Chapter 15 Flashcards
(313 cards)
1
Q
What compromises a large portion of the AF budget
A
Manpower
2
Q
All missions and programs compete for limited authorized military and civilian end strengths, established grade distributions, and must comply with other guidelines as directed by ____
A
congress
3
Q
What are the programming requirements for manpower
A
- In accordance with validated manpower requirements
- Within fiscal limits
- Within acceptable risk
4
Q
Who allocates programmed manpower resources to the commands directing implementation of approved programs
A
The directorate of manpower, organization and resources, program development division
5
Q
Who serves as liaison between installation agencies and the MAJCOM A1M staff for manpower and organization issues
A
The installation Manpower and Organization Section
6
Q
Who validates and approves command specific military and civilian manpower requirements before they can be used in the programming and resourcing process
A
MAJCOM A1M validates and headquarters US AF/A1M approves
7
Q
Before manpower allocations can be changed, the requesting organization must give reasons for the requested change. What must the MAJCOM propose if the initiative requires and increase in military or civilian manpower
A
Specific tradeoffs
8
Q
Is end strength programmed to accommodate cyclical and temporary requirements
A
No
9
Q
How do manpower and organization section personnel help AF commanders and functional managers objectively quantify manpower requirements to distribute manpower resources
A
- Developing peacetime manpower standards
- Wartime manpower requirements
- Commercial services management actions
10
Q
What does the AF manpower requirements determinations process systematically identify
A
The minimum essential manpower required for the most effective and econ9omical accomplishment of approved missions and functions within organizational and resource constraints
11
Q
HQUSAF functional managers work with HA USAF/A1M to determine the appropriate manpower management tool conceit with what three things
A
- Resources needed to develop the manpower standard
- Required mix of military, civilian and or contract services
- Required military category and grade
12
Q
Determining the correct amount of manpower to meet the AF most stringent wartime mission is key to achieving the national Military _____ and the defense planning guidance
A
Strategy
13
Q
The defense planning guidance defines the planning scenarios used to size and shape the total force T/F
A
True
14
Q
The AF must be organized to best use available resource. what does this require
A
Simple, streamlined structures designed for seamless transition from peace to war
15
Q
The principal characteristic desired in AF organizations include what
A
Mission orientation unambiguous command decentralization agility flexibility simplicity standardization
16
Q
What are manpower standards established
A
To ensure work center operations are efficient and standardized to create the most efficient organization
17
Q
in an organization, what is the ultimate goal of organizational performance
A
mission accomplishment
18
Q
What should resource requirements reflected in a manpower standard be based on
A
An organization and process design which most effectively and effi3ently accomplishes the mission
19
Q
To be effective, organizational change effort must include redesign and or coordination on what five interrelated forms
A
Organization and People technology policies, legislation, and regulations physical infrastructure process
20
Q
in performance improvement, where does the organization and people front focus as processes are redesigned or other changes are made
A
On the worker who must be
enabled with appropriate knowledge , skills, experiences and tools
empowered to learn and act
rewarded based on the recognitions values and measures
21
Q
What does the technology front of performance improvement allow
A
compression of cycles, lead time and distance, broader access to information and knowledge assets, and elimination of barriers between customers and supplier
22
Q
In performance improvement, the policies, legislation and _____ front makes the changes required for new processes
A
Regulations
23
Q
In performance improvement, which front supports and maximizes changes in workflow, information technology and human resources by designing appropriate facilities, equipment and tools
A
The physical infrastructure front
24
Q
In performance improvement, the ____ front redesigns work and information flow using standard continuous process improvement methodologies
A
Process front
25
What does the Organization and people front of performance improvement include
Reducing the number of distinct departments or groups
Organizing into teams and developing multi skilled workers
providing appropriate incentives for employees
empowering individuals and measuring performance in relation to the process
26
What does the Technology font of performance improvement include
Improving quality and timeliness of information
Streamlining process flow
empowering knowledgeable workers
enabling new geographic arrangements of work tasks
facilitating communication with customers and suppliers
27
What does the Policies, legislation and regulations front of performance improvement include
Changing policies to accommodate new technology and skills
using information to influence regulations and legislation
altering rules that govern relationships with other entities
28
What does the physical infrastructure front of performance improvement include
Modifying physical facilities to facilitate material movements
matching equipment capabilities to changes in workflow
improving tools and work areas to fit skills and responsibilities
29
What does the process front of performance improvement include
Eliminating bottlenecks
moving work in a continuous flow
Organizing work in parallel
moving activities closer to the customer
30
The ____ is the primary document that reflects the manpower required to accomplish the units mission
Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
31
What are seven of the data elements on the UMD that identify the unique attributes of a position
```
Position number
AFSC
Functional Account Code
Office Symbols code
Grade
Personnel accounting symbol
Reason Code
```
32
Why should supervisors routinely check the UMD
For accuracy and to track their authorized manpower strength
33
The HQ US AF/A1M and the AF personnel center, directorate of manpower produce reports based on UMD data T/F
True
34
The enlisted promotion system provides a visible, relatively stable career progression opportunity over the long term. Name two additional objectives
Attracting, retaining and motivating to career service the kinds and numbers of people needed form military service.
Ensuring a reasonably uniform application of equal pay for equal work among the military services
35
Promotion quotas for the top five enlisted grades are tied to FY end strength and are affected by what three factors
Funding limits
regulatory limits
the number of projected vacancies in specific grades
36
Public law limits the daily average of Regular AF SMSgt and CMSgt positions during fiscal year to what percent of enlisted members on active duty
2.5 and 1.25 percent respectively
37
Why does the AF establish promotion cycles
To ensure timely periodic promotions and more accurate forecasting of vacancies
38
What four requirements form the basis for promotion eligibility
Proper skill level
sufficient time in grad
sufficient time in service
the immediate commanders recommendation
39
What are the TIS requirements for promotion to SR - CMSgt
```
SrA - 36 Months
SSgt - 3 years
TSgt - 5 years
MSgt - 8 years
SMSgt - 11 years
CMSgt - 14 years
```
40
TIG requirements for promotion to SSgt-CMSgt
```
SSgt - 6 Months
TSgt - 23 Months
MSgt - 24 Months
SMSgt - 20 Months
CMSgt - 21 Months
```
41
What are the PECD for promotion from SSgt through CMSgt
```
SSgt - 31 March
TSgt - 31 January
MSgt - 30 Nov
SMSgt - 30 Sep
CMSgt - 31 Jul
```
42
When is the promotion test cycle for SSgt, TSgt, and MSgt
SSgt - May and Jun
| TSgt/MSgt - February and March
43
When are the promotion cycle for SMSgt and CMSgt
SMSgt - December
| CMSgt - September
44
Name several reason why AMN may be considered ineligible for promotion
Approved retirement, declination for extension or reenlistment, court martial conviction, control roster action , not recommended by CC, failure to appear for scheduling testing without a valid reason, absent without leave, etc...
45
When individuals are ineligible for promti9on they cannot test or be considered if already tested. What happens to the projected promotion ,if already selected
It will be cancelled
46
The Promotion Sequence Numbers that AFPC assigns to AMN selected for promotion to SSgt-CMSgt are based on what
DOR, TAFMS, DOB,
47
Amn who accept a promotion are eligible for ____ and selective retraining in the projected grade
Reassignment
48
Why do members selected for promotion to MSgt and SMSgt with more then 18 years of TAFMS have to sign an ADSC or statement of understanding within 10 workdays after promotion selections are confirmed
To acknowledge that they must obtain two years of service retain ability from the effective date of promotion and incur a 2 year ADSC from the effective date of promotion to quality for no disability retirement
49
how much must a CMSgt Selects commit for
3 years
50
How and when amy AMN decline a promotion
In writing, any time prior to the effective date
51
Unless granted an EPME waiver, AMN selected for promotion must complete in resident EPME before assuming the rank of ____
SSgt
52
To remain eligible for promotion, AMN pending promotion to ____ must complete Phase 3 SNCO academy on or before the promotion eligibility cutoff date
SMSGt
53
Amn who fail to enroll, complete or pass phase 2 and phase 3 EPME distance learning within what time frame are considered ineligible for promotion
within one year of enrollment
54
on what basis does the AF normally promote eligible AMN to amn and a1c
on a noncompetitive basis, recommended by their commander
55
an AB must have ____ months TIG to be eligible for promotion to Amn
Six months
56
what is the TIG requirement for an Amn to be eligible for promotion to A1C
10 months
57
A1C must met skill level requirement by the effective date of promotion for SrA and by the PECD for SSgt T/F
True
58
HYT policy applicable as the PECD may affect promotion eligiblity in grades SrA and above T/F
True
59
SSgt must have a 5 skill level as o PECD to compete for TSgt promotion and a 7 skill level before promotion T/F
True
60
For which ranks may commanders waive the minimum skill level requirement to allow them to compete for portion
MSgt and SMSgt
61
There are no promotion opportunities for amn demoted to SrA , SSggt or TSgt if they are past their HYT for that grade T/F
True
62
The CCAF degree required for promotion to SMSgt and CMSgt must be selected from an approved list of disciplines T/F
False (the degree can be in any discipline)
63
There are different phase points for individuals graduating from BMT as Amn or A1C that correspond with their earlier promotions T/F
True
64
When are individuals initially enlisting for a period of six years, promoted from AB or Amn to A1C
Upon completion of either technical training or 20 weeks of technical training, whichever occurs first
65
When does the AF promote A1C to SrA
When they have either r36 months TIS and 20 months TIG or 28 months of TIG whichever occurs first
66
If an A1C is promoted to SRA BTZ when is his or her portion effective date
Six months before his or her fully qualified date
67
Promotion to SSgt and TSGt occurs under one of two programs
WAPS or STEP
68
Identify the six waps factors
```
SKT
PFE
TIS
TIG
Decorations
EPRS
```
69
The PFE and SKT scores account for 200 of the ____ points possible for promotion
541 Points
70
In the WAPS, who do you compete with for promotions
All Amn in your grade currently working in your AFSC
71
What happens when more than one individual has the same total score at the promotion cutoff point
the AF promotes everyone with that score
72
When and why was STEP program established
in 1980, to promote a limited number of Amn with exceptional potential to the grades of SSgt and TSGt
73
Each MAJCOM determines its own proceeds and STEP selection levels T/F
True`
74
An individual may not receive more then one promotion under any combination of promotion programs within a 12 month period with what exception
SrA must serve six months TIG before being promoted to SSgt
75
Should isolated acts or specific achievements be the sole basis for promotion under STEP
No
76
How are TIS points calculated for promotion to SSg-MSgt under the WAPS
1.33334 points for each year
77
How are the TIG points calculated under the Waps promotion
.3334 points for each month in current grade up tot 10 years (Max 40 points)
78
What is the maximum WAPS points for decorations and how is each decorations point value assigned
Maximum 25 points based on order of precedence
79
How many WAPS points are for MSM and AFCM
MSM - 5
| AFCM - 3
80
Under WAPS, EPR scores for promotion are worth a maximum of ____ points
250 points
81
When three EPRs are available to calculate under WAPS, what time weighted factor is applied to each
50 percent for the most recent, 30 for next and 20 for last
82
What time weighted factor is applied when an Amn is in his or her first year of promotion
100% for epr
83
When an AMN is in their second year of eligibility, or has two eprs the weighted factor applied to each EPR is 50 T/F
False (60 - 40 respectively)
84
TO meet PFE/SKT minimum combined score of 90, AMN must have what individual minimum test scores
A minimum score of 40 on one and 50 on the other
85
When calculating the total weight EPR score under WAPS what are the five possible epr categories and the point values you will apply the weighted factor to
```
Promote Now - 250
Must promote - 220
promote - 200
Not ready now - 150
do not promote - 50
```
86
Following completion of Phase I of the process for promotion to MSgt, what percentage of promotion eligibles by AFS C move on the Phase II
60 percent
87
What are the maximum points possible under Phase I and phase II waps evaluation for promotion to MSgt
Phase I - 541
| Phase II - 741
88
How does Phase II of the promotion process to MSgt differ from Phase I
Phase II includes a Board and it replaces the EPRs
89
In phase II of the process for promotion to MSgt how is the board score of ran individual calculated
A record is scored by three panel members. The three scores are added together, resulting in a panel composite score. The panel composite score is multiplied by 15, resulting in a total BOARD SCORE
90
Describe the two phase process for promotion to SMSgt and CMSgt
Phase I is similar to the WAPS eval. Phase II is scored by AFPC using the whole person concept
91
The two phase promotion process for SMSgt and CMSgt has a maximum score of ____ points
631
92
Preparing for promotion testing is part of your enlisted professional development T/F
False (it is solely individual responsibility)
93
What disclosure rules apply to your WAOPS score notice
It should never be provided to or used by anyone other than yourself or your commander and cannot be disclosed without your written consent
94
An amn may choose to test for promotion early T/F
True
95
Obtain and review your ____ on VMPF to verify the information used in the promotion selection process
Data Verification Record
96
When would a supplemental promotion not be granted
if an error or omission appeared on the DVR and the individual took no corrective or follow up action before the promotion selection date
97
When is the Enlisted Promotion Reference and Requirements Catalog published
Late August each year
98
Who provides WAPS CDC for each member eligible for promotions
The AF Career Development Academy (AFCDA)
99
If you have not had access to required WAPS refernc3e material for at least ____ days prior to testing, you may request a delay in testing
60 days
100
How frequently is each promotion test revised
Annually
101
At the beginning of a test development project, why are the test sunder revision administered to the SMEs
To give test writers the test takers point of view and help them focus on evaluation how well the test content relates to performance in their specialties
102
What resources do SNCOs use to write the SKTs and tie test content to important tasks performed in their AF specialty
The CFETP, occupation analysis data and thie experiences
103
Which promotion test evaluates the practical military, supervisory and managerial knowledge required in the top two NCO grades
The USAFSE
104
What information do CMSgt sue to write the PFE and USAFSE tests
their experience and the MKTS chart
105
Why is every effort made to ensure test admin procedures for promotion test are standardized
to ensure fairness for everyone competing for promotion
106
Name three safe guards the AFPC uses to verify promotion test accuracy
All promotion tests are electronically scored
A percentage of answer sheets are hand scored
Answer sheets are physically reviewed
107
Group study to prepare for enlisted promotion testing is strictly prohibited T/F
True
108
Which article of the UCMJ is violated if you use group study to prepare for an enlisted promotion exam
Article 92
109
A conviction for enlisted promotion test compromise can result in what punishment
A dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for up tot two years
110
Why is placing commercial enlisted promotion study guide software on government computers prohibited
Because it would imply AF sanction of the guides
111
When does AFPC conduct in system promotion consideration
as needed after initial promotion selection
112
Will supplemental promotion consideration be granted if an error or omission appeared on the DVR in the ARMS or SNCO selection record
Only if steps were taken tot correct prior to board
113
According to AFI 36-2623, why does the AETC Occupation Analysis program conduct occupational studies, develop survey instruments, analyze collected data and provide actionable AFS information
To equip senior leaders and managers of personnel and training programs with objective, fact based information about AF occupations and civilian occupational series
114
Occupational analysis helps provide an objective and factual orientation for what three tenets inherent to AFPD 36-26, total force development
Capabilities based training
personnel classification and utilization
promotion testing
115
How many of the eligible career field members in the targeted AFS or civilian occupation series receive the occupation survey
All of them
116
Amn in a career field being surveyed must devote the time and commitment to completing the occupation survey. How does the data collected impact training and testing
The data collected translates into operationally relevant training programs, and fair and reliable promotion tests in their career filed under the WAPS
117
What records should you review for accuracy to be promoted as a SNCO
Data verification Record and SNCO selection folder documents
118
Who should you contact immediately if there are errors in the DVR ARMS and PRDA
Your military personnel section
119
Who do SMSgts compete with for promotion
Other SMSGts in the CEM cod3e of CAFSC held as of the PECD
120
When competing for promotion individuals with a reporting identifier or special duty identifier, designated as their control AFSC on the PECD will compete within that reporting identifier or special duty identifier T/F
True
121
Who do MSgt Compete with for promotion
other MSgts in the Superintendent level of the CAFSC they held as of the PECD
122
When must academic education be completed to be considered in SNCO promotion criteria
on or before the PECD
123
How many academic education levels can be reflected on the SNCO evaluation brief
Up to Three
124
What actions take place once a completed academic education level is updated in the PDS
The promotion files is updated and a new DVR and evaluation brief are produced reflecting the change
125
A CCAF degree is awarded before the PECD, but the SNCO evaluation brief was completed within 10 days of the board convening date. What must the education services office do
Update the PDS and notify AFPC by message with an informational copy to the individuals MPS
126
What determines the content of selection folder's and information on promotion evaluation briefs
The PECD
127
The number of EPRs in the SNCO selection folder is limited to reports closed out 10 years before the PECD with a maximum of
15 EPRS
128
What data is shown on the SNCO evaluation brief
```
Name
SSN
Grade
DOR
AFS information
Service Dates
Academic education level
Decorations
Duty information
Duty history
PME/CCAF completion
```
129
The SNCO promotion evaluation board can account for more than ____ of your total score
Half
130
How many members are on a promotion evaluation board panel and what are their ranks
Three, one colonel and two CMSgt
131
The promotion evaluation board president is always a
General officer
132
The information in your DVR is always the same as what is in the MilpDS T/F
False
133
The promotion evaluation board considers what
```
Performance
Education
Breadth of experience
Job responsibilities
Professional competence
Specific achievements
Leadership
```
134
Why are you responsible for your promotion
Because you have control over the information the board reviews
135
If your a strong performer what should your EPRs convey to the board
That you have demonstrated the highest qualities required of a leader and manager
136
What is the most important consideration when the promotion board evaluates your academic education as part o the whole person concept
How the education enhances your potential to serve in the higher ranks
137
When examining your breadth of experience the promotion evaluation board considers what
Overall professional background, experience and knowledge
Practical experience and knowledge in areas outside your current AFSC
Range of exposure if you've had a single career field
Potential to fill other types of jobs
Supervisory and managerial experience
138
Command level experience is a consideration when the promotion evaluation board looks at your job responsibilities but it isn't the primary considerations What is
What you have been asked to accompli9sh and how well you have done it
139
The promotion evaluation bard considers your professional ____ when reviewing the comments of your rating and endorsing officials on your expertise
Competence
140
Specific achievements are often recognized by awards and decorations. Where else can the promotion evaluation board find significant accomplishments
Within the narrative comments on the EPRS
141
What do promotion evaluation board members look for when assessing your potential to be a leader
Information about how well you manage, lead and interact with peers and subordinates as well as what rating officials say or don't say about your leadership qualities and potential
142
What exercise helps promotion board members establish a scoring standard they can consistently apply through the board process
using the whole person concept, they score two selected sets of records by secret ballot as a practice exercise
143
Eligibles competing for promotion in a single CEM code or AFSC may be evaluated by different panels T/F
False
144
Each promotion board panel member scores each record using a 6-10 point scale in half point increments. What is the composite score range
18 - 30
145
What formula does the promotion board panel use to determine the total board score
They multiply the composite score by a factor of 15 (270 - 450)
146
Each promotion board member receives records to score. what process ensures each panel member scored the records independently
After scoring the ballots, members give them directly to a recorder
147
What constitutes a split vote when the promotion board scores a record
A difference of more then one point between any of the panel members
148
How are split votes resolved in the promotion process
The record is returned to the panel for open discussion. Only the panel members directly involved in the split are allowed to change their scores. IF the panel cannot agree, the board president makes the decision
149
Why can scores vary significantly between promotion board panels
Because the decision is so subjective
150
Whether a promotion board panel scores easy or hard is insignificant why
Because all records within the CEM or AFSC are evaluated by the same panel using the same standard
151
Name the factors that may significantly affect promotion board scores from year to year
New panel members with different though processes, previous promotion eligibles with changed or improved records, or a large pool of new eligibles
152
What is the whole person promotion board concept designed to do
Align all promotion eligibles in relative order of merit within the CEM code or AFSC based on the quality of their individual SNCO evaluation records
153
The exact rationale behind the promotion boards Not Fully Qualified decision is explained to the individual T/F
False
154
List three examples of factors that may contribute to a NFQ decision by a promotion board
The board chooses to exercise its authority to prevent promotion by default if the CEM has few eligible
A record may be considered non competitive overall as compared to peers
A record may contain demonstrated substandard performance and disciplinary problems
155
Explain how post board processing works
An electronic operation combines the board and weighted factors scores to build an order of merit listing by total scored within each CEM code or AFSC. The overall promotion quota is then applied to each list
156
Who should you contact if you have questions regarding the MSgt SMSgt or CMSgt promotion selction process
Your MPS career development element
157
What report shows you how well you fared in the promotion board process
The score notice
158
Identify the five criteria for SMSgt and CMSgt promotions
```
USAFSE
TIS
TIG
Decs
Board Score
```
159
what is the maximum value for the USAFESE in SNCO promotions
100 points
160
What is the maximum value for TIS in SNCO
16 points
161
What is the maximum value for TIG points
40 points
162
What is the maximum value for decorations and awards for SNCO
25 Points
163
How do you compute the TIS points for SNCO promotions
.05334 point for each month up to 25 years
164
How do you compute TIG points for SNCO
.3334 point for each month in grade up to 10 years
165
What is the maximum value for the board score for SNCO promotions
450 points
166
How is the promotion point value for decorations and awards assigned
Based on their order of precedence
167
When calculating SNCO promotion scores, cut off the scores after the ____ decimal place
Second
168
A minim USAFSE score of ____ is required to maintain promotion eligibility
45
169
If you review your DVR and SNCO section folder carefully and take prompt action to correct any error, you will not have to worry about losing ____ promotion consideration
Supplemental
170
Supplemental promotion consideration is not allowed for AMN needing more then the maximum board score of ____ points for selection
450 points
171
Is supplemental promotion consideration authorized to add a PME course or delete a projected retirement date that was not valid when the board met
Yes
172
Supplemental promotion consideration is authorized if the correction adds, removes or makes a significant change to an EPR T/F
True
173
Is supplemental promotion consideration authorized if the correction shows an increased academic level, corrects an academic specialty or adds a decoration citation
Yes
174
Supplemental promotion consideration is authorized for individuals with an approved extension of HYT date if they were ineligible for promotion consideration because of a HYT date T/F
True
175
When should WAPS score notices be provided to or used by anyone other the individual and his or her commander
Never
176
What is required in order to disclose and Airman's WAPS score
The AMNS written consent
177
How must commanders restrict their use of an AMNs WAPS score
They must restrict it to notification and advisory counseling on behalf of the AMN
178
Where should promotion eligible AMN obtain and review their DVR
On the vMPF site
179
To whom should promotion eligible AMN report errors in their data verification record
The MPS
180
A promotion eligible AMN notices an error in the data verification record, reports it and receives an updated version. What must he or she do
Verify the updated information
181
The ____ displays current and projected unit requirement and can be configured to display desired fields in various formats
UMD
182
How often do unit commanders and supervisors request a UMD from the installation Manpower and Organization section
On an as needed basis
183
With whom should work center supervisors coordinate UMD changes
Their unit manpower POC, who serves as liaison between the unit and Manpower and organization section
184
What is a manpower requirement
A statement of the manpower needed to accomplish a job, workload, mission or program
185
What are the two types of manpower requirements
Funded and unfunded
186
What program ensures enlisted grades are equitably allocated and don't exceed constraints
The enlisted Grades Allocation Program
187
what can cause grade imbalances between what is required and what is funded.
Legislative and budgetary constraints on the allocated grades
188
HQ USAF implements congressional and DoDD grade constraints by creating grade factors. What two factors are created and distributed
Overall command grad factors for each enlisted grade
| Career Progression Group factors for each AFSC to the first three digits
189
What ensures authorized grades do not exceed command ceiling constraints
Command Grade Factors
190
The _____ factors ensure equitable allocation of grades within each AFSC in each command
Career Progression Group
191
AFCFM can recommend command grade factors and Career Progression Group adjustments, with what constraints
They must maintain a zero balance of total grades allocated for each command
192
Commands may engage in grade swaps via the AFCFM and respective functional area managers T/F
True
193
A ____ is used when a unit needs to change an existing requirement on the UMD
Authorization Change Request
194
Which office evaluates Authorization Change Request, enters them into the Manpower Programing and Execution System (MPES) and makes recommendations for approval or disapproval to the MAJCOM
The manpower and Organization Section
195
Name the four actions that most frequently necessitate and Authorization Change Request
AFSC changes
Position realignments
Redistribution of funding from a funded to an unfunded requirement
Grade conversion
196
UMD changes must be processed within resource constraints minus no noticed increase in resources, grades, et. what example does AFH 1 use to explain this process
If a unit wants to fund a potion that is currently unfunded, a funded position must be identified for conversion to unfunded and detailed rationale for the change must be provided
197
Who works closely with the unit POC when developing an Authorization Change request
The servicing Manpower and organization section
198
Whose approval is required before all authorizations change request actions can be submitted to MAJCOM POC
The unit commanders
199
What shows the approved UMD change and the rationale for the change
An Authorization Change Notice generated by the Manpower Programming and execution system detailing the approved change
200
What office helps effectively manage manpower resources in a variety of ways
The installation Manpower and Organization Section
201
What do the Manpower and organization sections core competencies encompass
Organization Structure
Requirement determination
Program allocation and control
Process improvement
202
What services do Manpower and organization section personnel provide
Day to day manpower resource management services including UMD management
Assistance with Authorization Change Requests, Authorization Change notices and organizational structure changes
Performance management
Commercial activity service
Airmen powered by innovations program
Continuous process improvement/AF Smart Operations
Management advisory studies
203
From what two sources does the AF provide most civilian personnel services
Installation Civilian Personnel Section
| AF Personnel Center
204
Military pay is centrally managed by HQ USAF. How is civilian pay managed
It is a budget line item at MAJCOM, Field operating Agency and installation levels as well as at HQ USAF
205
The availability of performance payout and number of authorized civilian positions are the base line of civilian employment levels. For what five reasons are additional funds required
Civilian Overtime
Performance awards
Retention, recruitment and relocation bonuses
Seasonal and longer term over hires
Voluntary separation incentive payment to minimize involuntary reduction in force separations
206
Who do commanders and senior leaders depend on to recommend effective use of employees, funds and manpower authorizations to meet mission requirements
Human resource officers, financial managers and manpower officers
207
How do MAJCOMS and installations manage annual appropriations, revolving funds and reimbursements for civilian employment costs
With a board structure that meets at least quarterly
208
Most civilian overtire positions are filled using temporary appointments that don't exceed one year. What happens if the workload continues beyond a year
Term appointments of up to six years may be used
209
Civilian employees at or below grade GS-15 take the grade, not the rank, of the position they occupy. These grade potions have detailed written job descriptions that are used to determine what four things
Pay
Qualification requirements
performance expectations
Appraisal ratings
210
Civilian potion descriptions historically covered duties, responsibilities and supervisory controls. The scope of Core personnel documents has expanded to include what
Performance standards
Qualification required for recruitment
Training requirements for a new employee in the position
211
Supervisors are responsible for the accuracy of the Core Personnel Document and for implementing Standard Core Personnel Documents. How do they benefit from SCPDs
They save the time needed to write a new document and determine correct pay plans or schedules, occupation series or codes and grades
212
What is required if standard core personnel documents are used as a template for a unique core personnel document
A new classification Analysis
213
AF civilian personnel sections with large numbers of ____ retain potion classification authority and responsibilities until they transition tot he AF personnel center/Directorate of civilian force integration
Serviced civilian personnel
214
Who performs classification support for installations with smaller civilian employee populations
Air Force Personnel Center/Directorate of Civilian Force Integration (AFPC/DPIC)
215
When filling civilian jobs, do supervisors always have an opportunity to s3elect from a list of applicant
No
216
Who normally receives mandatory selection or priority referral rights when filling civilian jobs
Employees adversely affected by reduction in force through downgrade or separation
217
Explain the process for filling vacant civilian positions when mandatory selection or priority referral rights don't apply
Supervisors may consult with a staffing specialist in the Civilian personnel section or AFPC to determine recruitment sources
The vacancy for competitive fill actions is announced
Candidates are screened by the AFPC
One or more lists of candidates are referred to the supervisor
218
Civilian employees with qualify experience and or education can enter civil service at different pay grade levels T/F
True
219
What are the priory qualification indicators in most GS or equivalent pay schedules occupations
Directly related work experience and college education
220
To fill civilian positions , supervisors can choose either internal or external recruitment sources, or both, or all us citizens. Internal recruitment involves current, permanent AF employees. What may external recruitment involve
All transfers from other DoD and non DoD agencies
Reinstatement of former career and or career conditional employees
Various Veterans preference applicants
221
Using the civilian personnel candidate referral list, the supervisor may confer with the civilian personnel section to determine interview procedures. Circumstance dictate whether interviews take place. What is important to remember if interviews are arranged?
The supervisor arranges the interview
CPS must approve the interview questions
All candidates should be asked the same questions
Interview periods should be of relatively equal lengths
222
Centrally managed career programs cover most vacancies in grades GS ___ through GS - 15
GS -12
223
Senior functional mangers set career development and placement polices for civilian employees in career program covered potions. Are these programs subject to the same recruitment processes as non-centrally managed positions
Yes
224
How do supervisors use civilian training and development to improve employee performance skills
Supervisors determine training requirements and work with the Civilian Personal Section or the education training function to identify appropriate training sources
225
Organization funds must often support training needs T/F
True
226
The annual training needs survey helps supervisor project training requirements for the upcoming fiscal year. When can supervisors request out of cycle training
Any time during the year, when there are un forecasted mission requirements
227
Who's input can help first line supervisor analyze and determine civilian development needs
Higher level managements other supervisors or the employees own input
228
Can all civilian training and developmental needs be met through AF sponsorship
No
229
What is the next step in civilian training and development after training needs have been identified
Determine what training sources are available to fill the requirement
230
Identify the three primary sources of civilian training
Agency
Interagency
Non government
231
Which form is sued to request approve and document civilian training away from the work site
SF 182, Authorization agreement and certification of Training
232
AF agency training may include OJT, in-house training and AF formal schools. Why are OJT and in house training often the most effective
Because the supervisor tailors the training to meet the specific job requirements
233
Agency training can be casual or formal T/F
True
234
When is in house agency training most effective
When a large number of employees need instruction on common occupation skill requirements
235
Formalized agency classroom training is available through AF forma schools listed in the Web Based ____
Education and Training Course Announcement (ETCA)
236
What do career filed management programs plan for and sponsor to help develop current and future managers
Developmental assignments
Tuition assistance
Formal Training
Education
237
Leadership and management developmental opportunities are available to eligible high potential civilian employees. Where can you find information about them
www.afciviliancareers.com/apply/howtoapply/
238
What is interagency training
All training sponsored by US government agencies outside the employing agency
239
There are many interagency training sources. Which ones are mention in chapter 15 of the AFH 1
Office of Personnel Management, the US Departments of Army and Navy, and the US Departments of Labor and Agriculture
240
Federal regulations require agencies to condor and select government training sources before turning to non governmental alternatives. When can non governmental sources be considered
Agency or interagency courses cant satisfy training needs
| Non governmental training is more advantageous
241
Civilian employees receive ____ appraisals of how well they perform their duties
Annual
242
Performance ____ are the duties and tasks supervisors set for the civilian employees they supervise
Elements
243
Performance ____ describes how a particular element or duty must be accomplished by a civilian employee
Standards
244
How are civilian performance elements and standards document if a Core Personnel Document is not used
In writing on AF Form 860, Civilian performance Plan
245
Civilian performance appraisals serve as the basis for what four personnel actions
Identifying and correcting work performance problems
Recognizing and rewarding quality performance
Improving productivity
Granting periodic pay increases
246
AFI ____ managing the civilian performance program provides guidance for evaluation civilian employee performance for GS and federal Wage system employees
AFI36-1001
247
What tools are used to motivate general schedule and federal wage system employees to perform above an acceptable level and to compensate them for performing beyond expectations
Performance awards
248
What process occurs when civilian employees fail one or more performance elements
Employees receive an unacceptable appraisal with an opportunity to improve. Possible causes for poor performance are identified. If a satisfactory level is not achieved, the employee is removed from the potion and possibly placed in another position at the same or lower grade
249
DoD 5500.7R, Joint ethics Regulation and AFI ____ Civilian Conduct and Responsibility cover mandatory and prohibited activities for civilian employees
AFI 36-703
250
What standards of conduct are required of all civilian employees
Comply with standards of conduct in all official matters
Maintain high standards of honesty, responsibility and accountability
Adhere to the AF core values
251
Misconduct will not be tolerated. Name three of the many prohibitions on civilian employees personal conduct
Discrimination and sexual harassment
Drug and alcohol abuse
misuse of government purchase cards, computer stencils and other equipment
taking bribes
Conduction personal business at work
Criminal Off duty behavior that reflect adversely upon the AF
252
When is disciplinary action taken to correct a civilian employees misconduct or performance
When the employ can control the essential of the performance problems and has the skills knowledge and capacity to perform well, but is unwilling to do so
253
What is the AF goal for Civilian discipline
Maintaining a constructive working environment
254
If you must take disciplinary or adverse action against a civilian employee, you must do so without regard to what
Race, color, religion, sex , national origin, age, disability, marital status or politics
255
When is it appropriate to take adverse action based on an employees inability to perform because of a physical or mental disability
Only if the employees disability cannot reasonably be accommodated
256
Civilian employees must receive advance notice of imp3ending disciplinary actions T/F
True
257
Disciplinary or adverse actions against civilian employees must be prompt, equitable and comply with what
The letter and intent of all governing requirements
258
During an investigatory interview, when do employees who are members of a bargaining unit have a right to union representation
Upon request, if they reasonably believe disciplinary action may result form the interview
259
Name four levels of disciplinary action civilian personnel may face
Oral admonishment
Written reprimands
Suspension
Removal
260
____ places civilian employees in a non pay and non duty status, usually for a specific length of time
Suspension
261
For what length of time may civilian employees accuse of a serious crime be suspended
Indefinetnley
262
Supervisors must ensure civilian disciplinary actions are warranted and well documents. With whom must reprimands, suspensions and removes be coordinated so procedural violations are admistatrive oversight don't jeopardize valid disciplinary actions
The Civilian personnel section and staff Judge Advocate
263
How frequently are civilian employees paid
Every Two weeks
264
____ employee pay is expressed as an annual salary
GS
265
High cost areas have higher GS pay rates and all GS pay rates in the US include locality pay. How do GS pay rates differ OS
They do not include locality pay and are approximately 10 percent lower than US rates
266
In what month are GS pay scales normally increased each year though the legislative process
January
267
What are the wage categories in the Federal Wag system
Wage Grade
Wage Leader
Wage Supervisor
268
The federal wage system pay is expressed as an annual salary T/F
False
269
Do federal wage system or general schedule rates vary more between local areas
FWS rates
270
How do the annual Federal Wage system rate increases differ from the GS rate increases
GS rates normally increase each January through the legislative process. FWS rates may increase annually, but on an area by area basis through the year
271
Both the GS and FWS have steps in each grade; employees progress through thee steps vial longevity. How do the GAS and FWS steps differ
GS grades have 10 steps and the within grade or step increases start at 1 year intervals and slow to 3 year intervals in the higher steps. FWS grades have only five steps and the within grade increases start at 6 month intervals an slow to 2 year intervals
272
What is the overtime pay cap for GS employees
1.5 times the GS 10 Step 1 Pay rate or the hourly rate of basic pay, whichever is greater
273
How much compensatory time off is earned for each hour of civilian overtime
One hour
274
Does working at night, on Sunday or a federal holiday earn civilian employees extra pay
Yes
275
Civilian work hours are more precisely defined and less flexible than those of Regular AF military personnel. How are their work schedules defined
As administrative workweek, basic workweek, regular tour of duty, uncommon tour of duty and part time tour of duty
276
The regular tour of duty most civilians work consists of what
Normally five 8 hour days, Monday through Friday
277
When may civilian employees be asked to work on uncommon tour of duty
When necessary for mission accomplishment
278
Special circumstances permit part time, intermittent or special tours of duty. Who establishes the daily work hours including designated rest and lunch periods
Installation and tenant commanders
279
What two types of alternative civilian work schedules can be implemented by organization commanders
Flexible work schedules to allow employees to start and end work at different times
Compressed work schedules that cover 80 hours in a pay period in fewer than 10 workdays
280
Describe the most common compressed work schedule for civilian employees
Four 9 Hour days each week, an 8 hour day in one week and a regular day off in the other week
281
Which AFI covers civilian work scheduling
AFI 36-807, weekly and daily scheduling of work and holiday observances
282
How many days of sick leave do civilian employees earn each year
13 Days
283
How many days of annual leave do civilian employees earn each year
13, 20 or 26 depending on length of service
284
Annual leave accumulation is capped at ____ days for most GS and FWS employees
30 Days
285
Civilian employees working overseas can accumulate ____ days of annual leave
45 days
286
Is there a cap on the accumulation of civilian sick leave
No
287
____ leave is used for civilian employee vacations and or personal reason and should be approved in advance unless emergency conditions exist
Annual
288
Civilian leave is charged and taken in ____ minute increments
15 minutes
289
Civilian sick leave for medical appointments or family member care should be scheduled and approved in advance, except in cases of emergency. when should an illness or injury that keeps an employee away from work be reported to a supervisor
During the first two hours of the duty day
290
Are absences for jury duty, dismissals for extreme weather conditions or absences excused by the installation commander charged to a civilian employees annual leave
No
291
Civilian employees who have earned ___ time for overtime or time for awards should schedule absences to use that time like they schedule annual leave
Compensatory
292
Which AFI covers civilian employee absence and leave
AFI 36-815, absence and leave
293
Labor agreements between unions and installations or MAJCOMS cover approximately ___ percent of AF civilian employees
70 Percent
294
Unions have legal status under federal law. Guidance is included in AFI ____ labor management relations
AFI 36-701
295
Who is usually the liaisons between supervisors and other management officials and union officials
A labor Relations Officer or specialist in the Civilian Personnel section.
296
The Labor Relations Officer speaks for ____ in routine communications with the union and with parties outside the AF who have roles in labor contract negotiations and dispute resolution
Management
297
A variety of Union officials act for and make commitments for unions. Who might these include
Elected officers such as the president, vice presidents and treasures and appointed officials such as stewards and union delegates
298
____ officials raise employee concerns in the early stages of policy formulation and resolve employee complaints
Union
299
Managers should strive to work with union officials in a professional, non defensive manner. When is this particularly important
When grievances have been filed
300
Management and union representatives negotiate collective bargaining agreements that cover what topics
Grievance procedures
Use of official time for union matters
use of AF resources by unions
Other local or MAJCOM wide items of interest impacting the working condition of bargaining unit employees
301
Union contracts bind both sides, with agreements subject to interpretation by third parties outside the DoD and the AF. What issues are not covered by contracts
Pay, benefits or other matters governed by federal laws and government wide regulations
302
Revised AF instructions that differ from provisions of a contract may need to be negotiated. What recent example confirms this
Civilian performance appraisal changes were not implanted at some installations until lengthy negotiation between management and union s concluded
303
Labor management contracts must include a negotiated grievance procedure that must be used by members of the bargaining unit. Where do most negotiations start
With an option to seek resolution using outside, neutral facilitator or mediators
304
_____ Grievances follow two or more steps before one side deices to refer the dispute to a paid outside arbitrator
Formal
305
In dispute resolution, who usually bears the cost of the arbitration
Costs are usually shared equally by the union and management
306
In dispute resolution are the artribiatros decisions final
Yes
307
AFI ____ covers the administrative grievance process that supervisors, managers and employees who are not covered by a collective bargaining agreement, or who are not members of the bargaining unit, follow
AFI 36-1203, Administrative Grievance System
308
Although outside fact finders may be used at management option, admistatrive grievances are usually decided by whom
AF official, usually the installation commander or his or her designee
309
a number of personnel decision are excluded from admistatrive grievances and most negotiated grievance procedures. Name two examples
Non selection for Promotion and
| Performance recognition
310
What board hears appeals of civilian suspension without pay of more than 14 days, demotions and removals
The merit system protection board (MSPB)
311
Disputes pursued as grievances can be duplicated as Equal Employment opportunity complaints and vice versa T/F
False
312
Who investigates charges of Unfair Labor Practice to resolve disputes between a union and management concerning the statuary rights of either party
The federal Labor Relations Authority
313
Most unfair labor practice charges are filed by unions when mangers or supervisor are accused of changing working conditions or calling formal meeting without proper notice to the union. If found guilty, what may be required of management
Management may be required to revert back tot he previous working condition, and the commander of the OR may be required to post an admission of managements wrongdoing on official bas bulletin boards
