Block 4 Neuro part 1 Flashcards
(243 cards)
1
Q
Modes:
A
the physical forms of stimuli carrying information
2
Q
unimodal:
A
one mode of information. For example, light. unimodal association could be integration of direction and intensity of light
3
Q
unimodal cortex-
A
area adjacent to primary cortex that recieves input from only that primary cortex
4
Q
multimodal cortex-
A
area where we integrate multiple senses
5
Q
Primary visual cortex is broca’s area 17 and it’s unimodal broca’s areas are
A
18 and 19
6
Q
primary somatosensory cortex is broca’s areas 3, 1, 2 and it’s unimodal broca’s areas are
A
5 and 7
7
Q
primary auditory cortex unimodal association areas are brocas areas:
A
41, 42
8
Q
primary motor cortex brocas area:
unimodal association cortex brocas areas:
A
4
6, 8
9
Q
limbic lobe is composed of what parts?
A
cingulate gyrus, hippocampus, parahippocampal gyrus, hypothalamus, mamillary bodies, and fornix (connects hippocampus with mamillary bodies)
10
Q
the neocortex is organized in 2 ways:
A
laminar and regional
11
Q
what is unique about motor cortex lamina?
A
heterotypical agranular with large layer V containing Betz cells
12
Q
what is unique about sensory cortex lamina?
A
heterotypical granular cortex with large layer IV containing granule cells
13
Q
granule cells recieve afferent input from the
A
thalamus
14
Q
what is unique about association cortex lamina?
A
homotypical (all layers about the same size)
15
Q
recite the broadmann’s areas associated with this region:
parietal-occipital
A
5-7, 18-19
16
Q
recite the broadmann’s areas associated with this region:
occipital-temporal
A
37, 20-21
17
Q
recite the broadmann’s areas associated with this region:
speech areas
A
22, 39-40, 42, 44-45
18
Q
recite the broadmann’s areas associated with this region:
prefrontal areas
A
9-11, 46-47
19
Q
parieto-temporal association cortex function
parietal:
temporal:
A
- mediates spatial relationships and attention
- object and face recognition
20
Q
the ____ part of the parieto-temporal association cortex is in the non dominant hemisphere, while the _____ is bilateral
A
- parietal
- temporal
21
Q
the parieto-temporal-frontal association cortex is in the dominant/non dominant hemisphere?
A
dominant
22
Q
the parieto-temporal-frontal association cortex is involved in:
A
mediating language comprehension (wernicke; parietal/temporal), language expression (broca; frontal), and reading and writing
23
Q
the prefrontal association cortex mediates-
A
planning, judgement, and intellect, leading to goal directed behaviors
24
Q
the prefrontal association cortex has significant connections with ______ areas, which integrate _________
A
- limbic
- cognition with emotions
25
limbic cortex mediates:
emotions and memory
26
where do inputs to an association cortex come from?
thalamus (Dorsomedial, lateral posterior, and pulvinar), primary and secondary sensory cortical regions (of ipsilateral hemisphere), association cortex of contralateral hemisphere, brainstem, and motor and premotor cortex
27
where do outputs from an association cortex go?
thalamnic nuclei, premotor-->motor, caudate/putamen--> VA/VL--> motor/premotor, cerebellum, and other primary and secondary sensory cortical regions
28
where do outputs from an association cortex go?
thalamnic nuclei, premotor-->motor, caudate/putamen--> VA/VL--> motor/premotor, cerebellum, and other primary and secondary sensory cortical regions
29
ventral intraparietal cortex is highly associative for aspects of ________ and _______
somatosensory and visual information
30
multimodal responses-
one cell can respond to multiple stimuli
31
cells of the VIP respond to both somatosensory and visual info, but they also respond according to the stimulus's ____, _____, and _____
size, location, and direction of movement
32
cells of the VIP respond to both somatosensory and visual info, but they also respond according to the stimulus's ____, _____, and _____
size, location, and direction of movement
33
the VIP's function is to integrate multimodal information for constructing a:
spatial representation of the external world
34
the VIP compares the visual response of what something looks like to the:
sensory response of how it feels
35
a lesion to the VIP would manifest as
optical ataxia. bad hand eye coordination. there would be a mismatch between what you see and how you go about grasping for the object you see. It is not ataxia (it is not a loss of control). It is really a misforming of the correct pattern
36
inferotemporal cortex is the ______ pathway
what
37
faces and objects are recognized by the _______ cortex
inferotemporal
38
Prosopagnosia-
an inability to recognize faces of specific people while maintaining generic face recognition
39
prosopagnosia is produced by:
bilateral damage to the fusiform gyrus area
40
the "where" pathway is the _____ cortex
posterior parietal
41
inferotemporal cortex is the P system visual pathway, while the posterior parietal cortex is the __ system visual pathway
M
42
spatial integration and location pathway is the _____ cortex
posterior parietal
43
apperceptive agnosia-
impaired ability to match or copy complex visual shapes or objects
44
apperceptive agnosia is caused by damage to
posterior inferior temporal cortex
45
associative agnosia-
impaired ability to match or copy an object, but their ability to identify objects is impaired
46
associative agnosia is caused by damage to
anterior inferior temporal cortex
47
when looking at a face, brain activity increases in the _____________ area
fusiform face area (FFA)
48
when looking at an object, brain activity increases in the __________ area
parahippocampal place area (PPA)
49
we organize facial features in the same way that we organize ____________
orientation within the visual cortex
50
which cortex carries out executive planning?
prefrontal
51
Executive planning-
the use of results from previous experience to weigh alternatives and consequences of a behavior that is designed to achieve a goal or objective. Based on prior knowledge of the means to achieve an end. Requires predictive skills
52
Executive planning is divided into 3 characteristics:
restraint, initiative, and order
53
most important characteristic of restraint:
inhibiting socially inappropriate responses
54
most important characteristic of initiative:
shifting cognitive set
55
is perseverance under restraint or initiative?
restraint
56
most important characteristic of order:
sequencing of behaviors
57
patients with damage confined to the prefrontal cortex will present as normal in _______(3) but have a disorganized and inappropriate ________(2)
- perception, motor skills, and intelligence
| - emotional state and behavior
58
most efferent projections from prefrontal cortex are arranged in a _______ fashion
rostral to caudal
59
7 restraint functions of the frontal lobe:
judgement, foresight, perseverance, delaying gratification, inhibiting socially inappropriate responses, self-governance, and concentration
60
8 initiative functions of the frontal lobe-
curiosity, spontaneity, motivation, drive, creativity, shifting cognitive set, mental flexibility, and personality
61
8 order functions of frontal lobe-
abstract reasoning, working memory, perspective taking, planning, insight, organization, sequencing, temporal order
62
8 order functions of frontal lobe-
abstract reasoning, working memory, perspective taking, planning, insight, organization, sequencing, temporal order
63
what defines the prefrontal cortex anatomically?
the part of the frontal cortex lying anterior to the motor, premotor, and limbic areas
64
Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex BA
46
65
ventrolateral PFC BA
47,45,44
66
medial cortex BA
9
67
orbitofrontal BA
11-13
68
ventromedial PFC BA
32
69
the largest proportion of input to the prefrontal cortex is from
the thalamic dorsomedial nucleus
70
In order for executive function to work in the prefrontal cortex, we need extensive connections with _________ systems. We need to recognize the relationships between those systems e.g. ________ signals from BG. Also requires _________ of goals and flexibility in _______
- sensory and motor
- reward signals
- memory; choice
71
For executive function to incorparate reward signals and see multivariate relationships, the PFC must have reciprocal connections with the
BG (nu. accumbens)
72
in order for executive function to incorporate memory of goals and flexibility of choice. e.g. memory of choices to consider future choices, there must be reciprocal connections with the ____ lobe
temporal lobe
73
DLPFC recieves multi-sensory input via
parietal association cortex
74
DLPFC outputs are to:
supplementary motor areas and basal ganglia
75
DLPFC encodes behavior related to: (3)
spatial relationships, working memory, and shifting cognitive sets
76
VLPFC recieves visual association input from
temporal lobe
77
VLPFC encodes behavior specific to: (3)
object recognition tasks, relational reasoning, and forming analogies
78
orbitofrontal cortex and medial cortex are connected to the _______ areas and are related to _________
- medial temporal limbic areas
| - affect and motivation
79
Behaviors related to the orbitofrontal and medial cortex require ____________
restraint and delay in gratification
80
what tasks are affected by lesions of the DLPFC? 4
verbal fluency, delayed response, wisconsin card sort
81
what tasks are affected by lesions of the DLPFC? 4
verbal fluency, delayed response, wisconsin card sort
82
Lesions of DLPFC generally lead to 2 issues:
cannot follow rules of a task and cannot perform a task that requires a delayed response
83
Anterior cingulate cortex monitors _____________
behavioral conflict
84
Anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) influences the praparation or organization of the _______
behavior in the DLPFC
85
ACC activity supports the avoidance of
mistakes
86
damage to the orbitofrontal and VMPFC results in
insensitivity to reward; no emotional response to poor return
87
when you predict a reward, _____ neurons of the ______ cortex fire.
pre-reward
| orbitofrontal PFC
88
_____ modulates ______ which modulates reward in PFC (especially orbitofrontal)
- VTA
| - N. accumbens
89
Neurons in VTA correspondingly increase spike rate with
increased reward
90
without a cue for reward, dopaminergic neurons will spike when reward is recieved. After conditioning....
the VTA will spike with anticipation for reward.
91
If reward is anticipated but then not recieved, what happens with VTA
there is a depression of activity in the VTA, and a corresponding depression of the reward pathway
92
BG support ______ control
cognitive
93
BG doesn't only gate motor output. It also gates cognitive output. Describe the prefrontal loop:
DLPFC-->anterior caudate--> GPI, substantia nigra reticulata--> mediodorsal (including pulvinar) and ventral anterior nuclei-->cortical targets
94
Prefrontal loop modulates
executive control of behaviors
95
affective loop modulates
emotional behavior
96
route of affective loop
amygdala, hippocampus, orbitofrontal, anterior cingulate, temporal cortex--> ventral striatum--> ventral pallidum--> mediodorsal nucleus--> cortical targets
97
the orbitofrontal cortex and basal ganglia are hyperconnected in
OCD
98
there is a region of DLPFC that fires more intensely as certainty of _______ increased
discrimination
99
if you lesion the area of DLPFC that fires in correlation with decision certainty, what will be the result?
they will be very indecisive.
100
deductive reasoning-
true or false depends on the logical relation of the premises
101
deductive reasoning activity is seen in the ______________ cortex
inferior prefrontal
102
inductive reasoning-
true or false depends on the probabilities of premises
103
inductive reasoning activity is seen in the _________ cortex
dorsolateral prefrontal
104
5 functions dominated by the left hemisphere
speech, writing, lexical and syntactic language, analysis of right visual field, mathematical skills
105
5 functions dominated by the right hemisphere
rudimentary speech, prosodic aspects of language, analysis of left and right visual fields, musical skills, and spatial abilities
106
because many higher order functions are lateralized to a hemisphere, how do we send information to them from sensory areas?
use the corpus callosum
107
neurons that fire when watching someone else perform a task to give you an idea of what it feels like to be in their position
mirror neurons
108
theory of mind leads to
empathy
109
mentalizing-
ability to imagine what other people might be thinking or feeling
110
conspecific recognition-
ability to recognize us vs them
111
cognitive empathy-
collaborative goals
112
emotional empathy-
sympathy for others
113
where is theory of mind located?
DMPFC, VMPFC, temporal parietal junction, posterior superior temporal sulcus, extrastriate body area
114
What part of theory of mind does this area supply?
| DMPFC
cognitive empathy collaboration
115
What part of theory of mind does this area supply?
| VMPFC
attribution of emotional empathy
116
What part of theory of mind does this area supply?
| TPJ (temporal parietal junction)
recognizing the mental state of a person
117
What part of theory of mind does this area supply?
| PSTS (posterior superior temporal sulcus)
understanding intention or goal of a person
118
What part of theory of mind does this area supply?
| EBA (extrastriate body area)`
detecting presence of a person
119
What part of theory of mind does this area supply?
| EBA (extrastriate body area)`
detecting presence of a person
120
emotion-
spontaneous moods that include blah blah blah
121
Schachter-Singer theory-
emotion integrates role of physiological arousal and cognitive factors. Emotion exert a steering function over general physiological arousal
122
emotional state has 2 components-
a conscious feeling and a physical sensation
123
Magda Arnold's "appraisal" theory
unconscious, implicit evaluation of a stimulus is followed by action tendencies, then peripheral responses, and finally conscious experience
124
Broca's Le Grande Lobe Limbique-
the "rim" around the diencephalon
125
What plays a central role in emotion?
amygdala
126
ventral amygdalofugal pathway
connects amygdala to nucleus accumbens
127
ventral amygdalofugal pathway is responsible for
emotional memory and instrumental action
128
stria terminalis pathway-
begins in amygdala and passes over the thalamus to innervate septal nuclei
129
stria terminalis is responsible for
visceral or autonomic emotion
130
aversion system consists of and mediates-
- septum, amygdala, posterior hypothalamus
| - fear, anxiety, rage
131
gratification system consists of and mediates
- nu. accumbens, anterior hypothalamus, brainstem nuclei
| - pleasure and reward
132
emotional memory system consists of and mediates-
- hippocampus, dorsal medial nucleus of thalamus, amygdala
| - short term memory associated with emotion
133
Kluver-Bucy Syndrome =
bilateral lesions of the anterior temporal lobe (including amygdala)
134
symptoms of Kluver-Bucy Syndrome-
visual agnosia, hypermatamorphosis, oral tendencies, hyper-appetitive, hypersexuality, loss of emotional valence, tame behavior
135
symptoms of Kluver-Bucy Syndrome-
visual agnosia, hypermatamorphosis, oral tendencies, hyper-appetitive, hypersexuality, loss of emotional valence, tame behavior
136
visual agnosia-
loss of object recognition
137
hypermatamorphosis-
object obsession
138
3 nuclei of the amygdala
lateral, basal, and central
139
afferent input to amygdala is directed towards the ______ nucleus
lateral
140
lateral nucleus and basal nucleus make up the
basolateral complex
141
output from basal nucleus of amygdala pathway =
basal nucleus--> ventral amygdalafugal pathway--> ventral striatum (nucleus accumbens)
142
output from central nucleus of amygdala pathway =
central nu.--> stria terminalis--> hypothalamus, brainstem, and modulatory systems
143
output from central nucleus of amygdala carries ______ information
emotional: visceral, autonomic response, and arousal
144
output from basal nucleus of amygdala carries ______ information
instrumental action (motor response, memory, reward)
145
learned fear-
conditioned eversion in which we pair a benign stimulus with an aversion stimulus
146
3 ways amygdala mediates fear response:
- emotional response: amygdala to cortex--> cortical arousal, attention, action
- visceral behavioral reaction: amygdala to periaqueductal grey--> flight or freezing response
- autonomic response: amygdala to hypothalamus--> sympathetic (HR, blood pressure, sweating) response
147
What was Ralph Adolphs' patient missing?
her amygdalas
148
DA neurons in the VTA release DA onto __________ neurons in the NA. If that release is coincident with input to NA from the _______ and/or _______, NA neurons are more likely to fire and disinhibit activity of the ______ system.
What results is that a particular emotional state is attached to an event. If it’s a good event, it is given reward and more likely to be sought or craved in order to obtain the benefits of the rewarding event.
DA neurons in the VTA release DA onto medium spiny neurons in the NA. If that release is coincident with input to NA from the amygdala and/or orbital – medial PFC, NA neurons are more likely to fire and disinhibit activity of the limbic system.
What results is that a particular emotional state is attached to an event. If it’s a good event, it is given reward and more likely to be sought or craved in order to obtain the benefits of the rewarding event.
149
DA neurons in the VTA release DA onto __________ neurons in the NA. If that release is coincident with input to NA from the _______ and/or _______, NA neurons are more likely to fire and disinhibit activity of the ______ system.
What results is that a particular emotional state is attached to an event. If it’s a good event, it is given reward and more likely to be sought or craved in order to obtain the benefits of the rewarding event.
DA neurons in the VTA release DA onto medium spiny neurons in the NA. If that release is coincident with input to NA from the amygdala and/or orbital – medial PFC, NA neurons are more likely to fire and disinhibit activity of the limbic system.
What results is that a particular emotional state is attached to an event. If it’s a good event, it is given reward and more likely to be sought or craved in order to obtain the benefits of the rewarding event.
150
electrical stimulation of the nucleus accumbens mimics _____ use
cocaine
151
VTA stimulates the nucleus accumbens through the ___ during reward prediction and anticipation.
MFB
152
Reward system has regulatory feedback inhibition via dampening of the ____ by _____ neurons
VTA
| GABAergic neurons
153
withdrawal is not caused by the suppressed reward system as much as it is caused by the upregulated _______ system
anti-reward
154
negative reinforcement system is quiet in the ______ state
non-dependent
155
anti reward system increases release of NE from ________, which increases release of CRF from _______
- locus ceruleus
| - paraventricular nucleus
156
CRF from the paraventricular nucleus activates the ______ to create aversive feelings of ______
- amygdala
| - dysphoria (withdrawal symptoms)
157
cravins are modulated by the _______ based on _______
- DLPFC
| - drug cues/context
158
Stimulating the DLPFC does what to craving?
reduces
159
when there is a drug cue for an addict, they will crave it. The DLPFC can modulate that craving up or down. It cannot however do what?
cannot "win"
| cannot bring you back to normal. the craving is always there, it can just be suppressed a certain amount
160
cravings are processed by:
orbitofrontal cortex, anterior cingulate, and nucleus accumbens
161
context (which will potentiate or reduce a craving) of craving is processed by
hippocampus, insula, central nucleus of amygdala, and bed nucleus of the stria terminalis
162
cravings are modulated by the
DLPFC
163
descartes theory on mental illness-
arises from separation of mind and body; treat spiritually
164
freud theory on mental illness-
conflict between Id and Ego/superego; treat with psychoanalysis
165
skinner theory on mental illness-
arises from maladaptive learned responses; treat by reinforcing positive behaviors and punishing negative behaviors
166
major mental disorders include disorders of _____ and _____
mood and thought
167
2 disorders of mood-
bipolar and depression
168
2 disorders of thought-
schizophrenia and delusional paranoia
169
6 personality disorders-
narcissism, paranoia, antisocial, psychopathic, borderline personality
170
symptoms of anxiety disorders-
objective behaviors, subjective moods, biological symptoms, cognitive probs
171
objective behaviors of anxiety-
nervousness; rapid breathing; motor restlessness; racing heart
172
subjective moods of anxiety disorders-
terror, panic, fear of death, sense of depersonalization
173
biological symptoms of anxiety disorders-
dizziness, trembling, sweating, dry mouth, hyperventilation due to sympathetic activation
174
cognitive symptoms of anxiety disorders-
poor memory and concentration
175
treatments for anxiety disorders-
benzodiazepines, SSRIs, CRH receptor antagonists
176
therapeutic goal in treating anxiety is to inhibit
the amygdala
177
amygdala receptor targeted by benzodiazepines to treat depression-
GABAa ionotropic receptor
178
specific binding site targeted by anxiolytics on a GABAa receptor
alpha 2
179
if drugs bind alpha 1 binding site on GABAa receptor, result is
sedation
180
if drugs bind alpha 2 binding site on GABAa receptor, result is
reduce anxiety; anxiolytic
181
if drugs bind alpha 2 binding site on GABAa receptor, result is
reduce anxiety; anxiolytic
182
3 anxyolytic medications
diazepam, alprazolam, and lorazepam
183
besides GABA receptor modulation, how can we treat anxiety?
SSRI's. (low serotonin levels are associated with anxiety)
184
besides GABA receptor modulation, how can we treat anxiety?
SSRI's. (low serotonin levels are associated with anxiety)
185
low levels of serotonin lead to enhanced glutamatergic activity in the _____ nucleus of the amygdala, leading to _______
- lateral
| - anxiety
186
amygdala upregulates ______ nucleus, stimulating _____ release. The cascade that follows causes a ramped up production of _________. The excess cortisol has a negative feedback effect on the ________ and a positive feedback effect on the ________. However, the _______ inhibits the HPA, which means that the positive feedback is actually causing enhanced negative feedback on the HPA. This system should work just fine, but the problem is stress hormones (cortisol) kill _______ cells and ruin the negative feedback. Obviously destruction of the hippocampus will lead to memory problems. It will also lead to a loss of regulation of the stress response which is essentially a chronic stress/anxiety problem.
amygdala upregulates paraventricular nucleus, stimulating CRF release. The cascade that follows causes a ramped up production of glucocorticoids. The excess cortisol has a negative feedback effect on the HPA and a positive feedback effect on the hippocampus. However, the hippocampus inhibits the HPA, which means that the positive feedback is actually causing enhanced negative feedback on the HPA. This system should work just fine, but the problem is stress hormones (cortisol) kill hippocampus cells and ruin the negative feedback. Obviously destruction of the hippocampus will lead to memory problems. It will also lead to a loss of regulation of the stress response which is essentially a chronic stress/anxiety problem.
187
amygdala upregulates ______ nucleus, stimulating _____ release. The cascade that follows causes a ramped up production of _________. The excess cortisol has a negative feedback effect on the ________ and a positive feedback effect on the ________. However, the _______ inhibits the HPA, which means that the positive feedback is actually causing enhanced negative feedback on the HPA. This system should work just fine, but the problem is stress hormones (cortisol) kill _______ cells and ruin the negative feedback. Obviously destruction of the hippocampus will lead to memory problems. It will also lead to a loss of regulation of the stress response which is essentially a chronic stress/anxiety problem.
amygdala upregulates paraventricular nucleus, stimulating CRF release. The cascade that follows causes a ramped up production of glucocorticoids. The excess cortisol has a negative feedback effect on the HPA and a positive feedback effect on the hippocampus. However, the hippocampus inhibits the HPA, which means that the positive feedback is actually causing enhanced negative feedback on the HPA. This system should work just fine, but the problem is stress hormones (cortisol) kill hippocampus cells and ruin the negative feedback. Obviously destruction of the hippocampus will lead to memory problems. It will also lead to a loss of regulation of the stress response which is essentially a chronic stress/anxiety problem.
188
objective behaviors of depressive disorder
poverty of speech, tearfulness, paucity of movement, agitation, no eye contact
189
subjective moods of depressive disorder-
hoplessness, low self esteem, guilt, suicidal thought, anxiety
190
biological symptoms of depressive disorder-
fatigue, insomnia, loss of appetite, reduced libido, early morning rumination
191
biological symptoms of depressive disorder-
fatigue, insomnia, loss of appetite, reduced libido, early morning rumination
192
Most common primary care complaint after hypertension-
major depressive disorder
193
4th highest cause of disability
major depressive disorder
194
HPA axis is ______ in depression
elevated
195
diffuse brainstem transmitter systems are involved in depression, including which 2 NT's?
5-HT and NE
196
anatomically, what brain portion is reduced in size in depression?
hippocampus
197
in major depressive disorder, increases or decreases in cerebral blood flow are observed in what areas?
orbitofrontal cortex, anterior cingulate cortex, amygdala, medial thalamus, ventral striatum
198
SSRI's block _____
SERT
199
What is the immediate effect of SSRI's?
little change, it takes time to go into effect.
200
NE projections form the _______ innervate the limbic system, which is implicated in the regulation of emotions
locus coeruleus
201
NE projections form the _______ innervate the limbic system, which is implicated in the regulation of emotions
locus coeruleus
202
the long term effects of SSRIs are down regulation of _______ and reduction of ______ receptors
- 5HT autoreceptors
| - 5HT2A postsynaptic receptors
203
the binding of 5HT to autoreceptors causes
decrease in release of 5HT
204
Even though the accumulation of 5HT in the synapse due to SSRI's causes a decrease in 5HT receptors, why is net 5HT action still enhanced?
possibly an upregulation of release of 5HT
205
How does ketamine treat depression?
it blocks NMDA receptors which leads to a glutamate accumulation that stimulates a ramp up on AMPA receptor production and use. This strengthens the synapse and enhances glutamate release
206
anti depressants increase expression of ______ which causes synaptogenesis
brain derived neurotropic factor (BDNF)
207
Depression is really not treated with immediate effects, it really comes down to _______
synaptic enhancement (which takes time)
208
Stem cells are generated in the _______ zone within the _____ gyrus of the hippocampus
- sub granular
| - dentate gyrus
209
the development of a mature granule cell neuron from a type 1 radial glia progenitor
radial glia progenitor (Type 1)--> transit amplifying progenitors (Type 2)--> neuroblasts (Type 3)--> newborn neuron--> immature neuron--> mature granule cell neuron
210
antidepressants are thought to upregulate the maturation of stem cells in the ________. _________(3) are thought to down regulate this pathway.
- granular cell layer of the dentate gyrus
| - drugs, stress, and x-radiation
211
a stressed hippocampus treated with fluoxetine demonstrated _________
increased neurogenesis or synaptogenesis from stem cells from the SGZ in the dentate gyrus in the hippocampus.
212
stress enhances CRF, which reduces _______, leading to the reduction of hippocampal dendrites and neurogenesis
BDNF
213
although a stressed hippocampus gets damaged, it also becomes primed to have a stronger response to _____
BDNF
214
BDNF enhances survival by increasing sythesis of survival factors such as _____
bcl-2
215
BDNF enhances survival by increasing sythesis of survival factors such as _____
bcl-2
216
Post partum depression is due to a chain of events that is the exact opposite of _____
SSRI effects
217
how does increased estrogen (like in pregnancy) cause increased 5HT?
it competes with tryptophan for binding sites on albumin, making more tryptophan available for conversion into 5HT
218
Estrogen competitively inhibits _____ leading to higher levels of serotonin and catecholamines in the brain
MAO
219
the effect of ketamine is essentially the same as _____
Long term potentiation
220
Ketamine causes a glutamate burst, which leads to an increase in the insertion of ____ receptors on synapses and an increase in the release of ______
- AMPA
| - BDNF
221
stress causes the internalization of ______ receptors
glutamate
222
sadness is concentrated in:
anterior cingulate cortex subgenual area
223
what area of the subgenual area sees an increase in activity during depression and is responsible for positive symptoms (loss of appetite, sleep problems, reduced libido)
Cg 25
224
what area of the subgenual area sees a decrease in activity during depression and is responsible for negative symptoms (apathy, loss of attn.)
dFr 9 and 46
225
what area is targeted by DBS?
sACCg25, which is the subgenual anterior cingulate gyrus area 25
226
after DBS of sACCg25, what resulted?
increase in activity of dFr 9 and 46 with decreased activity in sACCg25. Correlates with improvement in depressed ppl. even though activity in dFr 9/46 increased
227
objective behaviors of schizophrenia-
odd mannerisms, purposeless movements, talking to self as third person, auditory hallucinations
228
subjective moods of schizphrenia
lack of emotional responsiveness, violent expressions, delusions, paranoia
229
biological symptoms of schizophrenia-
auditory and verbal hallucinations, motor disturbances
230
cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia-
disorganized language, abnormal train of thought, not goal directed
231
Etiology of schizophenia:
onset-
gender preference-
% of pop.-
- adolescent
- male
- .5-1%
232
______ gene for COMT is implicated in schizophrenia
22q11
233
damage to circuitry of 5 areas have been linked to schizophrenia-
dorsolateral prefrontal cortex, hippocampus, amygdala, nucleus accumbens, and mediodorsal nucleus of thalamus
234
schizophrenia may be due to ______ regulation deficit
dopamine
235
short term schizo. leads to a decrease in the volume of:
parietal and frontal lobes
236
long term schizo leads to a decrease in the volume of:
superior temporal gyrus and DLPFC
237
not only cortical volume but also _____ is lost in schizophrenia
neuron number
238
not only cortical volume but also _____ is lost in schizophrenia
neuron number
239
anti-psychotic drugs block ____ and _____
dopamine receptors and dopamine release
240
schizophrenics have increased density of which dopamine receptors?
D1-4, particularly D2
241
what does COMT do?
metabolizes dopamine via methylation
242
mesolimbic dopaminergic system route and what it is associated with in schizo
- VTA-->various portions of the cortex and ventral striatum including nucleus accumbens
- associated with the positive symptoms of schizophrenia (hallucinations and delusions)
243
mesocortical dopaminergic system route and what it is associated with in schizo
- VTA-->wide areas of prefrontal cortex, particularly medial aspects of hemispherer
- associated with negative symptoms (thought disorders and decreased emotional response)
