Ch. 14: Esthetics in the Medical Field Flashcards

(88 cards)

1
Q

Performed for esthetic and reconstructive purposes

A

Plastic surgery

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2
Q

Can improve visible signs of aging by removing excess fat, tightening underlying muscles and re-draping the skin of the face and neck

A

Rhytidectomy

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3
Q

The use of chemical solutions to exfoliate the surface of the skin, promote cell turnover and induce desquamation

A

Chemical peel

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4
Q

Process in which fat is removed with a syringe from a “donor site” and injected into the area to be treated

A

Fat injections

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5
Q

Removes the affected portion of the epidermis, which regenerates collagen

A

Ablative laser

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6
Q

Surgery to reshape nose

A

Rhinoplasty

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7
Q

Clinical term for bruising of the skin

A

Ecchymosis

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8
Q

An extremely contagious bacterial infection that affects the membrane that lines the eyelids

A

Conjunctivitis

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9
Q

Surgical procedure that improves uneven skin textures due to acne, facial scars, and fine wrinkles

A

Dermabrasion

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10
Q

Develops when microbes invade an injured, open or wounded part of the body

A

Bacterial infection

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11
Q

Characterized by a break in the continuity of the skin that is caused by trauma to the tissue

A

Wound

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12
Q

The least severe type of burns that only damages the epidermis

A

First-degree burn

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13
Q

Clinical term for redness of skin

A

Erythema

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14
Q

Eyelid surgery to remove excess fat, skin or muscle from the upper and lower

A

Blepharoplasty

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15
Q

A ______ is the use of chemical solutions to exfoliate the surface of the skin, promote cell turnover and induce desquamation.

A

chemical peel

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16
Q

____ Peels use the strongest of the chemical peel solutions.

A

Deep

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17
Q

____ is a naturally occurring protein that’s a component of human skin, joints, bones, and ligaments.

A

Collagen

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18
Q

What is the primary purpose for the surgical procedure called dermabrasion?

A

Improves uneven skin textures

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19
Q

What is used to treat inflammatory conditions such as dermatitis?

A

Anti-inflammatory medications

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20
Q

Which medication is used to promote rapid cell turnover and exfoliation?

A

Keratolytic medication

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21
Q

The procedures that may be legally performed as defined by a regulatory agency, are referred to as the…

A

scope of practice

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22
Q

A physician specializing in diagnosing and treating diseases of the skin and nails is known as a(n):

A

dermatologist

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23
Q

What is the maximum percentage of acid that the EMDA allows estheticians to use in AHAs?

A

30%

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24
Q

The EMDA does NOT allow estheticians to use an AHA with a pH lower than ___.

A

3.0

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25
Which type of peel uses trichloroacetic acid (TCA)?
Medium-depth
26
Which type of peel uses phenol, the strongest of the chemical peel solutions?
Deep
27
A fat injection is also called a(n) ____.
Microlipoinjection
28
Swelling, mild redness, and excess fullness are side-effects of...
Collagen or fat injections
29
Which procedure is used to treat sunken cheeks, laugh lines, skin depressions or indentations, forehead wrinkles or to enlarge lips?
Fat injection
30
What procedure requires the client to be anesthetized, must be performed by a physician, and may necessitate a prescribed ointment to ease tightness?
Dermabrasion
31
Normal activities may be resumed after what period of time following a blepharoplasty?
7-10 days
32
The surgical procedure that improves uneven skin textures, due to acne, facial scars and fine wrinkles, by mechanically scraping off the top layers of skin is called ______.
dermabrasion
33
Redness, formation of milia, and lightening of treated skin are side effects of ____.
dermabrasion
34
What is the term for aesthetic and reconstructive surgery?
Cosmetic surgery
35
The procedure performed to restore the functioning of body parts or to correct a deformity that may be the result of a birth defect, burn, injury, or trauma to the skin, tissue, nerves or muscles is known as ____ ____.
reconstructive surgery
36
What type of cosmetic surgery is recommended for individuals whose face and neck have begun to sag but still have some facial elasticity and good bone structure?
Rhytidectomy
37
What procedure reduces jowls, makes loose neck skin more taut, and improves sagging facial skin?
Rhytidectomy
38
Which type of cosmetic surgery uses a beam of highly focused light to vaporize the upper layers of damaged skin at specific and controlled levels of penetration?
Laser resurfacing
39
Which type of laser removes the affected portion of the epidermis to heat the papillary dermis to regenerate collagen?
Ablative
40
Which type of laser penetrates the epidermis, usually without affecting it, to treat the papillary dermis below?
Non-ablative
41
Temporary swelling, lightening of treated areas, and increased sensitivity to sun and makeup are side effects of ____ ____.
laser resurfacing
42
Approximately how many weeks should a laser resurfacing patient wait before returning to normal activities?
2 weeks
43
Cosmetic surgery to reshape the nose is referred to as ____.
rhinoplasty
44
The six signs of infection include pain, swelling, redness, local fever, throbbing, and ____.
pus
45
Which type of post-operative complication develops when microbes invade an injured, open or wounded part of the body?
Bacterial infection
46
A superficial infection that occurs on moist areas of the skin is called a(n):
yeast infection
47
An extremely contagious bacterial infection that affects the membrane that lines the eyelids is known as ____.
conjunctivitis
48
What is a highly contagious viral infection that's triggered when the body or skin is placed under extreme stress?
Herpetic infection
49
What description of care would be recommended for a first-degree burn?
Apply aloe vera
50
To care for second-degree burns, the burned area should be...
immersed in cool water
51
What is a procedure that takes a section of healthy skin from an unburned area of the body and surgically reattaches it, covering the burned area to try to re-grow skin?
Skin grafting
52
What is the most severe of the burns that damages or destroys underlying tissue, exposes nerve endings and burns fat, muscle, and bone?
Third-degree
53
Which type of medication is frequently used to relieve skin from itching and hives?
Antihistamine
54
What type of medication is a keratolytic?
Topical
55
Accutane, antibiotics, and antihistamine are examples of ____ medications.
systemic
56
Extended use of ____ medication may cause skin dryness and dehydration.
antihistamine
57
The procedures that may be legally performed, as defined by a regulatory agency, are known as the...
scope of practice
58
Peeling, shedding, and coming off in scales are all properties of ____ of the stratum ____.
desquamation; corneum
59
Which type of peel can be performed by an esthetician in a skin care center?
Light peel
60
The agency that has established procedural guidelines to ensure safety and consistency in the use of AHAs for chemical peels is referred to as ____.
EMDA
61
Regardless of the type of peel performed, direct sun exposure should be avoided for how long?
One month
62
Describe the skin of the best candidate for a chemical peel. (skin tone/type and concern/issue)
Fair skin with superficial wrinkles
63
Deep peels are recommended for treating deep facial wrinkles, sun-damaged skin and ____ ____.
uneven pigmentation
64
Which treatment fills in creased, furrowed, or sunken facial skin, lines, and wrinkles?
Collagen or fat injections
65
Collagen or fat injections usually last for how many months?
3-6 months
66
Addition of fullness to lips, plumping of facial skin, and decreasing of indentations in the skin are all results of what treatment?
Collagen or fat injections
67
What surgical procedure improves uneven skin textures by mechanically scraping off the top layers of skin?
Dermabrasion
68
What procedure treats acne scars, pigmentation, and deep wrinkles?
Dermabrasion
69
Tightness of lids, excessive tearing, and temporary blurred vision are all side effects of ____.
blepharoplasty
70
What type of cosmetic surgery is recommended for patients with drooping upper eyelids or puffy bags below the eyes?
Blepharoplasty
71
Which type of cosmetic surgery is recommended for individuals whose face and neck have begun to sag but still have good bone structure?
Rhytidectomy
72
Which type of cosmetic surgery uses a beam of highly focused light to vaporize the upper layers of damaged skin at specific and controlled levels of penetration?
Laser resurfacing
73
Laser resurfacing is recommended for patients seeking treatment for what type of wrinkles?
Fine lines
74
How long should a laser resurfacing patient wait before resuming normal activities?
2 weeks
75
What are superficial fungal infections occurring on moist areas of the skin called?
Yeast infections
76
What is post-operative complication has undesirable side effects like having red, itchy, and watery eyes that may develop a significant amount of pus?
Conjunctivitis
76
What is post-operative complication includes extreme symptoms of redness and clusters or large patches of pustules which can later develop into scaly patches?
Yeast infection
76
Which degree of burn is the least severe and only damages the epidermis?
First-degree
77
Damage from which type of burn penetrates to the dermis, resulting in redness, swelling, and blistering?
Second-degree burn
78
Third-degree burns are frequently treated with a(n)...
topical medication
79
Is Isotretinoin a topical or systemic medication?
Systemic | Accutane
80
Which type of medication is used to kill bacteria and prevent them from reproducing?
Antibacterial medication
81
What medications are taken orally and travel through the body in the bloodstream?
Systemic
82
Which type of systemic medication is used to treat a variety of conditions, but is primarily used to kill or prevent the growth of bacteria?
Antibiotic
83
Under what circumstances could an esthetician perform a TCA chemical peel?
After seeking additional training and/or while working under a physician's supervision
84
Professional associations, product manufacturers, and medical facilities are all places an esthetician can obtain...
continuing education
85
To avoid surprises when seeking employment, an esthetician should ask about the kind of training a medical establishment offers and how often they offer it. When should these questions be asked?
During the interview
86
What does an esthetician obtain after completing a medical training course?
certification that the esthetician has met the goals of the course (NOT a formal license to practice medical esthetics)