477
What would you expect for abdominocentesis results of spetic abdomen?
low glucose, high lactate, bacteria
478
What are first steps to acute abdomen diagnosis?
Baseline blood and imagining (FAST scan)
479
ACTURE ABDOMENS ARE NOT ALWAYS EMERGENT
480
What is chronic diarrhea?
>2 weeks
481
What is seen in SI diarrhea?
Normal - large volume
+/- Melena
+/- Vomiting
482
What is seen in LI diarrhea?
Small-normal volume
hematochezia
straining
increased frequnecy and urge
483
What is a base level diagnostic plan for diarrhea dogs?
Minimum database
Fecal exam
GI panel (cobalamine and folate)
Abdominal imaging
Endoscopy
484
What does decreased RBCs mean?
Anemia, GI blood loss
485
What does increased RBCs mean?
Dehydration (concentration)
486
What does increased platelets with diarrhea mean?
Chronic GI bleeding or chronic inflammation
487
What does decreased platelets with diarrhea mean?
Significant GI bleeding
488
***What is a stress leukogram?
Neutrophilia and lymphopenia
489
What do you expect to see on CBC of diarrhea dog?
Decreased neutrophils
Increased lymphocytes
Increased eosinophils
490
On chemistry, what does it mean if BUN is high but creatinine is normal?
GI bleed
491
What does panhypoproteinemia mean?
Low albumin and low globulin
492
What does panhypoproteinemia indicated on CBC?
Protein losing enteropathy (PLE)
493
What is PLE from during diarrhea?
GI loss
494
What would be a reason for increased albumin?
Dehydration
495
What would be a reason for increased globulins?
Chronic inflammation
FIP
Neoplasia
496
Should you run a fecal cytology?
NO!
497
What does trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI) diagnose?
Low TLI diagnoses exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI)
498
Where is cobalamin absorbed?
Distal small intestine
499
What does low cobalamin indicate?
Malabsorption
500
Where is folate absorbed?
Proximal small intestines
501
What does decreased folate indicate?
Malabsorption
502
What does increased folate indicate?
Dysbiosis
503
What are 3 viral causes of enteritis in dogs?
Coronavirus
Parvo
Rotavirus
504
What are 2 viral causes of enteritis in cats?
Parvo (panleuk)
Coronavirus (FIP)
505
Does a negative parvo test rule out parvo?
NO
506
What happens if cat is infected with parvo (panleuk) as a neonate?
Cerebellar hypoplasia
507
Where does FIP replicate?
In macrophages
508
What phase of FIP will you see ocular lesions?
Dry form (non-effusive)
509
What chem values do you see to diagnose FIP?
Hyperglobin
Hypoalubumin
Hyperbilirubin
510
Is coronavirus testing a diagnostic for FIP?
No!
511
What are the 3 protozoans in dogs and cats for enteritis?
Giardia
Tritrichomonas
Coccidiosis
512
What does tritrichomonas look like under microscope?
Jerky movements (vs falling leaf of giardia)
513
What is the best test for tritrichomonas?
PCR
514
What is the fungal enteritis we should know?
Histoplasmosis
515
How does histo infection occur?
Inhalation of spores
516
What else should you look for in histo cases?
Respiratory signs
517
Is bacterial enteritis common in companion animals?
NO! Dont give antibiotics for them
518
What is the only bacterial enteritis I should keep an eye out for?
E coli (boxers)
519
Is it always ok to deworm?
YES!
520
What is constipation?
Infrequent or difficult evacuation of dry, hard feces
521
What is the severe form of constipation?
Obstipation
522
What is straining to deficate?
Tenesmus
523
What is difficult or painful defecation
Dyschezia
524
What electrolyte abnormalities are seen during constipation?
Hypercalcemia
Hypokalemia
525
There are neurological causes of constipation!
Cauda equina syndrome
526
What are some rectal causes of constipation?
Perianal fistula, abscess, and proctitis
527
What is inflammation of your rectum called?
Proctitis
528
***What drug causes constipation?
Opiods
529
What is the cause of megacolon?
Idiopathic
530
What is the protrusion of rectal wall through pelvic diaphram?
Perineal hernia
531
What is a predisposing factor to rectal prolapse?
Endoparasites
532
What is anal agenesis?
Atresia ani
533
What breed is predisposed to perianal fistulas?
German Shephards
534
What do perianal fistulas develop?
Draining tracts
535
What is usually the cancer of the anal sac?
Adenocarcinomas
536
What is anal sac adenocarcinomas usually "associated with"
Hypercalcemia
537
Constipation does not equal obstipation
538
What is a GI sign that exocrine pancreatic insuffiency dogs show up with?
Polyphagia (very hungry)
539
What is another clinical sign associated with diabetes mellitus?
polyphagia
540
What is an additional sign that exocrine pancreatic insufficiency present with?
Maldigestion
541
What is EPI?
Pancreatic acinar atrophy
542
What breed is most likely to get EPI?
German Shephards
543
What is a clinical sign of EPI that cats will present with but not dogs?
Vomiting
544
What are the only 3 diseases that will present with hypocholesterolemia?
Intestinal disease
Liver dysfunction
Addisons
545
What does lymphoplasmacytic enteritis indicate?
IBD
546
What causes IBD?
Idiopathic
547
What is the most common cause of IBD?
Diet responsive IBD
548
Do dogs with portosystemic shunts come in with diarrhea issues?
NO
549
What is the number one differential for dogs with PLE
Lymphangiectasia
550
What causes scaly white patches on teh comb, face, and wattles
Candidiasis (fungus)
551
What is the technical term for canker?
Trichomonosis
552
Where can you get canker?
Contaminate water
553
What are clinical signs of canker?
Yellowish lesions in mouth
Lesions continue to grow
554
How do you diagnose canker?
Wet mounts/histo
555
What is a cause of splenomegaly in turkeys and chickens?
Marble spleen disease
556
What is another name for markble spleen disease?
Hemorrhagic enteritis
557
What is necrotic enteritis caused by in birds?
Clostridium perfringens
558
How do you diagnose necrotic enteritis?
Lesions in SI
559
What bacteria causes ulcerative enteritis?
quail disease
560
What bird does qual disease affect most?
bobwhite quail
561
How is ulcertative colitis diagnosed?
Culture
562
What is the disease where the crop does not empty properly
Crop stasis
563
What is a good diagnostis indicator of giardia?
Mucous-like feces
564
What is proventricular dilation disease cuased by?
Avian bornavirus
565
How do you test for avian bornavirus?
PCR test
566
What might cause a ventral right distension in a cow?
Ventral sac of rumen outpockets to the right
567
Tympany rusults from failire of _______
eructation
568
Is bloat caused by an overproduction of gas?
NOOOO!!
569
Name 3 causes of rumen tympany
Esophageal obstruction
Rumen motility disorders
Frothy bloat (trapped in bubbles)
570
What are the 2 types of bloats?
Free gas bloat and frothy bloat
571
How do you fix a free gas bloat?
Passage of tube relieves bloat
572
What is a common esophageal obstruction?
Hedge apple
573
What is the classic ruminal motility disorder?
Vagal indigestion
574
What is stable foam?
Change in surface tension within rumen trapping air below
575
What types of feeds cause stable foam?
Legumes and high concentrate diet
576
What is type 1 vagal indigestion?
Free gas bloat
577
What is type 2 vagal indigestion
(MOST COMMON TYPE)
Papple, backup of injesta in rumen
578
What is type 3 vagal indigestion?
Pyloric outflow obstruction
579
What is type 4 vagal indigestion?
Indigestion of late pregnancy
580
What is another name for grain overload?
Acidosis
581
What types of feed cause grain overload?
Cereal grains, beets/potatoes, fruit
582
What type of lactate accumulates?
D-lactate accumulates
583
What are secondary results of acidosis?
Laminitis
Caval syndrome
584
What does caval syndrome start with?
Liver abscess
585
What are 2 predisposing factors for DA?
GI atony (decreased motility)
Calving
586
