Cardio/Hemo Flashcards

(164 cards)

1
Q

What artery feeds the Papillary Muscles?

What feeds the Interverntricular Septum? Blockage can lead to?

A

RCA

LAD: heart block (2 mobitz or type 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Type of Collagen Present in MI Scar? Risk of? Leading to?

A

Type 1, Aneurisym=Mural Thrombus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What occurs within 1 day of MI? Greatest risk of?

If Reperfused?

A

Coagulative necrosis (loss of cell nuclei). Arrthymias.

Contraction band necrosis (from return of Ca); and Reperfusion injury (from increased O2 generating free radicals; raising cardic enzymes Troponin I and CKMB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What occurs within 1 wk of MI? Greatest risk of?

A

Yellow pallor:

Days 1-3 Neutrophils infiltration. Greatest risk for fibrinous pericariditis (if transmural infarct)******

Days 4-7 Macrophages come in and debride area. Greatest risk for rupture. A) Wall=Cardiac Tamponade. B) Septum=Shunting of blood C) Papillary Muscle=Mitral Insufificieny (Paps fed by RCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What occurs within 1 month of MI? Greatest risk of?

A

Granulation tissue to Scar formation (Type 1 collagen). Increased risk of aneurisym leading to mural thrombous formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Truncus Arteriosus, Tetralogy of Fallot

A

22q11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ASD > VSD, AV Septal Defect (endocardial cushion defect)

A

Down Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Biscupid Aorta Valve, Coarcation of the aorta (preductal)

A

Turners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MVP, thoracic aortic aneurysm and dissection, aortic regurg

A

Marfan’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Tranposition of the Great Vessels

A

Maternal Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

22q11

A

Truncus Arteriosus, Tetralogy of Fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Down Syndrome

A

ASD > VSD, AV Septal Defect (endocardial cushion defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Turners

A

Biscupid Aorta Valve, Coarcation of the aorta (preductal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Marfan’s

A

MVP, thoracic aortic aneurysm and dissection, aortic regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Maternal Diabetes

A

Tranposition of the Great Vessels, Fetal Macrosomia, Caudal regression syndrome, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Congenital Rubella

A

PDA, septal defects, pulm A stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PDA, septal defects, pulm A stenosis

A

Congenital Rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tuberous Sclerosis

A

Cardiac Rhabdomyomas, Renal Cysts, mental retardation, angiofibromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia? Name and describe two conditions in which this occurs?

A

Small thrombi form in microvessles causing schistocytes. The thrombi formation causes thromboycytopenia.

HUS: Ecoli O157H7 endothelial toxin (shigalike toxin/ecoli verotoxin) exposing subenothelial collagen particularly occuring in renals.

TTP: def of ADAMSTS13–cannot cleave vWF multimer, thus getting microthrombi.

vWF is made in the weibel palade bodies of endothelial cells (WP bodes: W for vWf and P for P-selectins used in leukocyte extravasation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Targets of Antiarrhythmics drugs?

A

Class I and III target ventricles

Class II and IV target AV node

1=Na, 2=Beta blockers, 3=K blockers, 4=Calcium blockers

“No Bad Boy Keeps Clean”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Symptoms of TTP/HUS

TTP vs HUS?

Labs of both?

A

“CRAFT”

Cns, Renals, Anemia, Fever, Thrombocytopenia

TTP(MOSTLY CNS)

HUS=mostly renals (uremia!)

Labs: Prolonged bleed time (thrombocytopenia), NORMAL pt/ptt time (adhesion of platelts but not activation thus no PT/PTT changes), hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the granules of Endothelial Cells called and what do they contain?

A

Weibel Palati (sp?) bodies:

W for vWF

P for P selectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the presentations of platelet disorders vs clotting factor disorders?

A

Platelet: Superficial bleeding (particularly Nosebleeds). Elevated clotting time.

Clotting Factors: Deep bleeds in tissues, joints, organs. Or Rebleeding after surgery. Normal Clotting time, slow PT and/or PTT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CD Markers for:

1) HSCs

A

1) CD 34+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
TTP vs HUS. Causes, Mechanisms, Labs and Sxs.
TTP: a) x ADAMSTS13 either congentially or usually autoimmune. b) Causing inabilty to cleave vWF penatmers, leading to microthrombic hemolytic anemia. c) Labs: Prolonged bleeding time with normal PT/PTT (just consuming platelets not factors (no activation of platelets. D) "CRAFT": CNS, Renal, Anemia (schistocytes), Thrombocytopenia. HUS: Ecoli 0157H7 (EAEC). Usually from eating undercooked meat. Hemolytic anemia from Shiga-like toxin damaging endothelial cells (particularly in renals) causing exposure of subendothelial collagen leading to microthrombi. MORE RENAL INVOLVMENT. Don't give antibiotics because you kill the normal gut flora first alleviating EAEC's gut competition.
26
ITP Mechanism, presentation, labs
Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura. Antibodies (IgG) to platelets. Longer bleed time with normal PT/PTT. Usually present in a middle aged female.
27
Bernard Soulier
Def in Gp1b. Stopping Platelet adhesion and thrombocytopenia. "BS" big suckers from immature platelets. "Soiler ~ soil platelets cannot adhere to soil"
28
Glanzmann Thrombocytopenia
Broken Gp2b/3a (abciximab does the same thing). Impairment of platelet aggreation. Throbmo (platelet) sthenia (weak) = weak clot.
29
Hemophilia A: Presentation, mechanism Hemo B (Christmas's disease) Coagulation factor inhibitor mixing study?
F8 def ("AAEIGHT"). Common sporadic mutation, Deep tissue joints and surgical rebleeds. X-linked (boys!). Normal bleed time, normal PT and prolonged PTT F9 def, rarer. Autoimmune targeting of F8 or 9. Presents similiarly as Hemo A/B. Mixing study will NOT show clotting.
30
vWF deficiency
Mucuosal and Skin bleeding (from poor platelet adhesion) Most common INHERITIED def. vWF stabilizes F8 (def of that too) Labs: delayed clotting time, with prolonged PTT (but don't see deep bleeds phenotype, just on labs)
31
Liver Failure causes what factor defs? Monitor liver failure with?
Deficiencies in 2, 7, 9, 10, C, S. Monitor via the PT\*\*\* (cuz that whole pathway is produced by the liver, and makes sense since this is also what you use to monitor Heparin (which inhibits epoxside targeting of liver produced factors)).
32
HIT
Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia. IgG against Hep-Platelet F4 complex Spleen removes IgG bound platelets. Tx: Stop heparin and give a direct thrombin inhibitor.
33
DIC
Consumption of platelets and factors (prolonged bleed, PT, PTT). Causes: Amniotic fluid (high in tissue factor), sepsis (LPS--\>IL-1+TNFa), Mucin (from adenocarcinoma), PML (MPO in Auer Rods), Rattle Snakes. Microthrombitic Hemolytic Anemia. Elevated D-Dimers (F13 crosslinks, very sensitive, not speicific)
34
Aminocaproic Acid?
Inhibits activiation of Plasminogen (thus a "procoagulant")
35
Plasmin Overactivity Or def of Alpha 2 antiplasmin resembles\_\_\_? But you differentiate it with\_\_\_.
Resembles DIC too much chewing up of clot AND prevention of clot formation (plasmin cleaves fibrin, fibrinogen, and inhibits platelet aggregation) Thus resembles DIC however on labs you will see NO D-DIMERS cuz clots never have a chance to form.
36
Protein C or S def? What does it put you at risk for?
Normally degrade the other two with cofactors (8 w/ 9 and 10 w/ 5), so a def is a procoagulable state. This puts you at risk for Warfarin induced skin necrosis\*\*\*\*\*
37
Factor 5 Leiden
Mutation rendering F5 uncleavable by Protein CS Most common hypercoagulable state.
38
Prothrombin 20120A, type of mutation?
Increased gene expression of prothrombin thus hypercoag
39
AT3 Deficiency
AT3 is what cleaves thrombin and it is what Heparin binds to. These patients will not respond to heparin (won't see the increase in PTT, until VERY high doses).
40
What do OCPs do to the cascade?
Estrogen induces the increased production of coagulation factors thus promoting a procoagulable state.
41
Labs for Anemia of Chronic DIsease vs Iron Def anemia (also what's the supposed mechanism of ACD?)
Il-6 causes release of acute phase reactants including Hepciden, which inhibits EPO and causes ferroportin internalization from basal membrane of enterocytes (and macros) thus preventing release of iron into blood. Iron Def: Microcytic, decreased iron, ferritin, and % saturation with INCREASED TIBC, ACD: Microcytic, HIGH FERRITIN, LOW TIBC, low iron (taken up by marrow just not replenished).
42
1. Location of Hb synth during devo 2. HbH 3. HbBarts 4. # of genes in alpha thal 5. what's seen in severe alpha thal 6. # of genes in beta thal 7. whats seen in severe beta thal 8. Risk for in beta thal\*\*\*\*\*
1. Young Liver Synthesizes Blood (Yolk, Liver, Spleen, Bone) 2. beta tetramer 3. gamma tetramer (associated with hydrops fetalis) 4. 4 genes on Chromo 16 5. Hydrops fetalis; trans mutation in asians (might be why there's a higher rate of spontaneous abortion 6. 2 genes on Chromo 11 7. Codocytes (alpha aggregates) can cause extravascular hemolysis, massive erthroid hyperplasia (spleenomegaly and skull/chipmunk facies); 8. risk for aplastic anemia with Parvo B19 (non-enveloped SS linear DNA = "Parvo NESSLD in HSC")
43
Clinical Features of Extravascular Hemolysis vs Intravascular Hemolysis
Extra: ANEMIA WITH SPLENOMEGALY, Jaundice dt unconj bili, increased risk for cholelithiasis Intra: Decrease Haptoglobin Levels. Hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuira, hemosiderinuria (epithelial cells of Renal Tubules absorb iron and slough off several days later).
44
Hereditary Spherocytosis
Def in Ankrin, Spectrin or Band 3.1. Membrane bleds off as it passes thru reticulin gates of splenic reticuloendothelial system. Increased RDW, increased MCHC (mean corpuscular Hb concntation=loosing membrane without losing Hb), Howell Jolly Bodies. SPlenomegaly, jaundice, gallstones, increased risk for aplastic crisis from Parvovirus B19 ("NESSLD in HSCs"). WORK HYPERTROPHY OF SPLEEN. Dx with Osmotic Fragility test.
45
HbC
Auto Recessive, Glut--\>Lysine "C, crystals, lySIne"
46
Sickle
Increased Risk for Aplastic anemia (dt B19, NESSLD in HSCs), Osteomyleitis from Salmonella, Extravascular (w/ some intravascular)
47
PNH
Loss of DAF (CD55) and MIRL (membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis) thus cannot inhibit C3 convertase. Due to ACQUIRE loss of GPI\*\*\*\*\*\* Fragments of platelets cause thrombosis (cause of death)\*\*\*
48
G6PD def Inheritance pattern?
Heinz Bodies (precipated Hb from oxidative stress), Heinz bodies removed resulting in BITE cells. Intravascualr hemolysis 2) X-linked recessive---cuz the cells get x'ed (killed)
49
Immune Hemolytic Anemia
Warm vs Cold agglutinins associated with SLE or other autoimmunes. Warm (SLE, Methyldopa, Hydralazine, Penicillin as hapten) Cold (IgM, previous Mycoplasma pneumonaie and infectious mononucleosis)
50
Anticoagulants
pg 376 on first aid
51
Aspirin
Prophylactic Anticoagulant via cox inhibition Cox1 necessary for arachoidonic acid to Thromboxane (TxA2) conversion which causes platelet degranuation activating other platelets
52
Celecoxib
Antiinflamm Cox 2 inhibitor
53
Clopidogrel
Plavix, Antiplatelet, interferes with ADP receptor on platelets preventing their activation (and expression of GPiib/iiia)
54
Eptifibatide
Antiplatelet drug made from pit viper venom Potent GP2b/3a inhibitor (thus stopping fibrinogen from binding) Used in procedures
55
Tirofiban
Similar to Eptifabatide
56
Warfarin
Anticoagulant--Vit K Epoxide Reductase inhibitor Inhibits the production of the coagulants 2, 7, 9, 10 and the anticoagulants Protein C and S. All factors need GLA residue and are synthesized in the liver (remember if it needs GLA = made in liver) Tests extrinsic pathway: "Go to WAR with your Exs" C and S have shorter half lives; F2 (thrombin) has the longest half life (4 days)---therefore for the first 4 days pnt is actually in a prothrombotic state
57
abciximab
ReoPro, Prevents platelet acivation (thus anti-aggregation), anti-integrin monoclonal antibody binding Gp IIb/IIIa Think "ab in name inhibiting IIb/IIIa"
58
Tissue Plasminogen Activator (tPA) Alteplase
Antithrombolytic, Converts Plasminogen to Plasmin which then goes and degrades fibrin clots Used for acute stroke therapy
59
Aminocaproic Acid
t-PA Antidote thus ProCoagulator In the fibrolinolytic inhibitors class
60
Bivalirudin
Direct Thrombin Inhibitor Short half life, used for PCIs (percutaneous coronary interventions) in patients with HIT (heparin induced thrombocytopenia)
61
Argotroban
Direct Thrombin Inhibitor Derivative of arginine, used to anticoagulation in patients with HIT
62
Protamine Sulfate
Heparin Antidote From Fish sperm
63
Heparin
Anticoagulant Allosterically Catalyzes (activating) Antithrombin 3--\>which then can bind to and act as a suicide inhibitor for Thrombin (2a) and Factor 10a; Risk for HIT (Heparin Induced thrombocytopenia)--autoantibodies to F4 Heparin complex=paradoxically causing increased clots with low platelet counts (also see hyperkalemia dt aldosterone inhib, and Elevated aminotransferase lvls) HEP (3 letters) tests PTT (3 letters)--intrinsic pathway (2 ts in relationship)--thus 11, 9, 10, 2 Unfractionated (HMW)=more specific for thrombin Enoxaparin (Lovenox)--Low Molecular Weight Heparin more specific for 10a; this means less inhibition of platelet aggreation cuz F10a doesn't interact with platelets;longer half live then HWM Fondaparinux (Arixtra)--Pentasaccaride Heparin (smallest) and longest half life, NO Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)
64
Dabigatran
Thrombin inhibitor Oral, not reversible but dialyzable, 2x/day
65
Rivaroxaban
Anticoagulant: F10a inhibitor Oral, Not reversible but dialyzable, 1x or 2x/day
66
Digitalis
Slows conduction at AV node, and STIMS Vagal nerve=decreased HR\*\*\* SES: CHANGES IN COLOR VISION, VTACH\*\*\*, anorexia, nausea, vomitting, diarrhea HYPERKALEMIA\*\*\*\*\* Cardiac Glycoside--1) Improves contractility of failing heart, 2) Prolongs Refractory Period at AV node (good for SVTs) Mechanisms 1) Inhibition of NA/K atpase which stops the cell from clearing Ca allowing for longer contractoin. 2) Slows conduction velocity and increases refractoriness: Increases PSNS, and decreasing SNS
67
Isoproterenol
Sympathomimetic: Heart stimulation in bradycardia or heart block
68
Dobutamine
Sympathetomimetic---Acute Heart Failure Increases Inotopy (slighty chrono) "dope up someone with heart failure"
69
Pheynylephrine
Vasoconstrictive effects used to treat hypotension, shock (alpha 1 agonist) Nasal decongestion (topical), ophthalmic effect (topical)-mydriasis
70
Anti-hypertensive Targets
Diruetics Direct-acing vasodilators alpha adrenergic blockers centrally active SNS inhibitors b adrenergic blockers clacium antagoinists ACE inhibitors (NOT WITH PREG) -opril ARB (angiotensin recptor blcokers) (NOT WITH PREG) -sartans Direct renin inhibitiors (NOT WITH PREG) aliskerin
71
Albuterol
Asthma, COPD for Bronchodilation B2 agonist
72
Clonidine (as opposed with Clozapine)
Antihypertensive (Alpha 2 agonist penetrating BBB), diminishes cravings in narcotic alcohol and nicotine withdrawal, Tx for ADHD Penetrates CNS---inhibits CNS output. Produces Hypotension, bradycardia, sedation (clozapine=atypical antipsychotic known to cause agranulocytosis and seizures)
73
Phenoxybenzamine
Pheochromocytoma Tx "Ph-uck specificity, PH-eochromocytoma" Nonspecific alpha adrenergic blocker
74
Beta-Blockers
"-olol"s best tx for angina\*\*\* Tx: Angina, HTN, SVTs, Vtachs, MIs, Hyperthyroidism, gluacoma, migraine, tremor, Heart failure SEs: MASK THE EFFECTS OF HYPOGLYCEMIA, IMPOTENCE, EXACERBATION OF ASTHMA
75
Phentolamine
Tx for hypertensive crisis Short term Competitive Alpha blcoker "Ph-uck specificity, PH-eochromocytoma
76
Methyldopa
Anti-hypertensive used in pregnancy "m-eth and dope for soon to be mommys"
77
Diltiazem Verapamil Nifedipine
Antihypertensives: Calcium Channel Antagonists D and V - lower HR and inotropy, and nodal conduction; increase peripeheral vasodilation Nefidipine: major peripheral dilator, less heart effects
78
Hydralazine, MIdoxidil Nitroprusside
Direct Vasodilator, used for HTN crisis "Midoxidil DILATES"--rogaine Nitroprusside has a cyanide toxicity; monitor thiocyanate levels
79
Hydralazine, MIdoxidil Nitroprusside
Direct Vasodilator, used for HTN crisis Hyralazine--Drug Induced Lupus, used to Tx HTN in Pregnancy (same as methyldopa) "Midoxidil DILATES"--rogaine Nitroprusside has a cyanide toxicity; monitor thiocyanate levels
80
Colestipol Cholestyramine Colesevelam
Bile acid sequestrants Less bile acid absorbed (thus less fat absorbed) and more cholesterol used to replace bile Interferes with vitamin absorption
81
Statins
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitiors TERATOGENIC, myopathy, rhabomyalisis (esp with fibrates/niacin) drug interactions "Preg women STAy away from STATINS"
82
Ezetimibe
Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitor Inhibts NPCL1 at brush border (transport protein in hepatocytes; neimann pick like C1) Ez Diarrhea
83
Cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevlam
Bile acid binding resins (people hate the taste) Cholestyramine binds C. Diff Toxin
84
Fibrates
PPAR alpha agonist Increases LPL thus TG clearance, and induces HDL synth Myositis (particularly with statins). Hepatotox (up LFTs),
85
Niacin (nicotinic acid, Vit B3)
Blocks production of VLDLs; "Niacin is a V-itamin blocking V-ldls" HYPERGLYCEMIA AND HYPERURICEMIA (GOUT
86
Nifedipine
Calcium channel blocker: Vasodilator-can be used in High Altitude Pulm/Cereberal Edema (HAPE, HACE) to vasodilate and lower BP Dihydropyridine (DHP) Ca entry blocker Systemic vasodilation (arteries\>veins; thus decreased afterload; nitrates do veins more), also vasodilates coronary arteries leading to better perfusion/O2
87
Antiarrhthymic Drugs
Class 1: Na channel blockers -1a: Prolongs action potential duration (procainamide) -1b: shortens action potential duration (lidocaine)--used to break arrhythmias -1c: Slows depolarization phase of AP without significantly affecting overall length Class 2: Beta blockers: decreasing SNS--\>SVTs via decreased AV node conduction Class 3: Potassium blockers: Prolongs action potential duration (amiodarone, sotalol, ibutilide) Class 4: Cardiac calcium blockers (verapamil and diltiazem) Adenosine, magnesium, digitalis, digibind antibodies
88
Verapamil
Class 4 Antiarrhtymic and Vasodilator moderate vasodilation, modest decrease in CO and HR contraindicated in CHF (more suppressive Heart effects than Diltiazem)--"VeRAPamil get a bad rap in the heart"
89
Quinidine? SEs?
Type 1a antiarrthymic Cinchonism: flushing, tinintus, headache, vision, vertigo, dizziness, nausea, vomitting, diarrhea
90
Diltiazem
Class 4 Antiarrhtymic and Vasodilator Diltiazem--"Dilates and ZEN's the heart" moderate vasodilation, modest decrease in CO and HR less suppressive Heart effects than verapamil
91
Procainamide
Class 1a: slows up stroke of AP USED FOR WPW\*\*\*\*\*\*\* SEs: LUPUS ERTHEMATOSUS SYNDROME
92
Lidocaine
Class 1b antiarrhtymic: shortens AP by binding activated and inactivated Na channels Preferentially selects damaged cells (state dependent block---as they are omre likely to be depolarized); used to break ventricular arrthymias (tachys) and status epilepticus Amiodarone is being used more often now
93
Flecainide
Class IC antiarrthimic--SVTs (affects the His/Purkinje system preferentially) Blocks sodium channel (potent) CAN cause HF in patients with heart abnormalities, and increased mortiality in patients with MIs
94
Propanolol Esmolol
Beta blocker AV node is particularly sensitive, decreases the Phase 4 slope; also slows the slow pacemaker current thus slowing the pacemaker rate Esmolol: B1 selective blocker; SHORT half life (good for post surgery prevention of SVT), used to controll Ventricles in Afib/flutter --Also drug of choise for Aortic Dissection Contraindicated in WPW (but ok for other AVRTs)
95
Sotalol
Class III antiarrhythmics, Used for Ventricular arrhythmias and maintenance of sinus rhythm in patients with A Fib K+ blocker and Beta blocker; Reverse use dependent (affects less active cells more--higher risk of torsades) Prolong QT (repolarization)--increases risk of Early afterdepolarizations (which can cause torsades de pointes)
96
Amiodarone
Class III antiarrhythmics: Used for SVTs and VTs (Afib, fluttter, vtach, vflutter, SVTs w/ and w/o bypass tracts) Blocks Na, Ca, K and B adernergic receptors Not reverse use dependent--thus it blocks better at faster rates thus it: Rarely causes new arrhythmias but can **Prolong QT** (repolarization)--increases risk of Early afterdepolarizations (which can cause torsades de pointes) **PULM FIBROSIS RISK and GRAY MAN SYNDROME **New analogs: Dronedarone, vernakalant, ranolazine
97
Ibutilide and Dofetilide
Class III antiarrhythmics: Use for acute conversion of A fluttter and Afib Reverse use dependent (affects less active cells more--higher risk of torsades) Prolong QT (repolarization)--increases risk of Early afterdepolarizations (which can cause torsades de pointes)
98
Adenosine
Used for conversion of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia to sinus (SHORT HALF LIFE ~10secs) Activates K inward rectifier K current, inhibits Ca and If=Hyperpolarization and fewer APs
99
Magnesium
Antiarrhytmic effect (unknown mechanism) and tx for digitalis toxicity
100
Digoxin immune Fab
Used as adjunct for digitalis toxicity with magnesium Digoxin: inhbits Na/K atpase which then inhibits the Ca/Na exchanger (drug is used to increase inotrophy and control contractions)
101
Nitros
VENOdilators decreasing preload on the heart and thus myocardial o2 demand Increase GC activity which increase cGMP SEs: HEADACHES (from vasodilation)
102
Sildenafil
Phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitor decreasing PDE5s break down of cGMP. VENOdilators used for erectile dysfunction. "-fils the Weiner. "
103
Aliskerin
Direct Renin inhibitor (similar effects to ARBs/ACEIs) Not for Pregnancy. "aliskerin scarrin' renin away"
104
Dopamine
Used for acute CHF to increase inotropy; DA also increases vascular tone which is useful in HOTN
105
Dobutamine
Increasing HR during acute CHF withOUT increasing vascular resisitance B1-2 and Alpha agonist Used for increasing
106
Prazosin
Anti-Hypertensive, also used for BPH, and Urinary flow Selective Alpha-1 antagonist: -azosins Its a "sin" to uses azosins
107
Carvedolol
Beta blocker used in Chronic HF, used to prevent arrhtymias, prevent negative remodeling, and to prevent SNS hyperactivation. Other beta blockers stop the downregulation of B1 receptors in HF but carvedolol does not (thus it improves SNS resistance of the Heart)
108
What lipid drug combination is most likley to result in hepatotoxicity?
Statins (Simvastatin) and Fibrates (Gemfibrozil). Fibrates increase the concentration of statins.
109
Bosentan
Tx for Pulm Arterial HTN (udt BMP2R which inhibits smooth muscle proliferation). Mech: antagonizes endothelin-1 receptors which decreases pulm vascular resistance.
110
Digitalis Toxicity?
Fatigue, Changes in perception, color vision changes, nausea, vomitting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, headache, dizziness, confusion and delirium. And HYPERkalemia **_RENALY CLEARED_**
111
Aortic Arch Derivatitves?
Logically work your way down 1st: Maxilliary 2nd: stapedial/hyoid 3rd: Common and beginning of internal carotid\*\*\* 4th: Aortic Arch (left), Right: Prox of R subclavian 6th: Ductus Arteriosus and Pulm arteries
112
CO = (2 forms?)
SV x HR O2 consumption rate / Arteriovenous O2 difference (this is known as ficks principle)
113
Handgrip Maneuver does what to Heart sounds?
Increases Afterload: Decrease ASten, and Hypertrophic Cardiomyo Increase Mitral and Aortic Regurg and VSD
114
What does Valsalva do to heart murmurs?
(phase II): decrease preload (and afterload) Increases: Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy, Increases MVP and opening snap occurs EARLIER. Decreases: Aortic stenosis, and most murmurs MVP: decreased filling of LA causes there to be more regurgitant flow (louder) and an earlier opening snap\*\*\*\*\*\* Hypertrophic: Less volume in ventricle allows for more disruption of flow from hypertrophied septum in ventricle
115
Squatting effect on heart murmurs?
Increases Preload Increases Aortic Stenosis Decreases Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, decreases MVP causing a late opening snap MVP: increased filling of LA causes there to be less regurgitant flow and a later opening snap\*\*\*\*\*\* Hypertrophic: More volume in ventricle allows for less disruption of flow from hypertrophied septum in ventricle
116
Drugs that Prolong QT? At risk for developing\_\_\_\_ which can progress to \_\_\_\_\_?
"Some risky Meds can prolong QT" Sotalol, Risperidone, Macrolides (Az prolongs the QT), Chloroquine, Protease inhibitors (navirs/previrs), Quinidine (Class 1a and III's do it), Thiazides (increased Ca/dec K fucks up conduction) Progressing to Torsades leading to Vfib
117
High BP sensing mechanism and circuit?
Carotids bodies---\>CN9 (9 does parotids and carotids) Aortic Body---\>CN10 9+10--\> Nuclues Solitarius (Vasomotor medullary center): Stimulates CN10 (PSNS) onto Heart
118
Low BP sensing circuit?
ONLY Carotids not aortic bodies. Carotids--\>CN9--\> Nuc Solitarious (Medullary Vasomotor): 1) This inhibits PSNS (less CN10 firing) 2) and Excites SNS--\>Alpha 1 receptors--\>inc bp
119
HTN, Bradycardia, and Respitory Depression (irregular breathing)?
Cushing Reaction: Intracranial bleed causes ischemia which causes
120
ACE I SEs: When don't you use ACEIs/ARBs?
CATCCH Cough (bradykinin) Angioedema Teratogenic increase Creatinin hOtn hyperkalemia (Rash) Increased Renin 2) Renal Artery stenosis (risk decreasing perfusion to the point of ischemia)
121
AntiHTN that causes ototoxicity? especially with?
Loop diruetics w/ Aminoglycosides
122
Prinzmetal (variant angina): what is it? Tx? ECG findings? Dx?\*\*\*
Coronary artery vasospasm seen usually in younger ppl (triggers: Tobacco, cocaine, and triptins) Tx: Nitros or Dihydropyrine (vascular: nifedipine) Calcium channel blockers. (DO NOT GIVE BETA BLOCKERS) ST segement ELEVATION (other anginas: stable/unstable are ST depression) DX: ERGONOVINE (stims alpha and 5-ht) used to dx Variant angina
123
Patient has pleuritic chest pain releived by leaning forward? Cause other findings?
Pericarditis. Friction rub, diffusely elevated ST segments with PR depression. With long standing constrictive pericarditis you can get Kussmaul sign (increased JVD upon inspiration)
124
Patient has systolic hypotension, distended neck veins, and distant heart sounds? Their condition? Other findings including EKG?
Beck's Triad of Cardiac Tamponade Pulsus Paradoxus Electrical Alternans (heart moving around in the pericaridal "fluid sack")
125
Young adult with liver problems presents with GI pain, melena, HTN, cutaneous eruptions and renal damage? What is it? What's it associated with?
Polyarteritis Nodosa. Hep B positive
126
Patient presents with delayed rumbling diastolic murmur. What type? Associated with?
Mitral Stenosis associated with opening snap. Early opening snap (closer to S2=worse prognosis; signifying increased LAP)
127
Lipid Lowering Drug? Mech, SEs (especially with?)?
Statins, HMG CoA reductase inhibitors. Monitor LFTs and risk for rhadbomyolysis (especially with Fibrates/Niacin)
128
HDL raising and VLDL lowering drug? SEs?
B3 Niacin Lower VLDL lowers LDL levels Flushed face (tx aspirin), Hyperglycemia (acnathosis nigricans) and Hyperuricemia (exacebates gout)
129
Prevention of intestinal absorption of bile acids? SEs? Unique about drug?
BIle acid binding resins (eg colesevelam/colestipol) Cholesterol Gall stones, Fat sol vit absorptoin issues. INCREASE TGs\*\*\* Can bind C. Diff toxin
130
Cholesterol Absoprtion blocker? Targets? SEs?
Ezetimibe. Neimann Pick like receptor. Diarrhea, rare LFT increases.
131
Best Triglyceride lowering agent? Mechanism (2)? Best to prevent? SEs?
Fibrates/Fibric Acid derivative (eg gemfibrozil) 1) PPARalpha causing inc LPL = increased TG clearance; 2) Inhibit 7alpha hydroxylase which makes bile from cholesterol (inc risk of stones) Acute Pancreatitis (since its activated by inc TAGs) Inc LFTs, Myositis (esp w/ statins), Cholesterol Gallstones (esp w/ bile resins)
132
Class 1 antiarrthymics?
Na blockers "Double Quarter Pounder, Lettuce Tomatoes PIckles, Fries Please" Disopyramide, Quinieidine Procainamide Lidocaine Flecaindie Propafenone
133
Hyperkalemia Tx?
Calcium gluconate to stabilize membrane Insulin with glucose to get cells to uptake K (turns on Na/K atpase) B2 agonist Sodium bicarb (if acidotic)
134
Heparin: binds to? LMW vs High Molecular W?
Antithrombin 3 HMW (unfractionated) inhibits BOTH thrombin and F10 LMW inhibts ONLY F10
135
Given in HTN emergency? Sublingually? (effects?) IV? (effects?)
Nitroprusside: VENOdilates decreasing BP/preload Fenoldopam: (DA derived benzo) arteriolar dialation, naturiuresis (INCREASES RENAL PERFUSION thus its even safe in renal comp pnts beyotch!)
136
PDE3 inhibitors?
Cilostazol, Dipyradimole Increase cAMP in platelets preventing aggregation. Increase cAMP in endothelium causing vasodilation.
137
Ticlodipine? SEs?
Antiplatelet Drugs: Block ADP Receptor preventing expression of GpIIb/IIIa (like clopidigrel) SEs: NEUTROPENIA (clopidgrel does NOT have this SEs)
138
Apolipoproteins: E: A-1 C-II B-48 B-100
E: on E-verything but LDL (E-xtra remnant uptake) A-1: "A-1 steak sauce on a CAT": activates LCAT thus on chylo's and HDL C-II: LPL cofactor (Chylo's VLDL, HDL) B-48: Chylomicrons B-100: binds LDL Receptor
139
Cause of Sudden Cardiac death?
SCD is death within an hour of event. Usually due to thromboembolism causing a fatal arrthmia--which is most often V Fib
140
Drug given during acute MI in COPD pnt? Which type and why?
Beta blocker, needs to be specific for B1. Don't want a non-specific beta blocker because it will block B2 causing bronchoconstriction\*\*\* Give metoprolol
141
Fibrates do what to cholesterol/bile?
Fibrates inhibit 7 alpha reductase which is used to take cholesterol to bile. Thus inhibition causes both and decrease in bile and increase in cholesterol causing increased chance for cholesterol gallstones
142
Major Proliferative stimuli for growth of atherosclerotic plaque comes from where?
Platelets. Endothelial dysfunction causes platelet aggreation and activation releasing cytokines
143
Patient presents with fatigue, conjunctival pallor, and difficulty swallowing and spoon nails. Deficient in?
Iron Deficiency. Plumer Vinson.
144
Antiarrthymic that shows QRS prolongation without prolonging the QT interval
Na channel blockers (1C)
145
Reticulocytes appear blue under Wright-Giemsa stain from?
Ribosomal RNA
146
Labs for Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Isolated Low Platelets, with possibly elevated monocyte %
147
Drug that can cause 2nd or 3rd degree heart block?
Verapamil (remember its gets a "bad rep"
148
When do you see the following cells? Acanthocyte Basophophilic Stippling Bite Cell Macro-ovalocyte Ringed Sideroblast Schistocyte Spherocyte Dacrocyte Codocyte Heinz Bodies Howell-Jolly Bodies Holy cow!
Acanthocyte: Cholesterol disregulation (abetalipoproteinemia) Basophophilic Stippling: ACD, ETOH, Lead, Thal's ("LATA basophillic stippling") Bite Cell: G6PD (sulfas, flouroquinolones, Antimalarials); won't see in asplenia Macro-ovalocyte: Folate, B12, Orotic Aciduria (no pyrimidines) Ringed Sideroblast: Inc Iron dep in mitos: X-linked sideroblastic anemia, Lead, myelodysplaisa, AML, Vit B6 def (INH) Schistocyte: DIC, TTP, HUS, Traumatic hemolysis (soldiers marching, mechanical heart valves) Spherocyte: Hereditary spherocytosis: extravascular hemolysis as splenic macros remove membrane Dacrocyte: "Tear cell": Sick crying bone marrow--aplastic anemia and myelofibrosis Codocyte: Target cell: HALT said the hunter: Hbc, Asplenia, Liver disease, Thal's Heinz Bodies: G6PD--denatured hemoglobin from excess oxidation Howell-Jolly Bodies: ONLY IN ASPLENIC PATIENTS (or functional asplenia)--nuclear remanants not removed by splenic macros
149
Difference between nonhemolytic and hemolytic normocytic anemia?
Nonhemolytic will NOT have an elevated reticulocyte count (marrow issues) Hemolytic will have elevated reticulocyte count (marrow compensating for destruction, can possibly have slighlty larger cells, cuz they are immature)
150
What type of Hb in Alpha thal? When/how does it present? WHat type of Hb and cells in beta thal (major)? When/how does it present?
1) HbBarts (all gamma), HbH (all beta); In utero as hydrops fetalis (if severe enough) 2) HbA2 (alpha 2, delta 2); Marrow expansions (crew cut skull appearance, chipmunk facies, extramdullary hematoposesis=hepatsplenomeagly). Suseptible to Parvo b19.
151
X linked Sideroblastic anemia defect? Other causes of nonheritdatyr sideroblastic anemia? What is the sideroblastic portion and what is the basophilic stippling seen?
ALAS Lead, ETOH\*\*\*, b6 def (INH) Lead poisoning: Sideroblast portions of cell are mitochondria with iron in them (since ferrochelatase is inhibited and in mito), and basophillic stippling portion is from lead inhibiting ribonuclease thus ribosomes build up in cell.
152
Aplastic Anemia Myleofibrosis Myelodysplastic syndrome Myelophthisic anemia
Aplastic: Failure/destruction of myeloid SCs, usually dt offending agent/virus. PANCYTOPENIA with FATTY INFLITRATION (Dry bone tap). NO HSM Myelofibrosis: HSM\*\*\* dt chronicity (think of Aplastic progressing to this). Atypical megakaryocyte activation results in fibroblast activation=fibrosis Myelodysplastic=ineffective hemaotpoesis (DYSplastic NOT aplastic). Pancytopenia/or decrease in 1 cell type. Marrow shows disordered differentation Myelophthisic Anemia; Space occupying lesion of bone marrow (mets associated with fibrosis)
153
Bleeding time, pT, pTT of thrombolytics? Why? Suffix of thrombolytics?
Elevated pT/pTT with normal Bleeding time. This is because they destory preformed fibrin/thrombin clots, deactivate activated coag cascade and prevent further activation of coag cascade "-plase" alteplase/reteplase/tenecteplase
154
Aspirins effect on bleeding time, pt, ptt? Why?
Increases bleeding time, NO CHANGE in PT, PTT (affects platelet activation/aggregation by decreasing TXA2, and PGs but doesn't touch clotting factors)
155
Aspirin's effect on resp/met alk/acidosis?
Initial rapid respiratory alkalosis followed by "overwhelming" metabolic acidosis
156
Cilostazol/Dipyridamole MOA? Used for? SEs?
PDE 3 Inhibitors causing 1) increased platelet cAMP = decreased platelet aggregation 2) Vasodilation Good for intermittent claudication (and other vascular issues eg angina, stroke/TIA prevention etc) SEs: Nausea, Headache, Facial Flushing, HOTN
157
Fat in Marrow vs Fibrosis?
Aplastic Anemia (Fat) Fibrosis=myelofibrosis
158
Beta thal is a what type of mutation?
Premature Stop codon, causing a dysfunctional truncated protein
159
Lipofuscin is what? Result of what?
Wear and tear protein. Result of lipid peroxidation.
160
Tx for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? Why? What should you not use?
Beta Blockers---decreases preload which allows for "widening" of LV allowing for decreased flow obstruction. Avoid drugs that decrease preload (eg diruretics) and increase contractility (digitalis)
161
Echinocytes in?
Prickly cells seen in Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency PK def makes PricKly cells\*\*\*
162
Signal thought to initiate Atheroslcerosis?
PDGF recruiting Smooth muscle cells from tunic intima
163
Kernicterus in newborn has what effect on brain?
Increased unconj bilirubin unbound\*\*\* deposits in basal ganglia (cuz the blood brain barrier hasn't fully formed there yet)
164
Perfusion to inferior surface of heart?
PDA from RCA