Block 3 Neuro Flashcards

(76 cards)

1
Q

3 genes associated with ALS

A

SODI, UBQLN2, and C9ORF72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Riluzole-

A

decreases glutamate response to prolong life in ALS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Patient presents with early falls, axial rigidity, supranuclear gaze palsy (vertical more than horizontal) and hummingbird’s sign. What do they have?

A

Progressive Supranuclear Palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

assymetric parkinsonism associated with tau protein deposition =

A

Corticobasal Ganglionic Degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

most common genetic mutation in parkinsons =

A

LRRK2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rasagiline-

A

selective MAO-B inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

MAO-B degrades _________

A

dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MAO-A degrades ________

A

serotonin and NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MS usually first presents with

A

optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Dawson’s fingers-

A

lesions lining up perpendicular to ventricles; suggestive of demyelination rather than vascular lesion. indicative of MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Causes of MS-

A

T cells, genetics, Vitamin D deficiency, and Epstein Barr Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which T cells are responsible for MS

A

Th1 (pro-inflammatory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do Interferon B and glatiramer acetate treat MS?

A

increase Th2 count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how does Fingolimod treat MS?

A

sequester T cells to lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tysabri, the strongest MS drug, works how?

A

prevents T cells from crossing the BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

RAS is mediated by what NTs?

A

acetylcholine, serotonin, dopamine, NE, and histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pathway for ipGRC’s

A

SCN-PVN-thoracic spinal cord-IMLCC-sympathetic chain-superior cervical ganglion-pineal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

locus coeruleus/lateral tegmental group-

A

NE neurons located in pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

pedunculopontine/laterodorsal tegmental (PPT/LDT)-

A

cholinergic neurons, project to thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

dorsal/medial raphe and raphe pontis nucleus-

A

serotoninergic neurons in midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ventral periaqueductal gray matter/VTA/subs nigra-

A

dopaminergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

tuberomamillary nucleus-

A

histaminergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

orexin comes from?

A

lateral hypothalamic area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when melatonin feeds back into the SCN, the SCN can either cause wakefulness by signaling the _______, or sleep, by signaling __________

A

lateral hypothalamic area

ventrolateral preoptic nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what stimulates RAS?
Lateral hypothalamic area
26
the sensory thalamus is sensitized by activation of its:
nicotinic receptors
27
the reticular thalamus is inhibited by the activation of its:
muscarinic receptors
28
waves associated with awake state
alpha and beta
29
Stage 1 sleep waves
theta
30
stage 2 sleep waves
sleep spindles/ K complexes
31
stage 3 and 4 sleep waves
delta
32
slow wave sleep is initiated in the ________ nucleus via inhibition
ventrolateral preoptic nucleus (VLPO)
33
VLPO releases _______ to inhibit RAS and the Thalamus
GABA
34
GABAergic neurons of the PRF and thalamus inhibit _____ systems and activate _____ system
NE, 5HT | Ach
35
how do we achieve muscle atonia during REM sleep?
GABA from PRF inhibits NE and 5-HT systems, which where inhibiting acetylcholine neurons. The disinhibition causes ACh--> glutaminergic neuron--> glycinergic neuron--> alpha motor neuron--> muscle atonia
36
How do we achieve cortical activity during REM sleep?
GABA from PRF inhibits NE and 5-HT systems, which where inhibiting acetylcholine neurons. The disinhibition causes ACh neurons--> GABA neurons in thalamus--> inhibit input from eyes (leads to REM)
37
____ neurons generate rapid eye movements
PRF
38
GABA neurons of PRF inhibit input from dorsal column nuclei during REM, which causes
decreased sensory response
39
Tetrad of narcolepsy:
excessive sleepiness, sudden weakness, hallucinations, and muscle paralysis
40
narcolepsy is associated with a mutation of
hypocretin/orexin receptor
41
are there sensory symptoms in myopathies?
no
42
most common inherited myopathy
myotonic dystrophy
43
myotonic dystrophy due to
defect in protein kinase myotonin gene. CTG repeat
44
a sign of myotonic dystrophy is early ______
cataracts
45
Tensilon test-
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. must perform in ER because it causes bradycardia.
46
Treatment of Myasthenia gravis
acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
47
symptoms of botulism-
difficulty swallowing, dry mouth, paralysis, fatigue...
48
what symptoms are absent with botulism?
no fever, no elevated BP, no confusion
49
radiculopathy-
involvement of one specific dermatome
50
mononeuropathy multiplex-
multiple single nerve lesions
51
Key finding with polyneuropathies-
sensory complaints greater than weakness
52
Charcot Marie Tooth Disease-
inherited demyelinating neuropathy
53
signs of Charcot Marie Tooth disease-
hammer toes and high arches. Also Stork Legs
54
Rubral Tremor-
slow course tremor with combined features of other tremors
55
Cerebellum is concerned with these non-motor functions
sensory disc., attention, memory, verbal learning, speech. Through connections to cortical areas
56
4 brainstem nuclei that contain preganglionic parasympathetics
edinger westphal, superior salivatory, inferior salivatory, dorsal motor nucleus of vagus
57
which nerve is not part of cervical plexus, even though it is usually grouped with it?
suboccipital nerve
58
4 nerves of cervical plexus
lesser occipital, greater auricular, transverse cervical, and supraclavicular
59
name the 3 trunks of brachial plexus
superior, middle, inferior
60
name the divisions of the brachial plexus
each trunk has anterior and posterior division
61
name the cords of the brachial plexus
lateral, medial, and posterior cord
62
ulnar nerve innervates all intrinsic muscles of the hand except:
1/2 LOAF. 2 lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis
63
Klumpke's paralysis-
ape and claw hand. lesion of C8 and T1
64
weakness of pronation indicative of
anterior interosseous nerve lesion
65
claw hand indicative of
ulnar nerve lesion
66
which ventral rami make the lumbar plexus?
T12-L4
67
which ventral rami make the lumbosacral plexus?
L4-S3
68
tibial nerve is derived from what nerve?
the sciatic nerve
69
which cells form parallel fibers in the cerebellar cortex?
granule cells
70
the only excitatory cell in the cerebellar cortex
granule cell
71
inhibitory interneurons of the cerebellar cortex
golgi cells
72
pontocerebellar fibers originate from
contralateral pons
73
olivocerebellar fibers originate in
contralateral inferior olive
74
the only source of climbing fibers-
inferior olivary nuclei
75
how many climbing fibers innervate each purkinje cell?
only 1
76
are climbing fibers excitatory or inhibitory?
excitatory