Bob's questions (401-500) Flashcards by Danielle Fusco

In which of the following positions should a nontraumatic conscious patient showing signs and symptoms of an altered mental status be transported:

a. prone, with head elevated
b. supine, with feet elevated
c. laterally, with feet elevated
d. supine, with head elevated

d. supine, with head elevated

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How deep does a rescuer press down on the chest of a child?

a. 11/2 to 2 inches
b. 2 to 21/2 inches
c. 21/2 to 3 inches
d. at least1/3 the depth of the chest, about
2 inches (5 cm)

d. at least1/3 the depth of the chest, about
2 inches (5 cm)

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Blunt or penetrating trauma to which of the following areas is MOST LIKELY to cause serious hypovolemic shock?

a. chest and abdominal region
b. forearm
c. face
d. lower leg

a. chest and abdominal region

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You have determined that a victim’s upper and lower extremities show no reaction to sensory stimuli. What part of the spine has most likely been injured:

a. sacral
b. cervical
c. thoracic
d. lumbar

b. cervical

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A localized closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and bruising is called a/an:

a. avulsion
b. laceration
c. contusion
d. abrasion

c. contusion

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A pressure dressing may require loosening if:

a. the wound is contaminated
b. the dressings are saturated
c. the patient is not in shock
d. no distal pulse is detected

d. no distal pulse is detected

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A closed bone or joint injury is BEST defined as an injury:

a. with associated muscle spasm or swelling around a joint
b. in which there is no break in the continuity of the skin
c. of a long bone with skin discoloration over the affected area
d. with associated ligament involvement

b. in which there is no break in the continuity of the skin

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The treatment for a trauma victim who has sustained a hip joint injury is to:

a. apply a traction splint to the injured leg
b. apply an air splint
c. apply padded board splints and a long spine board
d. attempt to replace the hip to its socket

c. apply padded board splints and a long spine board

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The MOST SERIOUS problem associated with an injury to a joint is that this type of injury:

a. is frequently accompanied by nerve and vascular damage
b. often produces grotesque deformity
c. is very difficult to assess
d. is extremely painful

A. is frequently accompanied by nerve and vascular damage

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A patient is found with severe angulation and deformity of both bones of the forearm. The injury does NOT involve the joints and no radial pulse is present. The injury should be:

a. splinted with a traction splint
b. splinted only with a pillow-type splint
c. straightened by applying gently traction
d. splinted in the exact position in which it is found

c. straightened by applying gently traction

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A traction splint has been properly applied when:

a. the patient feels an increase in pain
b. the fracture is fully reduced
c. broken bone ends are fully aligned
d. limb alignment is maintained by traction

d. limb alignment is maintained by traction

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Which sign indicates that an injury to the neck caused by a blunt object may be a life-threatening emergency?

a. there is a temporary loss of sensation in the arms and legs due to the injury
b the patient complains of a sore throat when swallowing
c. there is stridor and wheezing during respiration
d. the patient does not use accessory muscles to breathe

c. there is stridor and wheezing during respiration

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When a patient is being secured to a spinal immobilization device, which part should be secured FIRST?

a. head b. torso
c. legs d. neck

b. torso

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A 65-year-old male was involved in a two-car motor vehicle crash. Upon examination, he complains of chest pain upon breathing and tenderness of the sternum. Your initial care would be to:

a. stabilize the sternum
b. position the patient on his side
c. administer high-concentration oxygen
d. administer the patient’s prescribed nitroglycerin

c. administer high-concentration oxygen

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You are treating a male patient who has a penetrating chest wound and frothy bright-red blood at the mouth. About 10 minutes after sealing the chest wall, you notice that the patient’s breathing becomes much worse. At this point, you should

a. immediately place the patient on his uninjured side
b. lift the corner of the dressing
c. administer positive-pressure ventilation immediately
d. administer pure oxygen to aid respiration

b. lift the corner of the dressing

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Your patient has an open gunshot wound of the chest that is making a gurgling noise. The patient has labored breathing and cyanosis. The FIRST priority of treatment is to:

a. assess the patient’s vital signs and determine patient status
b. administer oxygen and seal the chest wound
c immobilize the patient’s spine
d. apply a light dressing and position the patient lying on the injured side

b. administer oxygen and seal the chest wound

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Upon arriving at the scene of an accident, you find a victim who has bowel loops protruding through an abdominal laceration. You should cover the loops:

a. and apply direct pressure
b. as you would an impaled object
c. with a dry sterile absorbent dressing d. with a moist sterile dressing

d. with a moist sterile dressing

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A 62-year-old male is complaining of breathing difficulty and left arm pain radiating to the right jaw. Vital signs are: BP=90/60, P=120, R=24. The patient should be administered:

a. low-concentration oxygen, and be placed lying down
b. high-concentration oxygen, and be positioned with legs raised
c. high-concentration oxygen, and be placed in a position of comfort for ease of breathing
d. low-concentration oxygen, and be placed in a position of comfort for ease of breathing

c. high-concentration oxygen, and be placed in a position of comfort for ease of breathing

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A child drank some unknown fluid. You arrive at the scene and note the following signs: the child’s mouth and lips are a reddish color, and he is coughing and gagging. You assess and manage the ABCs and begin transport. What should you do next?

a.. administer syrup of ipecac and activated charcoal
b. administer syrup of ipecac
c. administer activated charcoal and induce vomiting
d. call the poison control center or Medical Control for advice

d. call the poison control center or Medical Control for advice

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Immediately after delivering a full-term newborn, you assess the following vital signs: P=90 and R= slow and shallow. Your NEXT action should be to:

a. assist ventilations
b. begin chest compressions
c. provide 6 liters of oxygen by non-rebreathing mask
d. insert a nasopharyngeal airway

a. assist ventilations

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During a breech delivery, what should you do if the baby’s head is not delivered within 3 minutes after the body?

a. place the mother in an exaggerated shock position
b. with a gloved hand, establish an airway for the baby
c. gently pull the baby out of the vagina
d. apply pressure over the mother’s lower abdomen

b. with a gloved hand, establish an airway for the baby

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A patient was pulled from a house fire and has burns involving arms, chest, and back. You should FIRST:

a. determine the percentage of burn area and apply moist dressings
b. remove burned clothes that adhere to the skin
c. Stop the burn process and access for airway and respiratory distress
d. cover the burn area with a sterile sheet and treat for shock

c. Stop the burn process and access for airway and respiratory distress

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Which of the following burns are classified as “critical” burns in a 35-year-old male with no known underlying medical problems?

a. superficial burns covering 60% of the body
b. full-thickness burns covering 9% of the body and involving the chest
c. partial-thickness burns covering 18% of the body
d. full-thickness burns covering 15% of the body and involving the chest

d. full-thickness burns covering 15% of the body and involving the chest

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The PRIMARY concern of treatment for a heat emergency is to:

a. restore normal respirations
b. rid the body of excessive heat
c. maintain body temperature
d. replace the salt lost through perspiration

b. rid the body of excessive heat

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The treatment for an unconscious patient with generalized hypothermia would be to: a. prevent further heat loss, maintain body temperature, and transport gently b. rapidly rewarm the victim, using external heat sources c. exercise the patient’s extremities to improve blood circulation d. attempt to administer warm fluids by mouth

a. prevent further heat loss, maintain body temperature, and transport gently

The appropriate action to take when you must apply restraints to an emotionally disturbed patient who is in danger to himself and others is to remove the straps: a. when the patient appears rational b. only when the patient calms down c. if the patient complains of discomfort d. when directed by a physician at the hospital

d. when directed by a physician at the hospital

According to Section 1104 of the Vehicle and Traffic laws, the driver of an authorized emergency vehicle who is involved in an emergency operation may exercise all of the following privileges EXCEPT: a. disregarding regulations governing directions of movement b. proceeding through a red light without slowing down as may be necessary for safe operation c. stopping, standing, and/or parking without regard to posted regulations d. exceeding the maximum speed limit, so long as he/she does not endanger life or property

b. proceeding through a red light without slowing down as may be necessary for safe operation

The opposite of distal is: a. superior b. lateral c. medial d. proximal

d. proximal

Which type of burn is characterized by the LEAST amount of pain? a. superficial burn b. partial-thickness burn c. full thickness burn d. any sunburn

c. full thickness burn

Which of the following is a sign of a skull fracture? a. hypoperfusion (shock) b. decreasing blood pressure c. cerebrospinal fluid leaking from the ears d. neurogenic shock

c. cerebrospinal fluid leaking from the ears

The purpose of the first set of vital signs is to: a. establish a baseline for additional evaluations b. determine all that is necessary for the PCR c. accurately measure patient’s status d. fully assess the patient’s condition

a. establish a baseline for additional evaluations

Which of the following is NOT a sign of a chest injury? a. tracheal shifting b. distention of the neck veins c. breathing difficulty d. slow, deep respirations

d. slow, deep respirations

You are caring for a patient suffering from a heat emergency. The patient has hot, dry skin. Which of the following would NOT be done? a. transport the patient immediately b. obtain and record the vital signs c. administer a high concentration of oxygen d. maintain body temperature

d. maintain body temperature

An early sign of hypothermia involves: a. shivering b. sleepiness and apathy c. indifference d. exhaustion

a. shivering

A physical sign of significant force to the thorax is: a. unequal chest expansion b. abdominal pain c. chest pain d. nausea

a. unequal chest expansion

An accident victim exhibits noisy breathing that resembles the sound of snoring. What is the probable cause of this sound? a. spasm of the larynx b. fluid in the lungs c. partial airway obstruction by the tongue d. spasm of the pharynx

c. partial airway obstruction by the tongue

En route to the hospital with a woman who is 9 months pregnant and in active labor, you notice that the umbilical cord is prolapsed. You should: a. push the cord back into the vagina b. place a dry, sterile towel around the cord c. place the patient in a Fowler’s position d. Insert your sterile gloved hand into the vagina and push the infant’s head away from the cord

d. Insert your sterile gloved hand into the vagina and push the infant’s head away from the cord

A severe diabetic emergency is characterized by: a. “A” on the AVPU scale b. an altered mental status c. a slow pulse d. urine retention

b. an altered mental status

While performing rescue breathing on an infant or child, you should ventilate every: a. 2 seconds b. 4 seconds c. 6 seconds d. 8 seconds

b. 4 seconds

When ventilating an adult patient in cardiac arrest, each breath should last: a. 1 second b. 2 seconds c. 3 seconds d. 4 seconds

a. 1 second

Keeping the heel of the hand lightly in contact with the chest during the relaxation phase of chest compression is helpful because: a. stomach distention can be prevented b. correct hand position can be maintained c. full expansion of the chest can be avoided d. the pressure enhances cardiac contraction

b. correct hand position can be maintained

With a child patient, all of the following are signs of respiratory failure EXCEPT: a. limp muscle tone b. cyanosis c. crying d. weak distal pulses

c. crying

Which of the following disorders is MOST OFTEN confused with acute alcohol intoxication? a. aspirin overdose b. diabetic emergency c. general motor seizure d. anaphylactic reaction

b. diabetic emergency

How would you describe bleeding from a vein? a. bright red; flowing steadily b. bright red; spurting c. dark red; flowing steadily d. dark red; spurting

c. dark red; flowing steadily

According to AHA guidelines, when ventilating a non-breathing adult with oxygen, inspiration tidal volumes will be sufficient when you: a. cause maximal chest rise b. cause visible chest rise c. fully compress the adult bag-mask d. feel resistance on the adult BVM

b. cause visible chest rise

An EMS provider observes a male restaurant patron suddenly begin to clutch his throat while eating dinner. The EMS provider should FIRST: a.perform abdominal thrusts b. artrifically ventilate c. deliver 4 sharp rapid blows between the shoulder blades d.ask him if he is choking

d. ask him if he is choking

You are treating a child in respiratory distress with a high grade fever, muffled voice and noticeable drooling. You should suspect: a. croup b. laryngitis c. tonsillitis d. epiglotitis

d. epiglotitis

When ventilating an adult in respiratory arrest, the rescuer should ventilate once every: a. 3 – 4 seconds (20 – 15 per minute) b. 5 – 6 seconds (12 – 10 per min.) c. 8 – 10 seconds (7 – 6 per minute) d. 10 – 12 seconds (6 – 5 per min.)

b. 5 – 6 seconds (12 – 10 per min.)

With an advanced airway in place, the rescuer should deliver a breath every: a. 3 - 5 seconds ( 20 – 12 per minute) b. 5 – 6 seconds (12 – 10 per min.) c. 6 – 8 seconds (10 – 7 per minute) d. 8 – 10 seconds (7 – 6 per min.)

c. 6 – 8 seconds (10 – 7 per minute)

After the initial shock of a defibrillator, the person doing compressions: a. checks for return of a carotid pulse b. checks for return of a radial pulse c. Looks, Listens and Feels for return of breathing d. immediately resumes CPR for 2 minutes (5 cycles

d. immediately resumes CPR for 2 minutes (5 cycles

You are doing airway obstruction maneuvers for a conscious adult who is choking when the patient loses consciousness. You lower the patient to the ground and check the mouth to see if you can visualize a foreign body. What would you do next? a. open the patient’s airway and attempt to give breaths b. with the victim in a supine position, continue to do abdominal thrusts in sets of five in between checking for a visible foreign body c. add chest thrusts to abdominal thrusts, alternating in between checking for as visible object d. begin CPR

d. begin CPR

You are doing two-person CPR on an adult patient. How would ventilations be given? a. one ventilation after every 5 compressions b. one ventilation after every 15 compressions c. two ventilations after every 15 compressions d. two ventilations after every 30 compressions

d. two ventilations after every 30 compressions

You are suctioning a patient who is producing frothy sputum as rapidly as you can remove it. How would you handle this situation? a. suction for 15 seconds, ventilate for 2 minutes, and then repeat the suction b. continue to suction until the frothy sputum stops and the airway has been cleared c. limit suctioning to 1 – 2 minutes for this patient, then ventilate for two minutes and then resume suctioning d. limit suctioning to 10 – 15 seconds and ventilate in between attempts to clear the airway

a. suction for 15 seconds, ventilate for 2 minutes, and then repeat the suction

Which of the following would be the most effective way to deliver artificial ventilation with high concentration oxygen to a patient who is not breathing? a. one person BVM technique with oxygen set at 25 lpm b. two person BVM technique with oxygen set at 15 lpm c. pocket mask technique with oxygen set a 15 lpm d. pocket mask technique with a nasal cannula placed on the patient

b. two person BVM technique with oxygen set at 15 lpm

Anatomically, the alveoli are in closest proximity to the: a. pulmonary capillaries b. mainstream bronchi c. pulmonary arteries d. diaphragm

a. pulmonary capillaries

You have responded to the scene of an adult cardiac arrest. Bystanders report that the patient has been down for about five minutes and no CPR has been started. What is your most appropriate initial action in this situation? a. attach the AED and defibrillate as soon as possible, if advised b. do 5 cycles (about 2 minutes) of CPR before activation the AED c. call for an ALS intercept and transport immediately d. do two cycles of CPR while applying the AED and then defibrillate, if advised

b. do 5 cycles (about 2 minutes) of CPR before activation the AED

Moving a patient onto a long spine board in a narrow hallway or between two close immovable objects may be best accomplished by which of the following techniques? a. four man log roll b. traction blanket lift c. chair carry d. straddle slide

d. straddle slide

While ventilating a laryngectomy patient through his stoma, you notice that there is inadequate chest rise and air is exiting through the patient’s mouth and nose. What would you do? a. provide ventilations more forcefully b. open the airway in a more exaggerated position and provide slightly less air with each breath c. close off the stoma and ventilate the patient through the mouth and nose d. close off the mouth and nose and continue to ventilate through the stoma

d. close off the mouth and nose and continue to ventilate through the stoma

You are responding to a call for a 6-year-old in respiratory distress. The first responder on scene reports that the patient has a respiratory rate of 15 breaths per minute. What addition assessment would NOT be useful to determine if this patient requires assisted ventilations? a. level of consciousness b. pulse rate and strength c. blood pressure d. capillary refill

c. blood pressure

You have applied an AED to you ten-year-old patient and the AED has advised a shock. According to NYS protocols, how would you proceed in this situation? a. do one defibrillation followed by two minutes of CPR with no pulse check. Then allow the AED to re-analyze b. do three defibrillations in a row if the AED indicates shock is advised, followed by a pulse check and two minutes of CPR. Continue in this order until the AED no longer indicates shock and then transport the patient c. do one defibrillation, then check for a pulse and transport the patient d. resume CPR, advise ALS that the child requires defibrillation, and meet ALS en route as soon as possible

a. do one defibrillation followed by two minutes of CPR with no pulse check. Then allow the AED to re-analyze

According to NYS BLS protocols, how many defibrillations total should be given on scene before transporting the patient? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. as many as the AED allows

b. 3

According to NYS protocols, which of the following is the preferred method for ventilation the adult patient who demonstrates inadequate ventilations and you have two rescuers? a. non-rebreather mask with oxygen at 12 lpm or grater b. BVM with reservoir and supplemental oxygen c. pocket mask with supplemental oxygen set at 15 liters d. flow-restricted, oxygen powered ventilation device

b. BVM with reservoir and supplemental oxygen

The chamber of the heart that receives blood from the peripheral circulation is the: a. right atrium b. right ventricle c. left atrium d. left ventricle

a. right atrium

In which of the following situations would the history usually be acquired first and play a more significant role that the physical exam in the assessment of the patient? a. an unconscious patient with a history of diabetes b. an unconscious patient with a history of several strokes c. a conscious motor vehicle crash victim d. a conscious patient with chest pain

d. a conscious patient with chest pain

You have just delivered a baby and are clamping the umbilical cord. You have placed the first clamp 8 – 10 inches from the baby. Where will you place the second clamp? a. 3 inches from the first clamp towards the mother b. 7 inches from the baby. (4 inches from the distal clamp) c. 4 finger widths from the baby d. 2 inches from the first clamp in either direction

a. 3 inches from the first clamp towards the mother

You have delivered a baby who is in stable condition and you are observing the mother for signs that the placenta is about to deliver. How long, at the maximum, should you wait on scene for placental delivery before initiating transport? a. 10 minutes b. 20 minutes c. 30 minutes d. do not wait for the placenta to be delivered before transporting

d. do not wait for the placenta to be delivered before transporting

You are caring for a newborn whose pulse rate is 92 beats per minute. According to NYS protocols, the EMT should: a. observe the child closely and be prepared to intervene; This rate is on the low side of normal for a newborn b. assist ventilations at 40 – 60 per minute c. administer high concentration oxygen d. stimulate the baby vigorously by slapping the baby on the buttocks

b. assist ventilations at 40 – 60 per minute

At 8:30 PM you receive a call for a “sick child.” You find that the patient is a six-year-old male who appears to be sleeping peacefully. The babysitter is concerned because of the child’s lack of usual activity. He hasn’t left the bedroom since 5 PM and she has had some trouble awakening him. The babysitter states that he has a history of asthma and has been having “a lot of problems breathing lately.” On exam, you find that the child is asleep and difficult to awaken. His skin is very pale with a bluish tinge. Pulse is 60 and regular. Pupils are slightly dilated but reactive. There are no wheezes audible with a stethoscope and breath sounds are difficult to hear. There are occasional twitching movements in the extremities. Which of the following statements about this patient is TRUE? a. he should immediately be given humidified oxygen by non-rebreather mask and transported to the hospital. Notify ALS and meet them en route. b. the fact that he is able to sleep peacefully indicates that he is not having a serious respiratory problem. You should suspect that something else is causing the difficulty in waking the patient. Notify ALS and transport immediately c. the absence of wheezing indicates that the problem with this child in not asthma and the difficulty waking him is probably not of concern. Suggest that the babysitter call the parents to check if this has ever happened before d. this child is in imminent danger of cardiac arrest. ALS should be called; he should be ventilated immediately with high concentration oxygen and transported immediately to the hospital

a. he should immediately be given humidified oxygen by non-rebreather mask and transported to the hospital. Notify ALS and meet them en route.

Which of the following findings would NOT be consistent with early shock in an adult patient? a. pulse of 120 per minute b. anxiety and restlessness c. thirst d. BP of 88/66

d. BP of 88/66

The type of shock in which the body is no longer able to maintain adequate perfusion is: a. neurogenic shock b. hypovolemic shock c. distributive shock d. decompensated shock

d. decompensated shock

Which of the following is NOT a sign of increased intracranial pressure and brain herniation? a. increased blood pressure b. seizures c. tachycardia d. asymmetric pupils

d. asymmetric pupils

Which of the following would be least likely to cause distributive shock? a. burns b. spinal cord injury c. anaphylaxis d. sepsis

a. burns

Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who, while riding his bike, was struck by a car that was traveling approximately 35 miles per hour. During the initial assessment you find no immediate life threats. During your rapid trauma assessment you discover a painful, deformed upper arm and right femur. How would you proceed? a. immobilize each fracture individually with appropriate splints. Then place the child on a spine board b. quickly secure the boy’s arm by tying it to his body; bind his two legs together and transfer the child to a spine board c. immobilize the femur with a traction splint before boarding the patient. The arm fracture can wait until you are in the ambulance en route to the hospital d. splint the arm and place the patient on a spineboard. Apply a traction splint to the femur fracture en route to the hospital if you have time

b. quickly secure the boy’s arm by tying it to his body; bind his two legs together and transfer the child to a spine board

Which type of spinal injury is most commonly caused by hanging and frequently causes damage to the cord but not to the spinal column? a. hyperextension b. hyperflexion c. distraction d. compression

a. hyperextension

You are called to treat a patient who was driving and, for no apparent reason, ran his car off the road. The patient’s breathing is very shallow and you are preparing to assist his ventilations with a BVM. You notice that the patient has a stoma, and his wife, who is uninjured, tells you that he has had a laryngectomy for throat cancer. How would you proceed? a. ventilate normally through the patient’s mouth and nose while closing off the stoma with your hand or thumb b. ventilate through the stoma using a pediatric size mask c. call medical control to get their advice on ventilation for this patient d. open the airway in the normal way and alternate ventilation both through the mouth/nose and through the stoma, seeing which one results in the better chest rise

b. ventilate through the stoma using a pediatric size mask

According to NYS protocols, when should an EMT cover a patient’s burns with wet dressings? a. when the patient is complaining of severe pain b. any time the burn is caused by chemicals c. partial thickness burns less than 10 % BSA d. full thickness burns less than 9% BSA

c. partial thickness burns less than 10 % BSA

According to NYS protocols, which of the following patients with major blunt trauma would be a candidate for the use of MAST? a. a 40-year-old male with blunt trauma to the abdomen who has a systolic BP of 70 mmHg b. a 52-year-old female with suspected pelvic fracture and a systolic BP of 86 mmHg c. a 7-year-old male with suspected internal bleeding of the abdomen d. none of the above. MAST is no longer in NYS protocols

b. a 52-year-old female with suspected pelvic fracture and a systolic BP of 86 mmHg

When EMS responds to an incident involving multiple patients or other disaster situations, incident command should be established: a. immediately upon arrival of the first unit b. after assessment of the situation and the nature and extent of the incident is fully understood c. as soon as the chief, captain or other supervisor arrives d. as soon as enough manpower arrives on scene to designate a commander

b. after assessment of the situation and the nature and extent of the incident is fully understood

The NYS Vehicle and Traffic Law allows an emergency vehicle operating with lights and siren to do all of the following except: a. pass a school bus whose red lights are flashing b. proceed the wrong way into a highway on-ramp c. exceed the speed limit d. pass another vehicle in a non-passing zone

a. pass a school bus whose red lights are flashing

The most visible warning lights on emergency vehicles such as ambulances are: a. those located on the roof b. those at eye level to other drivers c. those placed on the outer corners of the sides of the vehicle d. the headlights

d. the headlights

The term used for cutting, bending, and moving for the removal a victim from a situation is called: a. Extrication b. Disentanglement c. heavy rescue d. Extrication

b. Disentanglement

Where would you expect to find a healthy victim’s Blood Pressure during an allergic reaction a. Very low b..Very high c. About normal d. He would not have a palpatable blood pressure.

c. About normal

You have a client that is on low flow home M.D. prescribed oxygen. The patient has called you for an unrelated problem. His respiratory status is uncompromised. What should do about his oxygen?? a. D/C the oxygen and wait to see what happens during the transport b. Keep the oxygen flowing at his rate but only deliver via a nasal cannula c. Continue what the pt. was doing at home during the transport d. Continue the flow the same as he was on at home but switch to a NRB

c. Continue what the pt. was doing at home during the transport

What part of the heart muscle is the thickest? a. Right Ventrical b. Left Ventrical c. Left Atrium d. Right Atrium

b. Left Ventrical

You find a victim has a confirmed fracture of the femur. He is stable and you are awaiting the transport ambulance with a 15 minute ETA. Which splint is recommended ? a The rigid board spint b. The pillow splint c. The traction splint d. A backboard

c. The traction splint

A victim is becoming very agitated every time the siren yelps. You should. a. His condition has no bearing on drivers decisions and responsiblities b. Continue to use the siren as time is tissue c. Advise the driver that siren is agitating the patient and they should stop the use of the siren. d. Counsel the patient and try to calm the victim down

c. Advise the driver that siren is agitating the patient and they should stop the use of the siren.

35 y/o female presents with difficultly breathing that is progressing to severe. She admits to driving a long distance today with no breaks. She is diaphoretic, has pain in her legs that is getting worse and thought she felt some thing moving. She denies pregnancy and takes a birth control pill. Admits to smoking. What is a very likely her cause of dyspnea. a. Lung Cancer b. Chronic Obstructive Disease c. Pulmonary Emboli d. myocardial Infarction

c. Pulmonary Emboli

Define the process of cutting metal, prying doors, removing glass to remove a victim of a motor vehicle crash. a. Extrication b. Rescue c. Disentanglement d. extraction

c. Disentanglement

Define Extraction from a wildland accident scene a. Using a hoist to remove a patient by aircraft b. Removing a body part to get a trapped patient out of scene c. Using a KED to assist removing a patient from a car d. Using a backboard to slide a patient from one room to another

a. Using a hoist to remove a patient by aircraft

According to NYS protocols: how many Nitro tabs can an EMT administer? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

c. 3

491. A patient with severe chest injuries should be reevaluated every : a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 5 minutes

d. 5 minutes

A patient is defined as “in extremis”, is he ? a. Just fine b. Hurt c. Severely injured usually requiring trauma team activation d. Classified a moderately injured.

c. Severely injured usually requiring trauma team activation

You have been called to a scene of an emotionally disturbed adult. Law Enforcement is on scene. The man admits to losing is job and severely cut his wrist. The officer has done moderately good job of stopping the bleeding. What is your first action? a. rebandage the wound] b. tell officer the should not attempt EMS practices in the future c. Quickly bandage the wounds d. Identify yourself to man, request permission to treat him and remain non judgemental.

d. Identify yourself to man, request permission to treat him and remain non judgemental.

The bleeding has not stopped What is next action? a. remove all dressings start again b. add additional dressings and add pressure c. Tourniquet application d. Do nothing and ask the officer to redo his work

b. add additional dressings and add pressure

The bleeding continues and in fact increases, what is your next move? a. Have to victim perform self care b. Request a sign off c. Add more dressing and ask the driver to increase his speed to the hospital d. Utilize a tourniquet and follow NYS protocols.

d. Utilize a tourniquet and follow NYS protocols.

According to the AHA 2015 standards, what is the appropriate for compressions for an adult in Cardiac Arrest? a. 60 to 100 b. 100 to 110 c. 80 to 98.6 d. at least 100 no more than 120

d. at least 100 no more than 120

According to the AHA 2015 standards, what is the appropriate depth of compressions in an adult female in Cardiac Arrest? a. 1 inch b. 1.5 inches c. 2.25 inches d. 2.40 inches but never more then 2.50 inches

d. 2.40 inches but never more then 2.50 inches

In a person of color, where is the best place to check for perfusion a. Skin b. Eyes c. Mucosa d. Nail beds

c. Mucosa

Where does arteries and veins meet? a. Veinules b. Artierals c. Aorta d. Capillaries

d. Capillaries

Please name the two shockable arrhythmias that are recognized by an AED a. V-Fib and Pulseless Tachycardia b. Systole c. Asystole d. Junctional Escape Rhythm and Torsade’s

a. V-Fib and Pulseless Tachycardia

According to the incident command system, Who is in charge an incident? a. A chief b. A Captain c. A bystander d. The Incident Commander

d. The Incident Commander

Bob's questions (401-500) Flashcards

(101 cards)