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Virology > Cancer (Exam 4) > Flashcards

Cancer (Exam 4) Flashcards

1
Q

Term for healthy cells transforming to cancer cells (forming neoplasms).

A

Oncogenesis

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2
Q

Oncogenesis is a combination of ______ and _______ changes.

A

cellular & genetic

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2
Q

Abnormal tissue mass with uncoordinated and unregulated growth.

A

neoplasm/tumor

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3
Q

All malignant neoplasms (gain ability to invade/metastasize) are commonly called:

A

cancer

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4
Q

Term for change in cell growth properties after viral infection.

A

transformation

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5
Q

Process for when the viral genome persists in tumor cells and viral genes expressed promote autogenous growth and neoplastic cell survival:

A

viral oncogenesis

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6
Q

Transfer of genes from virus to host:

A

transduction

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7
Q

List the 4 gene targets of genetic damage (which can be related to formation of cancer).

A
  1. proto-oncogenes
  2. tumor suppressor genes
  3. apoptosis-regulating genes
  4. DNA repair genes
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8
Q

Match the gene which is a target for genetic damage to its typical function:

  1. inhibit cell growth
  2. regulate cell-growth & proliferation
  3. inhibit damaged DNA cell division
  4. initiate cell death
A
  1. tumor suppressor genes
  2. proto-oncogenes
  3. DNA repair genes
  4. apoptosis-regulating genes
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9
Q

(T/F) Genes targeted for damage can contribute to cancer development BEFORE viral infection as the “second hit”.

A

False - virus is “first hit” and mutation after

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10
Q

Viral carcinogenesis uses _______ and ______ molecular changes to cause neoplasia.

A

direct and indirect

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11
Q

Direct mechanisms for viral carcinogenesis include formation of oncogenes, blocking of apoptosis, and activating telomerase. What are 2 indirect mechanisms?

A
  1. chronic inflammation
  2. immunosuppression
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12
Q

Immunosuppression causes viral carcinogenesis indirectly by causing hyperplasia –> dysplasia –> neoplasia.

A

False - chronic inflammation

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13
Q

Immunosuppression indirectly contributes to viral carcinogenesis by disables _______ cells.

A

CD8+ cytotoxic T cells

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14
Q

Which group of RNA viruses are oncogenic?

A

retroviruses

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15
Q

Retroviruses are a group of oncogenic RNA viruses which all have which enzyme?

A

Reverse transcriptase (RNA –> DNA)

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16
Q

Retroviruses are (ss/ds) (DNA/RNA), (enveloped/nonenveloped) viruses.

A

ssRNA enveloped

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17
Q

(T/F) Retroviruses are cytolytic.

A

False (NOT cytolytic)

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18
Q

List the 3 mechanisms Retroviruses use for development of cancer.

A
  1. transduction
  2. insertional mutagenesis
  3. alter cell function (v-onc)
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19
Q

Retroviruses use transduction for development of cancer by inserting ______ into the host cell genome.

A

v-onc

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20
Q

(T/F) 100% of Retrovirus infection leads to transformation / tumor development.

A

True

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21
Q

During insertional mutagenesis used by retroviruses, ________ is inserted which causes cell growth.

A

provirus

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22
Q

Term for the viral nucleic acid sequence inserted in Insertional Mutagenesis.

A

provirus

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23
Q

Retroviruses use insertional mutagenesis which have a ________ period.

A

latency (low transformation rate)

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24
Q

_______ alters cell function with a long latency period but NO transduction. Less than 5% infected hosts will develop tumors.

A

v-onc

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25
Q

List the 3 retroviruses discussed which cause Viral Oncogenesis.

A
  1. Feline Leukemia Virus
  2. Bovine Leukemia Virus
  3. Avian Leukosis & Sarcoma Viruses
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26
Q

In addition to retroviruses, _________ can cause oncogenesis leading to Marek’s Disease in chickens.

A

Gallid Herpesvirus-2

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27
Q

Feline Leukemia Virus is a (core/non-core) vaccine for kittens and a (core/non-core) vaccine for adults.

A

Kittens: core
Adults: non-core

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28
Q

List the 4 subtypes of FeLV. Which is the infectious type?

A

FeLV-A *infectious
FeLV-B
FeLV-C
FeLV-T

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29
Q

(T/F) FeLV-B, C, and T are all mutated and recombinant forms of FeLV-A once in an infected cat.

A

True

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30
Q

________ ________ virus is a recombination of FeLV-A with a cell gene which leads to an oncogene.

A

Feline Sarcoma virus

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31
Q

(T/F) FeLV can be transmitted horizontally and vertically.

A

True

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32
Q

Which 2 ways can FeLV be transmitted horizontally? Which is more significant and prolonged?

A
  1. saliva (prolonged)
  2. fomites (do not persist)
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33
Q

List the 3 ways FeLV can be transmitted vertically.

A
  1. transplacental
  2. milk
  3. queen saliva
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34
Q

After oronasal exposure, FeLV replicates in ________ & _______, leading to a primary viremia and subsequent __________ infection.

A

lymphocytes & macrophages
bone marrow

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35
Q

Once FeLV infects the bone marrow precursor cells, it infects ________ and infects target organs such as thymus, spleen, salivary gland, mammary gland, and mucosal epithelium.

A

leukocytes/platelets

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36
Q

(T/F) FeLV can be shed in saliva, nasal secretions, milk, and feces.

A

True

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37
Q

List the 4 possible outcomes of FeLV exposure.

A
  1. no infection
  2. abortive infection
  3. latent infection
  4. progressive infection
38
Q

Only cats with a _______ FeLV infection are infectious and are likely to develop clinical disease in the future.

A

progressive

39
Q

Match the FeLV exposure outcome to their test results:

  1. Positive antibody & PCR
  2. ALL positive tests
  3. ALL negative tests
  4. All negative except p27 antigen test
A
  1. latent infection
  2. progressive infection
  3. no infection
  4. abortive infection
40
Q

List the 3 genes FeLV uses to directly cause oncogenesis via insertional mutagenesis.

A
  1. gag gene
  2. env gene
  3. pol gene
41
Q

Gag gene, used in FeLV insertional mutagenesis, encodes _______, a core protein, often used as an antigen for diagnostic tests.

A

p27

42
Q

In FeLV insertional mutagenesis, Env gene uses ______ and ______ to modulate the host’s immune response.

A

gp70 + p15E

43
Q

In FeLV insertional mutagenesis, the pol gene is used to encode:

A

reverse transcriptase

44
Q

What indirect mechanism does FeLV use to cause cancer?

A

immunosuppression

45
Q

List 3 methods of FeLV testing.

A
  1. blood (ELISA & RIM)
  2. IFA (immunofluorescent antibody)
  3. PCR
46
Q

FeLV blood tests such as ELISA & RIM and IFA detect _______ to diagnose disease.

A

p27

47
Q

Regarding FeLV testing, PCR detects ________ DNA and RT-PCR detects FeLV _______.

A

provirus
RNA (virions)

48
Q

What are the 4 major disease syndromes that occur from FeLV infection?

A
  1. neoplasia
  2. immunosuppression
  3. non-neoplastic disorders
  4. reproduction failure
49
Q

List 3 types of neoplasia that develop due to FeLV in cats.

A

Lymphosarcoma
Leukemias
Fibrosarcomas (FeSV)

50
Q

Immunosuppression due to FeLV can cause a Type ______ Hypersensitivity, or immune complex disease.

A

III

51
Q

Non-neoplastic signs that can occur from FeLV infection are:

A

pancytopenia, anemia

52
Q

Bovine Leukemia Virus causes what disease?

A

Enzootic Bovine Leukosis

53
Q

Bovine Leukemia Virus uses insertional mutagenesis by inserting a provirus into which cells?

A

B cells

54
Q

In addition to insertional mutagenesis, Bovine Leukemia Virus encodes _______ _______ as an oncogenic mechanism.

A

Tax protein

55
Q

BLV encodes Tax protein which promotes ________ mitosis, inhibits ______, and decreases ________.

A

B cell
P53 (DNA repair gene)
IFN

56
Q

Bovine Leukemia Virus establishes latency in:

A

B cells (IgM positive)

57
Q

(T/F) Disease due to BLV is only seen in young cattle.

A

False - old (LONG latency)

58
Q

Bovine Leukemia Virus is a _______ retrovirus and highly _______-associated.

A

delta
cell

59
Q

Cattle have resistance to BLV by Class II MHC genes, ______, and an antibody response with specific virus-induced surface antigens, ______ and ______.

A

BoLA (bovine leukocyte antigen)
gp51 + p24

60
Q

List 3 routes of BLV transmission.

A
  1. AI / repro exam
  2. blood transfer (needles, dehorn, flies)
  3. vertical transmission (milk, placental)
61
Q

Which mode of BLV transmission is common?

A

vertical transmission

62
Q

There are 4 possible outcomes from Bovine Leukemia infection. One outcome is NO infection. The other 3 outcomes are PERMANENT infections with a variety of sequelae. List the 3 possible sequelae in combination with permanent infection.

A

Permanent infection with:
1. NO disease
2. lymphocytosis
3. lymphosarcoma

63
Q

3 stages of Bovine Leukemia Virus disease:

A
  1. asymptomatic stage
  2. persistent lymphocytosis
  3. lymphosarcoma
64
Q

The lymphosarcoma stage of BLV disease requires ___________ _________ by the host cell.

A

malignant transformation

65
Q

Enlarged lymph nodes and enteric, cardiac, or vertebral signs indicate which stage of BLV disease?

A

lymphosarcoma

66
Q

_______ test is the official regulatory test for Bovine Leukemia Virus which is a (serology/PCR) test.

A

AGID
serology

67
Q

AGID test is a serology test to diagnose BLV which stands for:

A

agar gel immunodiffusion assay

68
Q

Marek’s Disease is caused by:

A

Gallid Herpesvirus-2

69
Q

Gallid Herpesvirus-2 is a(n) _______ herpesvirus.

A

alpha

70
Q

There are 3 serotypes of Gallid Herpesvirus-2 (Type 1, 2, 3) which cause Marek’s Disease. Which are oncogenic or non-oncogenic?

A

Type 1: oncogenic
Type 2: non-oncogenic
Type 3: non-oncogenic

71
Q

Type 1 Gallid Herpesvirus-2 is oncogenic in what species?

A

chickens

72
Q

Gallid Herpesvirus-2 (Marek’s Disease) causes latency in:

A

T cells

73
Q

Gallid Herpesvirus-2 uses 3 oncogenic mechanisms. In addition to insertional mutagenesis, it encodes ______ protein and _________ complex.

A

Meq protein
telomerase

74
Q

Meq protein blocks ________ and increases cell survival and motility.

A

apoptosis

75
Q

Where is the virus shed in Marek’s Disease?

A

dander (feather follicles)

76
Q

(T/F) Chickens infected with Gallid Herpesvirus-2 are lifelong carriers.

A

True

77
Q

Chickens can have genetic resistance to Gallid Herpesvirus-2 by _________ on RBCs.

A

B21 alloantigen

78
Q

Gallid Herpesvirus-2 infects chickens via inhalation and infects which cell type initially?

A

alveolar macrophages

79
Q

After infecting alveolar macrophages, Gallid Herpesvirus-2 go to the spleen, thymus, and bursa and infect ______ cells.

A

B cells

80
Q

After B cells are infected, a provirus is integrated and a latent infection occurs in ______ cells.

A

CD4+ T cells

81
Q

Match the clinical syndrome caused by Marek’s Disease to its signs:

  1. paralysis of one or both legs/wings
  2. depression, ataxia, paralysis
  3. lymphocytes in irish
  4. feather follicle nodules
A
  1. neurolymphomatosis
  2. acute marek’s disease
  3. ocular lymphomatosis
  4. cutaneous marek’s disease
82
Q

What is the major clinical sign of Marek’s Disease?

A

paralysis w/ leg extension

83
Q

(T/F) Serology is commonly used to diagnose Marek’s Disease.

A

False (not helpful)

84
Q

Avian Leukosis and Sarcoma Viruses are ______ retroviruses.

A

alpha

85
Q

Two major groups of Avian Leukosis & Sarcoma viruses:

A

Endogenous
Exogenous

86
Q

3 Oncogenic Mechanisms used by Avian Leukosis & Sarcoma Viruses.

A
  1. insertional mutagenesis
  2. lymphoid leukosis
  3. osteopetrosis
87
Q

Term for below disorder caused by Avian Leukosis & Sarcoma Viruses:

Abnormal bone causing defective osteoclast resorption and enlargement/calcification of long bones, obliterating the marrow cavity

A

Osteopetrosis

88
Q

Lymphoid leukosis due to Avian Leukosis & Sarcoma Viruses affects (male/female) chickens, causing nodular tumors in spleen, liver, and bursa.

A

female

89
Q

Osteopetrosis affects (male/female) chickens.

A

male

90
Q

Avian Leukosis & Sarcoma Viruses can be transmitted horizontally via direct contact and vertically via _________ which is a major source of infection.

A

egg albumin

91
Q

Anemia, unthrifty, diarrhea, and distended abdomen are all signs of which oncogenic virus?

A

Avian Leukosis & Sarcoma viruses

92
Q

Which virus is an avian retrovirus that causes fibrosarcomas and histiocytomas in young chicks, causing lethal infections?

A

Rous Sarcoma Virus

Virology (13 decks)

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