Chapter 4 Flashcards
(449 cards)
1
Q
Define AF Doctrine
A
A statement of officially sanctioned beliefs, war fighting principles and terminology that describe4s and guides the proper military use of air space and cyberspace power
2
Q
Doctrine provides a common frame of reference regarding the best way to do what
A
Prepare and employ AF forces
3
Q
Doctrine shapes how the AF organizes trains and equips and sustains its forces T/F
A
True
4
Q
Does doctrine provide unique terminology for Air and space forces? T/F
A
False (It provides common terminology
5
Q
Should you apply doctrine judiciously or follow it to the letter
A
Use it Judiciously
6
Q
Doctrine gives Amn an informed starting point for making decisions during continuous deployments . It solves up to ____ % of basic issues
A
90%
7
Q
Many things remain constant between operations, the remainder are usually tailored to specific operations T/F
A
True
8
Q
Explain the differences between good and bad doctrine
A
Good doctrine informs , provides a sound departure point, allows flexibility and must be intelligently applied. Bad doctrine overly restricts creativity, can be corrupted by parochialism and other biases within or between services and can result in inefficiency and effectiveness
9
Q
Is doctrine about war fighting or about the physics of the domain within which a system operates
A
War fighting
10
Q
Doctrine focuses on the best means to obtain war fighting effects, regardless of the domain by integrating air, space and ____ domains
A
Cyberspace
11
Q
Doctrine ties specific weapon systems to specific tasks or effects T/F
A
False (It focuses on the desired outcome, not the platform)
12
Q
Does doctrine carve up the operational environment into service ownership or function ownership
A
Neither
13
Q
How does doctrine help organize a total, tailored decisive Joint force
A
Doctrine explains preferred organizational structures and effective command structures
14
Q
Describe how Joint force must be organized to achieve unity of effort and unity of command
A
It must have a single, cohesive organization with clearly defined lines of command and commanders with requisites authorities at appropriate levels
15
Q
Organizing according to doctrine helps the Rapid ____ of joint and service organizations during rapidly evolving situations
A
Standup
16
Q
From a command and control viewpoint, segregation is the simples, most efficient way to manage elements of diverse joint force T/F
A
False (synergy and integration of effort are required)
17
Q
To achieve the Joint Force Commanders objectives, should AMN have access to the entire theater of operations or should they be restricted from areas for fire support coordination measures
A
Airmen should have access to the entire theater of operations
18
Q
Segregating the operational environment into small areas of operation may reduce combat effectiveness and create completion for what type of capabilities
A
For scarce, high demand, low density capabilities
19
Q
Airmen should ____ , not just synchronize, joint operational planning
A
Integrate
20
Q
_____ arranges Military actions to produce maximum relative combat power at a decisive place and time
A
Synchronization
21
Q
_____ arranges military forces and their actions so they operate by engaging as a whole
A
Integration
22
Q
Does integration of forces work form the top down or from the bottom up
A
It starts at the top with a single cohesive plan and works downward
23
Q
Good doctrine doesn’t focus on the relative value of one service over another. What does it focus on instead
A
The right capability to best accomplish the mission
24
Q
What should the proper mix of service components within a Joint Force be tailored to
A
To the Task
25
What are the three levels of airpower doctrine
1. Basic
2. Operational
3. Tactical
26
Which publication is the AMNs basic doctrine
AFDD 1.
27
Which level of doctrine states the fundamental, broad and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper us presentation and organization of the AF capabilities
Basic Doctrine
28
Basic Doctrine describes the guides the "_____ properties" of airpower from the AMNs perspective
Elemental Properties
29
Which level of doctrine describes the Org of AF forces in more detail and applies basic doctrines principles to military actions
Operational Doctrine
30
______ annexes contain operational doctrine
Doctrine annexes
31
Operational doctrine guides the organization and employment of forces within what four contexts
1. Distinct objectives
2. Force capabilities
3. Broad functional areas
4. Operational environments
32
Operational doctrine develops missions and tasks that must be executed through ____ doctrine
Tactical Doctrine
33
How do 3 series manuals codify tactical doctrine
As tactics, techniques and procedures
34
Tactical doctrine describes the proper employment of specific US AF assets to accomplish detailed objectives. Does it deal with employing assets individually or in concert with other assets
Both individually and in concert
35
_____ considers particular object ices and conditions and describes how AF assets accomplish the tactical objectives
Tactical doctrine
36
Which level of doctrine changes relatively slowly. Which may change rapidly
Basic doctrine changes slowly, Tactical doctrine may change rapidly
37
What are the four key doctrine components
1. Amns perspective
2. Principles of war
3. Tenets of Airpower
4. AF operations
38
What term did General Henry H Hap Arnold coin for the unique airman's perspective
Airmindedeness
39
What unique aspects of airpower does the AMNs perspective reflect
The range, speed and capabilities of airpower as well as its unique threats and survival imperatives
40
Control of the vertical dimension is generally a necessary predestination for control of the surface T/F
True
41
Describe the first mission of an AF
To defeat or neutralize enemy Air forces so friendly land, sea and air and space operations can proceed unhindered and to protect its own military forces and critical vulnerabilities from air attack
42
Airpower is an inherently ____ force, for both war and non lethal activates
Strategic
43
Airpower can simultaneously exploit the principals of ____ and _____ quickly concentrating power at any point
Mass and maneuver
44
Airpower dominates the fourth dimension time. By compressing events how does it affect the adversary
It produces physical and psychological shock
45
Airpower applies force against which facets of an enemy's power - diplomatic, informational, military economic or social
Against any or all, simultaneously or separately
46
how does airpower create a smaller cultural foot print than surface forces when deployed
It can operate from bases over the horizon or from a few in country bases
47
Speed, range and flexibility make airpower the most versatile component of military power. what is the versatility derived from
The inherent characteristic of Air forces an how they are organized and controlled
48
All six aspects of airpower are essential, interdepend and rely on the performance of AMN. List them
1. Capabilities
2. People
3. Weapons
4. Bases
5. Logistics
6. All support infrastructure
49
The choice of appropriate capabilities is key. How should weapons be selected
Based on their ability to influence an adversary's capability and will
50
Airpower mobility eliminates the need to consider the availability and operability of suitable bases during employment planning and execution T/F
False (supporting bases are essential to launch and recover)
51
Airpowers unique characteristics require it to be _____ controlled by Airmen
Centrally
52
With regard to airpower, why must airmen take a broader view of war
Because the weapons they command have effects at broader levels of war.
53
Through what tenet do AMN apply airpower
The tenet of centralized control and decentralized execution
54
Which key doctrine concept encompasses those aspects of warfare that are universally true and relevant providing general guidance on achieving military victory
Principles of war
55
What are the nine principals of ware
1. Unity of command
2. Objective
3. Offensive
4. Mass
5. Maneuver
6. economy of force
7. security
8 surprise
9 simplicity
56
Unity of command concentrates effort for all objective under how many commanders
One
57
Which principle of war allows airpower to concentrate on theater or campaign priorities and avoids siphoning force elements to fragmented objectives
Objective
58
How can AMN can overcome challenges imposed by time and distance
By integrating the potential of Air, space an cyberspace capabilities
59
In application objective refers to _____ of effort in purpose, space and time
Unity of effort
60
Name the principle of ware that seizes, retains and exploits the initiative
Offensive
61
The offensive principle of war holds that the ____ must be seized quickly, retained and fully exploited, so joint forces can dictate operations
Initiative
62
Airpower is best used defensively T/F
False
63
What aspects of attacking airpower give it a signification offensive advantage over other forces
Speed and range
64
By focusing solely on air capabilities, airmen enhance the advantages of speed, range and persistence found in airpower T/F
False
65
Which principle of war concentrates combat power at the most advantageous place and time to achieve decisive results
Mass
66
Airpower achieves mass faster then surface forces. What do air and space forces rely on instead of overwhelming forces and material
Effectiveness of attack
67
What allow dispersed forces to collaborate to rapidly find, fix track and target fleeting targets and mass a response in new ways
Air Force cyberspace capabilities
68
Previously, planners and operators worked in relative proximity within the same theater of operations. How does that differ from how they work today
Now they leverage distributed capabilities to apply precise effects around the globe
69
The capability of airpower to act quickly, mas effects and mass other military power combines the principals of mass with the principle of ____
Maneuver
70
Which principle of war places the enemy at a disadvantage through flexible application of combat power in a multi dimension combat space
Maneuver
71
How does airpower use maneuver as a principle of war to force the enemy to react
Airpower allows engagement anywhere from any direction and at any time forcing the enemy to be on guard everywhere
72
Which principle of war judiciously employs and distributes forces, allocating minim essential resources to secondary efforts
Economy of force
73
Economy of force requires amn to maintain a ____ operational view as they seek clear objectives and priorities
Broader
74
When applying the principle of ware economy of for, Guard again ___using more force then reasonably necessary
Overkill
75
Which principle of war goal is to never let the enemy acquire an unexpected advantage
Security
76
Security must embrace physical security operations security and security of the ___ environment
information environment
77
Where is airpower most vulnerable to attack
on the ground
78
From an AMNs perspective, security may be obtained by staying beyond the enemies reach, physically and virtually T/F
True
79
Amn must bear in mind the concepts of necessity and ____ when exercising the right to self defense
Proportionality
80
When does necessity exist if an Amn is exercising the right to self defense
When an enemy commits a hostile act or shows hostel intent. Use of force is then authorized while the enemy continues to act hostilely or exhibit such intent
81
Proportionally means the use of ___ should be sufficient to respond decisively.
Force
82
The concepts of necessity and proportionality in self defense are the same as those applicable of the law of armed conflict T/F
False
83
Attacking the enemy at a time, place or in a manner for which they are not prepared demonstrates which principle of war
Surprise
84
Which principle of war avoids unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning and conducting operations
Simplicity
85
List two way to overcome complexity in keeping with simplicity as a principle of war
1. Simple and direct guidance, plans and orders
2. Common equipment
3. Common understanding of service and joint doctrine
4. Joint exercises and training that make procedures familiar
5. Unambiguous organizational and command relationships
86
The ____ of airpower are fundamental guiding truths specific to airpower
Tenets
87
Persistence is one of the seven tenets of airpower. What are the other six
2. Centralized control and decentralized execution
3. Flexibility and versatility
4. Synergistic effects
5. Concentration
6. Priority
7 Balance
88
The tents of airpower are interconnected, overlapping and often interlock. Which tenet is the master tenet, without which all others are empty phrases
Centralized control and decentralized execution
89
As with the principles of war, why is an Amns expertise required to apply the tenets of airpower
Because it requires informed judgment, skillful blending to tailor tenets to the ever changing operational environment, and balancing the competing demands of principles and tenets
90
Which tenet is the fundamental organizing principle of airpower
Centralized control and decentralized execution
91
Who should control airpower to maintain a broad, strategic perspective
A single Airman
92
Who does decentralized execution delegate authority to
To designated lower level commanders and other tactical level decision makers
93
List several benefits of decentralized execution
1. Achieves effective span of control
2. Fosters disciplined initiative and tactical flexibility
3. Allows subordinates to split situational responsiveness and fleeting opportunities
94
When are the benefits of decentralized execution maximized
When a commander clearly communicates intent
95
The centralized control and _____ execution tenet of airpower provides a critical broad global or theater wide focus while allowing operational flexibility to meet military objectives
Decentralized
96
Give an example of a front line decisions maker who should make on scene decisions during complex rapidly unfolding operations under decentralized execution
Strike package leaders, air battle managers or forward air controllers
97
Why should commanders refrain from taking control of distant events and overriding the decisions of forward leaders
Despite gains in date exploitation and automated decision aids, no one person can achieve situational awareness of a conflict involving many simultaneous engagements in a large area
98
Under decentralized execution subordinates should be allowed to take the initiative with what caveat
Their decision should support the commanders intent and meet campaign objectives
99
Which aspect of the tenet of flexibility and versatility exploits mass and maneuver simultaneously
Flexibility
100
Explain the difference between flexibility and versatility as they relate to the tents of air power and space power
Flexibility allows a quick and decisive shift from one campaign object to another. Versatility is the ability to effectively employ airpower at strategic, operational and tactical levels
101
Which capabilities are especially able to simultaneously support multiple tasking's around the globe and support tasks at all levels of warfare
Space and cyberspace capabilities
102
Which tenet of airpower properly applies coordinated force to produce effects that exceed those of individually employed forces
Synergistic effects
103
Destroying a large number of targets through attrition warfare is rarely the key objective in modern war. What is
The precise coordinated application of various elements of airpower and surface power to bring disproportionate pressure on enemy leaders to comply with our national will
104
Air space and cyberspace operations may be conducted continuously against a broad spectrum of targets. Airpower forces can visit and revisit wide range of target nearly at will. These are examples of which tenets of airpower
Persistence
105
Space systems offer potential persistent overhead access. What may do the same within the atmosphere
Unmanned Aircraft Systems
106
Give an example of a persist operations
1. Maintaining a continuous flow of material to peacetime distressed areas
2. Monitoring adversaries to ensure they cannot conduct actions counter to those agreed upon
3. Assuring targets are kept continually out of commission
4. ensuring resources and facilities are denied to an enemy or provided to an ally during a specified time
107
What is the end result of persistent operations
To deny the opponent the chance to seize initiative and to directly accomplish assigned tasks
108
Why sis the tenet concentration crucial for Airmen
Because concentrating power at the decisive time and place is crucial and AMN must guard against inadvertently diluting and fragmenting airpower due to high demand
109
Careful planning ensures that demand for airpower never exceeds available resources T/F
False
110
Prioritizing applies the Amns strategic perspective along with which other tenet and which three principles
The tenet of concentration and the principals of mass, offensive and economy of force
111
List the five considerations an air component commander should balance against the risk of friendly forces
1. Combat opportunity
2. Necessity
3. Effectiveness
4. Efficiency
5. Impact on accomplishing assigned objectives
112
Who is uniquely and best suited to determine the proper theater wide balance between offensive and defensive operations and among strategic , operational and tactical applications
An Airman
113
Strategic attack operations employ offensive action specifically selected to achieve ____ or _____ strategic objectives
national or military
114
Strategic attack involves the systematic application of force against enemy systems and their centers of gravity T/F
True
115
What type of AF operations are conducted across all domains and determine the level or degree of air control
Counter air Operations
116
What describes a level of influence in the air domain relative to an adversary
Air Control
117
______ is the level of Air control at which one force does not have air superiority over others
Air parity
118
If the level of air is control is categorized as air parity, aerial maneuver halts and a standoff occurs T/F
False
119
_____ is the level of air control at which one force dominates in the air battle, permitting the conduct of operations without prohibitive interference by the opposing force
Air superiority
120
Once air superiority is achieved, it is by definition brad and enduring T/F
False (It can be localized)
121
____ Is the level of air control which one force dominates in the air battle, permitting the conduct of operations without effective interference by the opposing force
Air Supremacy
122
Air Supremacy is normally the highest level of air control T/F
True
123
_____ operations are airpower operations against enemy land force capabilities to create effects that achieve joint force commander objectives
Counter land
124
Counter land operations are usually associated with support to friendly surface forces. May they be conducted independent of friendly surface forces
Yes
125
How does air interdiction prevent enemy military potentially from being brought to bear against friendly forces
By diverting, disrupting, delaying or destroying the enemies military potential before this can occur
126
What is defend as action by fixed and rotary winged aircraft against hostile targets that are in close proximity to friendly forces and that require detailed integration of each air mission with the fire an movement for those forces
Close Air support
127
_____ operations attain and maintain maritime superiority by destroying , disrupting, delaying , diverting or neutralizing threats in the maritime domain and preventing enemies from doing the same
Counter sea
128
What is maritime superiority
Denial of the maritime domain to the adversary while assuring access and freedom of maneuver for th eUS and allied maritime forces
129
From a military perspective, is the maritime domain limited to the open seas
No
130
What is the authority of a joint force cc to accomplish assigned missions, based upon the most effective use of available resources
Command and Control
131
_____ is a process used to increase operational effectiveness by promoting the safe, efficient and flexible use of airspace
airspace control
132
Airspace control operations are often static T/F
False
133
To optimize airspace use, what should airspace control accommodate
Users with varied technical capabilities
134
Airspace control accomplishes the joint force commanders objectives and allows all users to access needed airspace while prevene4ting conflicts T/F
True
135
what are the three characterizations of operational airspace
1. Permissive combat airspace
2. Contested combat airspace
3. Denied access combat airspace
136
Permissive combat airspace entails a ____ risk for US and coalition aircraft
Low risk
137
Contested combat airspace entails a ____ risk
Medium Risk
138
Denied access combat airspace entails a high risk for many, but not all, US and coalition aircraft. What can you expect from operations in this airspace
High losses or denial of sustained operations until a measure of air superiority is achieved
139
Space operations are internal to joint force planning and operations. What do they involve
Space superiority and mission assurance
140
what is space superiority
The degree of dominance in space that permits land, sea, air space and special operations without prohibitive interference with a goal of maintaining our own space capabilities when contested and ensuring unhindered mission continuity
141
Space superiority may be localized in time and space or be broad and enduring T.F
True
142
List some external orgs that form partnerships with AF space operations
1. other military services
2. allies
3. national and civil agencies
4. commercial and foreign enterprises
143
Cyberspace operations employ cyberspace capabilities with the primary purpose of achieving ____ objectives or effects in or through cyberspace
Military objectives
144
Cyberspace operations are synonymous with information operations T/ F
False They can b performed in cyberspace and other domains
145
How does the cyberspace domain interact with other domains
Activities in cyberspace can enable freedom of action for activities in other domains and activities in other domains can create effect is in and through cyberspace
146
What is the rapid movement of perosonnel, material and forces to and from or within a theater by air
Air Mobility
147
Define airlift
Operations to transport and deliver forces and material through the air to support strategic, operational or tactical objectives
148
Air refueling is the process of supplying fuel to any aircraft, regardless of its current positions T/F
False
149
Air mobility ____ provides command and control, aerial port and maintenance for mobility forces
Support
150
How does aeromedical evacuation provide time sensitive en route casualty care to and between medical treatment facilities
Via aircraft with trained medical aircrews
151
What kind of operations require unique modes of employment, tactical techniques, equipment and training
special operations
152
List several characteristics of special operations
1. Conducted in hostile, denied or politically sensitive environments
2. Time sensitive
3. Clandestine
4. Low visibility
5. Conducted with or through indigenous forces
6. Require regional expertise
7. Highly risky
153
Special operations forces should complement and not come with nor be a substitute for conventional forces T/F
True
154
Special operations forces include aviation units, battlefield AMN, dedicated special operation forces intelligence, surveillance, reconnaissance units, aviation foreign internal defense and ___ capabilities
Support Capabilities
155
Command and control of special operations forces is normally executed within the standard chain of command T/F
False
156
Homeland operations is the umbrella construct through which the AF supports homeland defense, defense support of ____ authorities and emergency preparedness
Civil Authorities
157
The us enjoys sovereignty 12 miles out to sea and exercises respionbitlies extending ____ miles from the coast
200 Miles
158
What is homeland defense
The protectin of US sovereignty, territory, domestic population and critical defense infrastructure against external threats and aggression or other threats as directed by the president
159
Defense support of civil authorities, as falls under the umbrella contruct of homeland oeprations, involves DoD suppor to US civili auathories for ____ emergencies and for designated law enforcement and othe ractivites
Domestic emergencies
160
Doe Emergency preparedness fall under the umbrella construct of homeland operations
YEs
161
Describe the AF role in nuclear operations
1. Organize, train, equip and sustain forces with the capability to deter adversaires from attacking th eUS and its interest with nuclear arsenals or other weapons of mass destruction
2. Dissuade competitors from developoing weapons of mas destruction
3. Assure allies and partners that the US has the ability and detmination to protect thtm
4. hold a risk a spekfici range of targets
162
______ reductiosn have reduced the specter of a cold war type nuclear exchange, athoguh the possibility of their use remains
Force reductions
163
Nuclear compoonets are less visible as a component of national security tan they were during the cold war, but they underpin us deterrence T/F
True
164
What is a violent struggle amont state and not stat actors for legitimacy and influcen ove rhet relevant populations
Irregular warfare
165
____ warfar favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capbilites to erode an adversarys power, influcne and will
Information warefare
166
Dut to the overwhelming dominance of the us in recent conveitinal wars, to whom have irregular forms of warfare become attractive
Terroritss, insurgents, criminal networks and non friendly staes
167
How do infomraiton and traditional warfare both seek to resolve confilct
By compelling change in adversarial behavior
168
Information warfare focusses on population centric approaches that affect actors behaviors relationships and stability in the area or region of interest T/F
Trues
169
What are the five principle information warfare acirivites the AF is prepared to support and conduct
1. Foreing internal defense
2. Unconventional warfare
3. Counterinsurgency
4. COunteterrorsim
5. Stability operations
170
What are the four key activities related to the AF principle information warfare activities, all of which may be used to counter irregular threats
1. Security force assitance
2. Information operations
3. Civili military operations
4. Support to law enforcement, medical and counterintelligence oeprations
171
Across the range of information warfare scenarios a set of overarching concepts provide a foundation for planning and employing AF e=capaibiltes. Do this apply to all conceive situations
No, They represent broad concepts that all Awn should consider
172
Define foreign internal defense
Prarticipation by civilian and milathyr agencies of a government in any of the action programs taken by another government to free and protect its society form subversion lawlessness and insurgency
173
Most AF foreign internal defines involves working by with and through foreign aviation forces to achieve us strategic and operational objectives. With presidential direction what else can it ential
The U=use of US combat units and advisors in coercive roles to stabilizes the security and survival of a foreign regime and vital insinuations under siege by insurgent sor terroritst
174
Foreign internal defense includes military trianginand equipping, technical asistnac, _____ support, infrastrutuct development and tactical operations
Advisory support
175
What broad category do AF foreign internal dense operations fall under
National assistance
176
What are the. three separate but complementary programs that comprise nation assistance
1. Humanitarian and civic Assistance
2. Security assistance
3. Foreign Internal defense
177
How does the AF define global integrated intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance
Cros domain synchronization and integration of the planning an operation of intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance assets, sensors, processing, exploitation and disemeinations systems and analysis and production capabilities across the glove to enable current and future operations
178
What ar the five phases of the process by which the AF conducts global integrated intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance operations
1. Planning and direction
2. Colleciotn
3. Processing and expllitation
4. Analysis and production
5. Dissemination
179
The process by which the AF conducts global integrated intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance operations in linear T/F
False (It represents a network of interrelated, simultaneous operations that can feed or be fed by other operations)
180
What phase of the process by which the AF conducts global integrated intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance operations increases the utility of collective data by converting it into useable information
Processing and exlpoitation
181
What phase of the process by wit=ch the AF conducts global integrated intelligence, surveillance and reconnsance operations ensures the commanders achieves intelligence in time to make effective decisions
Dissemination
182
_____ is the process of selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropratiate response to them
Targeting
183
Targeting is a command function require commanders oversight and involvement for proper exectuiiosn T?F
True
184
How does the targeting help translate strategy into discrete actions against targets
By linking ends ways means and risks
185
By what virtue do potential targets derive importance and criticality
By virtue of the extent to which they enable enemy capability sand actions that must be affect in order to achieve the commanders objectives cities
186
Must actions agains a target always be kinetic
No
187
Multiple actions may e taken against a single target, and actions may be taken againkst multiple targets T/F
True
188
define information operations
The integrated employment during military operations of information related capabilities to influcens dirtupt corrupt or usurp the decision making of adversaries and potential adversaries while protecting our own
189
What is the purpose of information operations
To affect adversary and potential adversary decisions making with the intent to ultimately affect their behavior
190
How can you target and adversary decisionmmakingprocess
By understanding the cognitive factors related to their decisions making process, the information they use and how they receive and send information
191
Inlfucne, disrupt, =corrupt or usurp and adversary deicioin making process by incorporate the use of capability that _____ their information
Touch
192
How can an adversary decision making process be modeled
With a cycle of steps coalalled the OODA (Observe, Orient, Decide, Act) Loop
193
The steps o the OODA loop occur within the information enifviormnentmtn. W hat three targetable dimensions do they give
1. Informational dimension
2. Physical dimension
3. Cognitive dimension
194
Information operation is fundamental to the overall military objective of influenceing an adversary T.F
True
195
Is information operations planning a stand alone process
No
196
Though planning, execution and ____ processes, information operation provides the means to employ the right capabilities to achieve the desired aeffect
Assessment
197
Electronic warfare is military action involving the use of ____ and directed energy to control the electorocmanitc spectrum or to attack the enemy
Electromagnetic
198
The electormangnetice spectrum is the full range of frequencies of electormentic radiation from near zero to infinity. Into how many alphabetically designated bids is ti devided
26
199
Why is electronic warfare waged
To secure and maintain freedom of a action in the electonmageneitce spectrum
200
Military forces depend on the elctormaantic spectrum for applications such as communication, detection identification nd targeting T/F
True
201
What can improperly coordinated electronic warfare do
Distrupt our own command and control
202
What does proper employment of electronic warefware enhance
The commanders ability to achieve operational superiority
203
Electric warfare is speciallized capability that enhances many air, space and ____ functions at all levels of conflict
Cyberspace
204
Define personnel recovery
The sum of military diplomatic and civiil efforts to recover and return US military DoD civilians and DoDcontroor personnel who are isolated or missing while paritcipaitn ia a US government acnctioned Military activity or in a mission in an uncertain or hiostile einviornement, or as determined by the Sec Def
205
The AF organizes. trains and equips peronsnnel to conduct _____ operations using the fastest and most effective means
Peronsnnel recovery operations
206
AF personnel recovery operations forces deploy to recover peronsnnel or equipment with stnadnared issue Aircraft and vehicles T/F
False
207
What is the primary mission of AF personnel recover operations
To use specially trained airmen and unique equipment to recover isolated personnel
208
Define AEF Doctrine
A collection of beliefs distilled through experience and passed on from one generation of man to the next that guide what we do codified practi=ces on how best to employ air and space power
209
What is the mechanism for managing and scheduling forces for expeeditioanr e Use
The AEF
210
the AEF concept is a means to provide forces and support on a rotation and more predictablee basis T/F
True
211
What kind of period do deployed units undergo before entering another deployment period
A period of dwell
212
The AF supports global Combat CC requirement s through what combinations
Assigned, attached and bomitly forces that may be forward deployed, transient or operating from home station
213
What are the four major elements of the AEF structure
1. Readily available force
2. An enabler force
3. In place support
4. An institutional force
214
The readily avaailbel force is the ____ jpool from which the AF fulfills global force management allocation plan requirements
Primary
215
To meet Global force management allocation plan requirement, how does the AF align its wwarfighting capabilities
Based on requirement s=relative to assign drotation capapiblites for each vubulnerability period
216
Name the two types of in place support
Forces that almost exclusively employ in direct support of a Combat CC mission and this that represent the minimum number of requirements to support critical home station operations
217
A ____ force includes common user assets that provide support to authorized organizations whiten and outside the DoD
Enabler force
218
List who common users assets included in an enabler force
Any two of
1. Global mobility
2. Special operations forces
3. Personennel recover
4. Sapce
5. Other uniquely categorized
219
Most High Demand Lows supply assets are postured as enabler forces androtate as oration requirements dictate. What tow other elements are included in the posturing
The national Air Mobility System and Theater Air Ctonrol systems
220
Due to their unique nature, enabler forces do not operate within a _____ month life cycle and cannot be easlily aligned tin AEF battle rhythm
24 Months
221
A. _____ force consists of thise forces assigned to orgs responsible for carrying out the SECAF directed Title 10 Functions at th AF level
Institutional Force
222
Who must grant a waiver for institutional forces to posture unit type codes int he AEF capability library
Headquaerrts AF
223
Even thought insitiutnal force orgs do not repreent a _____ capability, the individuals assigned to them are _____
Warefighting .... Deployeable
224
The AEF operated on a _____ month life cycle
24 Month
225
What does the AEF life cycle include
1. Normal straining
2. Preparation
3. Deployment vulnerability
226
Foer most forces the majority of the AEF battle rhythm is spent in ____ training
Normal
227
Contingency and deployment training is also used to fill the units assigned committed mission requirements filling requirement for how many days
30 Days or less
228
Post deployment reconstitution is included in the AEF battler rhythm T/F
True
229
PCS or permanent change of assignment moves into and out of the unit will be deconflicted to the maximum extent posibleto occur during the ____ month period immediately after the vulnerability period
Three month
230
Unit CCs should develop a deployment schedule that provides a measure of predictability for forces aligned with what other forces
Enabler Forces
231
Who ensures appropriate mechanisms are in place to ensure AMN postured as enablers are povided a measure of predicability and stability
MAJCOM Vice CCs
232
What is the process the SecDef and the Chairman of the Joint chiefs of Staff use to assign forces to CCDR for mission accomplishment
Global Force Management (GFM)
233
what does. Global Force Management (GFM) allow senior deacon makers to assess
The impact and risk of proposed changes in force assignment apportionment and allocation
234
How many life cycles does the AEF schedule ecncompas
Two 12 Month life cycles that align with the GFM cycle and coincide with FYs
235
Who revalidates the deployment to dwell period alligmmetn of their respective capability areas and readings forces if necessary
AF specialty funcional area managers (Prior to the beginning of every AEF cycle)
236
How often isa new 24 Month AEF schedule established
Every 12 Months
237
The AF has t transitioned to the AEF _____. Concept
Teaming
238
Describe the AEF teaming Conttruct
The contract provides a better teaming concept through larger groupings of UTCs from fewer units bases in order to allow AMN to deploy with their supervisors and members of their unit base, and allows for shared common experiences thought the deployment process
239
Dut to the new AEF Teaming construct, there will be major changes to how the AF presents forces T/F
False
240
What is the basic building block used in force paling and the deployment of forces
The unit type code (UTC)
241
What is a unit type cod
A UTC is a JCS developed and assigned code. It is a five charter alphanumeric designator that uniquely idientifieseach type of unit in the Armed forces and its force acapbiltiy with personnel and or equipment requirements
242
What does the assignbemet of uTC cod categorized
Each typ organization into a class or kind of unit having common distuiginging charterireistic
243
All AF peronslle contribute to the AEF and are inherently deployable or employable in place T/F
True
244
Which organization posture unit type codes
Combat, combat support, combat service support or War Fighting organizations
245
On what is posturing of UTC based
On an organization funded miltary authorizations ass how in the Unit Manpower document (UMPD)
246
AEF forces can be postured as ready to deploy to support CCDRs worldwide requiemtns, home station requirement or ____ support of rCCDRs
Reach back
247
Who must determine which UTC to posture, based on operational need, organizational specifics and posturing codes within their function areas
MAJCOM functional area managers with unit chain of command involvement, MJACOM leadership and or AEF cell oversight
248
All UTC are postured T/F
False (Units may be tasked to support a UTC they have not postured as long as the unit can meet the UTC mission capability statement)
249
What are P codes
Posturing codes that indicate the number of unit type codes required for assigned committed missions, critical home station requirements and the number of UTC available to be xsimultanieoulsy tasked for deployment
250
List and describe the three types of P codes
1. DP - The minimum number of unit type codes required to accomplish the units assign dcommited mission either deployed or in place
2. DX - The minimum number UTC equipment stolen support critical home station operations
3. DW - The maximum number of UTC requirements amiable t support combatant commanders rotational mission
251
Which P Code includes. CCDR missions as well as those of external orgs agencies that the unit must accomplish
DP
252
Which P code includes mission not assitioed with the assgiebd commite dmission
DX
253
When are AMN given can E indicator
Within 15 days af Date arrived station
254
With what does the AEF indicator correspond for individuals assigned to readily available forces
The same AEF period as the units unit type code
255
its what does and AEF indictor correspond for individuals assigned to the Institutional force
An AEF vulnerability period detained by the AMNs commander or equipmvalent
256
Individuals will deploy during their associate AEF vulnerability period. with what exception
IN passes of reaching forward
257
When can an individuals AEF indicator be changed
Only under extenuating circumstances, along with PCS or PCA
258
When'd od unit commanders review AEF indicator codes of assigned AMN to ensure they match the UTC alignment
Prior to the start of each AEF schedule
259
In the case of the insitutaitonal force, organization cCCs will review AEF indicator codes to ensure equal distribution across the ____ vulnerability periods to the maximum extent possible while meeting the need of the Org
Five
260
Joint operation planning and execution system (JOPES) is a system of joint policies, procedures and reprint gsturxctures. What too types of systems support it
1. Communicaitons Systmes
| 2. Compute systems
261
Do joint planners us JOPES to monitor plan and execute planning actives during peace or during crisiss
During both peace and crisis
262
List the six acivies the tJOPES encompasses
1. Mobilization
2. Deployment
3. Employment
4. Sustainment
5. Redeployment
6. Demobilization
263
All Join, conventional time phase force deployment databases are developed by and reside in ____
Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)
264
What does the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) system provide for the Air Staff, AF planners and AF CCs
The current policies, chairmen, joint chiefs of Staff apportioned forces and planning factors for conducting an supporting operations (It is the Bfs supporting document to the Joint Strategic Capbabiilieis Plan)
265
What does the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) establish
Requirements for developing mobilization and planning programs to support and sustain contingency operations, and it encompasses all basic functions necessary to match facilities, personnel and materials resources wth planned wartime activiy
266
How many volumes are the the WMP
Five (and associated databases)
267
What volume of the WMP includes functional supplants that provide a more detailed guidance for near term support forces to aid AF planners to develop war and contingency planes
Volume 1 (WMP-1) Basic plan an supporting supplements
268
What volume of the WMP is a single source document that provides the listing of all active plans with time phased for eploydesmnt data
Volume 2 (WMP-2) Plans listing and summary
269
What volume of the WmP has four parts
Volume 3 (WMP-3) Combat and support forces
270
What part of Volume 3 of the WMP lists all available combat forces by type of aacft unit identification unit availbity date and scenarios or theaters for which they are apportioned in accordance with CJCS force apportionment for cointgency planning
Part 1
271
What part of Volume 3 of the WMP is the official comprehensive data source for identifying all the AF unit type codes
Part 2
272
What part of Volume 3 of the WMP identifies the readiness spare package authorization fore airborne assets
Part 3
273
What volume to fit eWMP documents the deployment, position and employment activity of AF aviation units for each geographical location having ACFT passing through or operating from it in support of all regional operation plans and certain concept plans
Volume 4 Wartime aircraft activity
274
What volume of the WMP provides approved USAF planning factors by aircraft type and theater, serving as a basis for establishing worldwide support for programmed force levels
Volume 5 (WMP-5) basic planning factors and data (Sortie rates, durations, and all war consumables)
275
Name the AF war planning system that provides an AF feed to joint operation planning and execution system 9JOPES)
Deliberat and Crisis Action Planning and execution segment (DCAPES)
276
DCAPES enables ____ unique operation planning and execution processes, including associated joint policy and procedures
Air Force Unique
277
DCAPES provides standard data files, formats, application programs and management procedure. What are these primarily used for
Force planning, sourcing equipment and personnel requirements, transportation feasibility estimates, civil engineering and medial planning
278
Who supports AEF operations by identifying the most ready and amiable forces
AFPC or another designate force manager
279
The ____ is a document prepared by a parent MAJCOM that outlines each measured whites capabilities
Designated Operational Capabilities Statement (DOC Statement)
280
What doe she DOC statement contain
Units
1. Identificaiton
2. Mission tasking narrative
3. Mission specifics
4. Measurable resoiurces
281
For what purpose is the DOC statement used
To organize, train and equip the unit
282
The ____ is a short paragraph describing the missing capabilities that higher headquarter s planners expect of a specific unit type code
Mission Capabilities Statement
283
What does the Mission Capabilities Statement usually contain
1. the Type of base where commanders will deploy the unit
2. The units functional actiites
3. Other augmentationrequiremtn to conduct specific missions
284
The _____ is a single or series of plans connected to operations to be carried out simultaneously or in succession
Operation Plan
285
What are Operation Plans based Upon
Stated assumptions and are in the form of directive employed by higher authority to permit subordinate eCCs to prepare support plans and orders
286
Who prepares O Plans
CCDRs and CC of subordinate commands ( either as complete O Plans or Concept Plans)
287
_____ is the database used to coordinate the movement of forces into their operational locations
Time Phased force and deployment data (TPFDD)
288
What does the TPFDD include
1. Forces from all services and their movement regiments
2. Critical information in regards to time phasing of forces by C Dates to specific destinations
3. Peronnel and equipment details
4. Live data that changes frequently
5. A prioritized list of what UTC deploy in support of particular plan
6. A catalog of CCDR requirements
7. Route forces
8 Established transportation requirements
289
Why must TPFDD be prioritized
Due to all services competing for the movement assets
290
The ____ s responsible for identifying , validating and distributing deployment tasking and information
Installation Deployment Readiness Cell (IDRC)
291
What permanent staff is included in the IDRC
1. Installation deployment officer
2. Logistic Readiness Squadron/Logistics Plans and Itegration
3. Force Support Sq/Personnel Readiness Flight Personnel
292
The _____ is a designated military or federal civilian fully qualified logistics readiness officer, who acts on behalf of the host installation/wing commander
Installation Deployment Officer
293
What is the role of the Installation deployment offer
They direct, control, coordinate and executes the deployment of in place and aggregated coinitingecy forces and installation deployment excerisies
294
The _____ is an office in fat force support Squadron, responsible for providing installation wide personnel deployment planning and execution
Installation peronsnnel readiness (IPR)
295
For what doe sinstallatin personal readiness provide personnel support
1. Deployment availability information
2. Personnel accountability
3. Duty status reporting fr cointigency, exercise and deployments
296
Installation personaenl Readiness (IPR) responsible are covered in what five categories
1. Planning
2. Global command and control system
3. Accountability
4. Deployment processing
5. General
297
The _____ is appointed by the unit CC to manage all deployment readiness and training aspects for deployable personnel and equipment within their unit to ensure they are deployment ready
Unit deployment Mabnger
298
UDMs support redeployeable personnel in the redeployment support process. To whom do they serve as the priory lieasison
1. Unit training managers
2. Flight/SQ leadership
3. Wing training functions regarding deployment;oyment related issues
4. IDRS
299
In what step of the toking process does the installation deployment officer asccpet a tasking for the wing
Step 1
300
In wha step of the tasking process is installation personnel readiness notifeid
Step 2.
301
In what step of the tasking process do units process shortfalls, as required
Step 3.
302
In Step ____ of the tasking process, units assign names and provide them to IPR
Step 4 (The AMN are then notified)
303
When during the tasking process does IPR input names int eh system and creat orders
Step 5
304
When during the tasking process do units prepare eligible AMN
Step 6
305
In Step ____ of the tasking process, AMN acocomplish deployment requirement items
Step 7
306
When during the tasking process do AMN complete final out processing through IPR
Step 8 (Individually or MASS)
307
In what step of the tasking process do AMN depart
Step 9
308
What tools are available on AEF online
1. The CCs Toolkit
2. The personal deploent preparedness tool
3. The AEF UTC reporting tool
309
What AEF online tool is a nonsecure Intent protocol rougher net based system that proceeds information on deployment readiness, including individual medial readiness data at the unit level
The Commander s Toolkit
310
The _____ provides personalize information at the indiudal level for all uniforms AMN
Personal Deployment tPreparedness Tool
311
What does the Personal Deployment Preparedness tool provide
1. Duty Status
2. Security Clearance
3. AEF indicator
4. Medical requirements
5. Ttoal Force awareness traingin
6. Tier 2A (expeditionary skills proficiency pre deployment training requirements)
312
The _____ is the only assessment system that measures AEF readiness at th eUTC level
AEF UTC reprint gTool
313
AFI _____ Provides guidelines for assessing ad reporting UTC capabilities, repairing guidelines and details daily maintnece requirements
AFI 10-244 (Reporign Status of AEF)
314
What does the AEF reporting tool highlight
Missing sreousrces
315
For what is the AEF reporign tool the primary system
Sourcing UTCs for tasking and contingencies
316
Who ensures the AEF report Tool is accurate and up to date
Commanders
317
What does inaccurate AEF reporting tool reporting lead to
Tasking that exceed capability, shortfalls, reclaims, delays in filling CCDRs requirements and AMN receiving short notice taskigns
318
What are the two types of UTC assemsnts commanders us in AEF reporting Tool
Readiness and Tasking ASsessments
319
______ indicate whether a unit type code can perform its mission capability statement anywhere in the world at the time of the assessment
Readiness Stoplight Assessments
320
What are the three color opitnosfor readiness stoplight assessments
1. Green
2. Yellow
3. Red
321
To report accurately what must CCs and unit AEF dreprtign tool monitor know
1. Their UTC requirments
2. Status of their personnel and equiopmen
3. Actions required to bring all UTC to green
322
______ assists AMN to successfully operational as members of a Joint team
Joint Doctirne
323
Joint doctrine represents what works best. What commonalities does it promote
Proven values and a common perspective on planning, trainmen and conducting miitlary operations
324
Unity of ____ means all forces operate under a single CC with authority to direct them toward a common purpose
Unity of Command
325
Unity of ____ requires coordination and cooperations among all forces toward a common objective
Unity of effort
326
Unity of effort does not necessarily curie forces to be part of the same command structure T/F
True
327
what four types of authorities are excised through operations chain of command
1. Combatant Command (COCOM)
2. Opertional Control (OPCON)
3. Tactical Toncorl (TACON)
4. Support Command
328
Combatant Command is a Combatant Commanders authority. To whom ca it be delegated or transfer
IT cannot be delegate or transferred
329
A CCDR exercises COCM authority over focus that accomplish what four functions
1. Organize and employ commands andfores
2. Assign Tasks
3. Designate objectes
4. Direct all aspect of military operations, joint training and logistics
330
OPCON provides authority to organize and employ command and forces to accomplish assigned mission. Who can exercise OPCON or delegate it within the command
Commanders at or below the COCOM level
331
Wich coommand authroigty is inherent int COCOM
OPCON
332
TACTON may be delegated to ore excessed by commanders at what echelons
Commanders at or below the Level of COCM
333
TACTON is command over what forces
Assigned ro attached forces or commands, or military capabilities or forces available for tasking
334
TACON is limited to detailed direction and ctnorl of movements or maneuvers within the operation area T/F
True
335
When one organization should aid, protect, complement or sustain another force a superior commander establishes a _____ relatihsiop between subordinate commanders
Support
336
Commanders at what levels may cerise support authority
Commanders at or below the COCM level
337
Who established support command relatiohsiops
The common superior commander
338
Who sidisngtates support relaships between CCDRs
The SEDEF
339
What authority does the administrative chain of command exercise
ADCON
340
ADCON is drictopn oer authority over _____ or other organizations for adminsatring and support
Subordinate
341
List five Organizational, train and equip functions under ADCON authority
1. Organiztion of Serviceforces
2. Contorl of resources and equipment
3. Personnel managment
4. Unit logistiists
5. Individual and unit trainign
6. Readinenss
7. Mobilization
8. Demobiliaztion
9. Discipline
10. Other matters not included in operational missions of the subordinate or thoeth organizations
342
Does ADCON flow through service channels or through joint channels
Though Service Channels
343
Who assigns all National Guard and reserve forces to the COCM unless specifically exempted
the SECDEF
344
National guard and reserve forces are only available for operational mission under what two conditions
1. Mobilized for specific periods according to law
| 2. Ordered to active duty
345
Joint forces are established on a geographic area or functional basis. They can be established at what three levels
1. Unified Commands
2. Subordinate unified commands
3. Joint Task forces
346
Joint Forces are commanded by a _____
Joint force Commander (JFC)
347
The joint force commander cane one of what three types of commanders
1. Combatant Commander (CCDR)
2. Subunified commander
3. Joint Taks force commander
348
JFC exercise command authority or operational control over a Joint force T/F
True
349
Who established unified commands and specidifeid commands with broad continuing missions
The President
350
A ______ command has a single commander awn dis composed of forces from two ro more military departments
Unified Command
351
How many specified command currently are designated
None
352
Commanders of unified commands may establish subordinate unified commands with who'se authorization
The SEDEF through the CJCS
353
Who may constitute and deisngate a Joint force as. JTF
The SECDEF, CCDR, subordinate unified commander or existing JTF commander
354
The operational branch of Joint force organizations runs from the President or SECDEF through end Unified CCDR to what tow levels
Through the sub unified CC to the Joint Task Force Commander
355
Is the JTF established on a geographical basis or functional basis
Either a geographical or functional basis
356
JTF missions have a broad objective and require overall centralized logixticl control T/F
False ( They have a specific limited objective and no need for over all control)
357
What is the key to successful employment of /aF forces
Providing a single AF commander with he respionsbilty and authority to properly organize, train, equip and employ AF forces to accomplish assigned dfucntions and tasks
358
Operationlly, how should the COMAFFOR be prepared to pemploy AF forces
As directed byt eh Joint force commander
359
The requirements and respoinsbilties of the COMAFFOR and joint force air component commander are not critical to operational success T/F
False they are inextricably linked
360
For what is the title of COMAFFORreserved
It is reserved exclusively for the single AF commander of an AF service component assigned or attached to a Joint force commander at the unified combatant camommnad, sub unified combatant command or joint taks force level
361
Who may elect to permantley establish a subordinate unified combatant command or temporarily establish a subrodante joint taks force as part of his her organizational structure
The SecDef / Combatant commander
362
The commanders of subordinate joint forces are at a higher level than the combatant commanders T/F
False
363
The COMAFFOR should normally be designated at a _____ level above the operating forces and should not e _____ as commander of a subordinate operating unti
Command. and Dual hatted
364
Who commands an AEF
The commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)
365
The AEF is a scalable organization contain what three elements
1. The commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)
2. Command and Control mechanisms
3. Tailored and fully supported forces
366
Whoudl the AEF first draw from eh AEF currently on rotation or from in theater resources
Draw first from in theater resources, then as needed from the AEF currently on rotation
367
Wich elements should fully support /AEF forces, whether in theater or deploy from out of theater
Maintenance, logistical support, health services and administrate elements
368
How do forces form up within th AEF
As expeditionary wings, groups, squadrons, flights, determents or elements as necessary
369
A _____ may be regional or functional and aligns with he purpose of the unified command it supports
Air and Space Air Operations Center (/aoc)
370
Which of these does the COMAFFOR exercise, OPCON, TACON, ADCON or AOC
The COMAFFOR exercises all of them
371
The character for AEF operations center varies, depending on the nature of the forces. Which may not be an AEF operations center. A large, fixed Falconer AOC, th Tanker Airlift Control Center at Scott AFB, or the Air Force Space AOC at Vandember AFB
They may all be an AEF oeprations Center, depending on the operation
372
The COMAFFOR uses _____ staff for beds, beans and bullets sustainment and long range planning
Air Force Forces (AFFOR) Staff
373
How should the AOC and AFFOR stafff be tailored in size and fucninog
Accoding to the theater and operations
374
Some humanitarian operations can make do with a small control center that largely does scheddluign and reporting T/F
True
375
Who can establish functional component commands
CCDRs, commanders of subordinate =ubnified commands and Joint Force Commanders
376
List the four fucbntioanl commoner commanders in a JTF organization
1. Joint force Land Component Commander (JFLCC) Land
2. Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) Naval
3. Joint Force Air Component Cmmnadeer (JFACC) Air and Space
4. Joint Force Special Opoerations Component Commander (JFSOCC) special Ops
377
List the five possible commanders of the service components in a JTF organization
1. Commander, Army Forces (COMARFOR)
2. Commander, Navy Forces (COMNAVFOR)
3. Commander Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)
4. Commander, Marin Corps Forces (COMMARFOR)
5. Commander, coast guard forces (COMCGFOR)
378
How is a commander designated if air and spaces assets from more then one service are present within a joint force
The Joint Force Commander normally designates a Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC)
379
Which device component commander should be designate dat the Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC)
The on with the preponderance of air and pace capabilities and the ability too plan, taks and ctonrol joint air and pace operations
380
In a coalition or alliance operation, the Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC) may be designated the _____
The combined Force Air And Space Component Commander
381
One person will normally be dual hatted as Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) and Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC)/Combined Force Air and PScace Compeont Command Der (CFACC) T/F
True
382
Because the JFACC and the JKFC typically maintain the same joint operating area/theater wide perspective the JFACC should be dual hatted as the JFC T/F
False
383
A COMAFFOR excersices OPCON of AFFOR and exercises _____ of available Navy, army, marine and coalition air and space assets
TACON
384
Functional component commanders normally excessive _____ of forces the JFC assigned to them
TACON
385
______ Includes planning actives associated with joint military operations by CCDRS and their subordinate Joint force commanders in response to contingencies and crises
Joint Operation Planning
386
_____ is now the process supporting cointigncy planning within the DoD
Adaptive Planning
387
The adaptive planning and execution system ______ iterative dialogue and collaborative planning between the multiple echelons of command and _____ in a networked collaborative environment
Facilites - Operates
388
What promotes clear, strategic guidance and frequent interaction between senior leaders and planners
Early understand of and agreement on planning assumptions, considerations, risks and other key factors
389
What is conducted at every echelon of command and across the range of military opoeraitons
Planning
390
When is the planning process highly sturctued to support the though and fully coordinated development of deliberate plans
IN peactime
391
When is the planning precess shortened as needs to support eh tdybnnamic requirement son changing events
In crisis
392
When is the planning process adapted to accommodate greater decentralization of joint operation planning actives
In wartiem
393
How is joint operation planning donducted
1. Contingency planning
2. Campaign planning
3. Crisis actionplanning
394
How long does contingency planning usually take
Genrally takes 12 to 24 months and involves the entire joint planning and execution community
395
What do the SECDEF, CCDRS and or JFC determination during contingency planning
The level of detail required
396
What do campaign n plans drive
When to fight, what to accomplish and how operations are conducted and concluded
397
What do campaign plans embody
A Commanders strategic vision for the arrangement of related operations necessary to attain theater strattgeci objectives
398
Crisis action procedures are used in _____ sensitive situation to plan for military action
Time Senstitive
399
What are the fiviecrisis action planning orders
1. Warning Orders
2. Planning oerders
3. Alert Orders
4. Execute Orders
5. Prepare to deploy order, dployment oreder adn dredployment order
400
The CJCS _____ initiates course of action development and applies to the supported command and supporting commands
Warning Order
401
When is a warning order normally published
During planning
402
What does a warning order establish
Command relatiohiopss and a tentative C day and L hour
403
A warning order always aurhtises movement of Frxces T/F
False
404
If the crisis is progressing rapidly, what may be issued instead
A planning or alert order
405
When a warning or planning order is issued, the _____ prepares a time phased force deployment plan in DCAPES
Air Force component headquarters commander
406
the CJCS can send a planning order to the supported commander and joint planning and execution commuinty to direct execution planning before course of action is formally approved by whom
The SECDEF and president
407
What happens whebn a aplanning order is used in lieu of a warning order
It will include a course of action, provide combat forces and strategic lift for planning purposes and establish a tentative C Day and L Hour.
408
The planning order is not used to deploy forces or increase readiness unless approved by the Secretary of Defense T/F
True
409
The SecDef approves and transmits a ______ to the supported commander and joint planning and execution community announcing the elected course of actions
ALtert Order
410
What does an alert order describe
The course of action sufficiently to allow the supported commander and joitn planning and execution community to begin or continue the detailed planning necessary to deploy forces
411
What happnes when an alert order is used in lieu of a warning order
It will include a course of action provide combat forces and strgetic lift for planning purpose and establish a tentative C Day and L hour
412
In a time sentsitive crisis a _____ may be issued in leisure of an later order
Execute order
413
An execute order is issued by the authority and direction of the ______ and directs the deployment and or employemnt of rfofrces
SecDef
414
What happens if an execute order is precede by a detailed alert order or planning order
The execute order simply directs the deployment and employment of races
415
What is the goal of the crisis actin planning system in regards to the execute order
To reserve the execute order solely for initiating or terminating the employment of US military forces
416
Which crisis action planning order is used to change force structured during an oepration
The deployemntn order
417
What other orders are similar to the dpoyment order
The prepare to deploy order air redeployment oreder
418
Who issues prepare to deploy, deployment or redeployment orders
The SecDef
419
What are prepare to deploy, deployment or redepoyment orders used for
To prepare forces to deploy or to deploy forces without approving the execution of a plan or operation order
420
What does Joint forces command do prior to issuing prepare to deploy, deployment or redeployment oreders
It develops a draft deployment order with recommended sourcing solutiopns
421
With whom does the Joint staff coordinate the draft deployment orders
With agencies and office of the SecDef
422
Upon recepit of the CJCS orders, who transmits deployment orders to ll USAF components and commands
The HQ AF criss action Team
423
What will a draft deployment oreder elineate
All AF assets and taskings, as well as realionshiops and taskgin authority between the supported comp[onent headauaerts and supprintg AF command and agencies
424
The AF must be _____ while ensuring all capabilities are _____
Indterdependendt Interoperable
425
What founding intiitavie addresses joint dinterdependence and interopoerabiltiy
The Goldwater Nichols DoD reorganization Act of 1986
426
What operations experienced one of the first successful combinations of Joint and coalition integrations
Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm
427
What was exploited during various phases of Operations Desert Shield and Dest Storm
The unique cpabilites of each US military service and our allies
428
The combined force provided a _____ combat capability during operations desert shield and desert storm
Synergisitc
429
Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm reaffirmed the importance of joint and combined trinagin, the value of dforwqward presence and the validity of joint force sequencing for power projection T/F se
True
430
After the gulf war, there was a near unanimous agreement that ____ based systems greatly increased the overall effectiveness of coalition forces
Space based
431
What increase and or balances the successful outcome of a military objective
The strengths, resources and trainign of one service or nation
432
The AF unity of ____ poriveds unique cpaiblites that bridge a comprehensive joint and coalition approach
Unity of effort
433
What does the aF use to select the right resources and capaiblites from their joint and coalition partners
Interdependence
434
Shifting balance from one service or nation to the next to support the best options describes what AF tenet
Centralized ctonnrl and decentralized execution
435
What AF tent is never prosecuted alon
Airpower
436
Operations ____ proved to the one of the greatest uses of joint and coalition capability in recent thistory
Operation Odyssey Dawn
437
What unified COCOM led the Joint task force Odyssey Dwawn
US African Command (General Carter Ham)
438
Admiral Sam Locklear executed tactical command for operation odyssey dawn from what location
The USS Mount Whitney in the Mediterranean Sea
439
Name the supproitng commanders included in Joint Task Force Odyssey Danwwn
1. Joint force Maritime Component Commander (Vice Admiral Harry B Harris
2. Joint force Air compononet Commander ( Major General Margaret Woodward)
440
What Libyan regime began using miltiary force against its citizens in an effort to repress their purising
The Muammar Al Qadhafi Regime
441
What Arabe League met in Cairo to ask the UN security Council to impose a _____ over Libyaa to protect cilivialns from air attack
No Fly Zone
442
The UN Security Council passed Resolution _____ Authorize all necessary measures to protect silvans in Liby
Resolution 1973
443
Who took measures to envforce UN security Council Resolution 1973
The international Coalition
444
Joint and coaltion capbilties during operations Odyssey Dawn illustrated effective ____ and _____
Interdependence. I interoperability
445
Miltary contigencies and operations can't opitiize objectives without what
/space or cyberspace
446
What does airpower offer while demonstrating its success to meet homeland and International security challenges
1. Speed
2. Agility
3. Flexibility
4. Rankge
5. Responsiveness to virutally every need
447
What guaranetes the AF the capabilty to perat in any contest cyber domain
Cyber operations
448
In interdepend domains, what unique capaiblites does the AF possess
1. Ensuring global mobility
2. Long range strike
3. Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance
449
What domains cominbed with joint and coalitonal capaiblites bprove to be the most valuable means of supproting the National Security Strategy of the US and its Allies
Air, space and cyberspace
