Chromosome Pathologies Flashcards

1
Q

what is cytogenetics

A

study of chromosomes, anything larger than a single gene

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2
Q

what do most cytogenic changes result due to

A

copy number variations - gain or loss of genetic material - usually pathogenic range varies from 1kb o severe mb
may be familial or de novo

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3
Q

what 4 causes of cryogenic abnormalities produce abnormal phenotype e

A

dosage effect ( deletion or duplication - lose more disruptive than gain)

disruption of a gene (inappropriate activation or inactivation)

position effect - gene in new chromosomal environment

unmasking of a recessive disorder

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4
Q

what are the types of CNV’s (copy number variations)

A

aneuploidy - gain (trisomy) or los (monosomy) of one chromosome

polyploidy - gain whole sets ie triploidy or tetraploidy)

mosacisim - diploidy ( normal) and (aneuploidy) - different genetic material in the same individual

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5
Q

what are the there origins of numeric abnormalities

A

gametogenesis (meiosis) - failure of homologous chromosome (M1 or 2) to separate properly during cell division

fertilisation

early cleavage ( post-zygotic MITOTIC non-disjunction)

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6
Q

what is autosomal aneuploidy and give 3 examples

A

error at gametogenesis
trisomy 21 - downs
trisomy 18 - edwards
trisomy 13 - patau

80-90% caused by non-disjunction at meiosis 1

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7
Q

how does age affect risk of autosomal aneuploidy

A

increase in maternal age increases risk but paternal age has no significant risk

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8
Q

what is sex chromosome aneuploidy

A
phenotype less severe than autosomal, sexual orientation not affected 
turners syndrome (45,X), kleinfelters (47 XXY)
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9
Q

what is polyploidy, origin and examples

A

error at fertilisation
mostly triploidy - 69 XXY, 69 XYY, 69 XXX
origin - digyny (double female) , diplospermy (2N in sperm) , dispermy (two sperm)
double paternal = large cystic placenta, some growth delay
double maternal = tiny placenta, significant growth delay, head saving macrocephaly

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10
Q

what is moisacisim

A

error at early cleavage - mitotic non-disjunction

variable phenotype - produces on-identical twin
may generate uniparental disomy (UPD)

all females are mosaic - 2X chromosomes where one randomly inactivates

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11
Q

how often are structural defects in DNA such as duplication or deletion
what test is used to detect this

A

1/2000
duplication smaug be direct or inverted
detected using microarray CGH

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12
Q

describe the process of microarray CGH

A

hybridise sample and control DNA to microarray “chip”

genomic imbalances (CNV’s) are produced at high resolution

red bars show loss and green bars show gain

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13
Q

how are haploinsufficinecy sores determined

A

for deleted regions, low scores indicate greater likelihood of pathogenicity - only relevant in dominant alleles

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14
Q

who are microarray CGH testing used for, advantages and disadvantages

A

children of moderate and severe learning disability and pregnancies with abnormal ultrasound

ad - early diagnosis, higher resolution, greater accuracy

dis - gives info on dosage change only, no info on mutation, needs quality DNA

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15
Q

what technique is used for aneuploidy detection

A

quantitative fluorescent PCR (QF-PCR)

PCR of Short tandem repeats (STR) using fluorescent primers

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16
Q

describe the process of QF-PCR

A

DNA extraction from prenatal or blood sample
PCR amp - primers forms chromosomes with 13,18,21, X and Y
aneuploidy is expressed as a result when 2 markers with abnormal dosage = 2:1 ratio of peak height indicates trisomy

17
Q

what is NIPT

A

non-invasive prenatal testing

maternal blood samples - extract free fetal DNA - if risk of aneuploidy do invasive test then QF-PCR

18
Q

what is cancer and gives examples of how you test for it

A

disease specific acquired chromosomal changes - mostly translocations
eg leukeamia - bone marrow
solid tumour - tumour tissue

19
Q

what are the two types of chromosomal inversions

A

paracentric - inversion on one arm ( breakpoints on same arm)

pericentric - inversion across both arms (breakpoints on different arms)

20
Q

what are the two types of translocations

A

reciprocal - break and exchange

robertsonian - whole arm fusion

21
Q

describe a reciprocal translocation

A

break and exchange of parts - 1/500, 5-10% phenotype risk

reproductive risk ie balanced translocation so carrier but not in phenotype

22
Q

describe a robertson ian translocation

A
whole arm fusion 
1/1000
occurs across acrocentric chromosomes 
no phenotype risk 
reproductive risk - carriers
23
Q

how do we name translocations

A

eg between 4 and 8

if balanced - don’t need to show anything else

der(4) = one chromosome 4 is a derivative chromosome - it has a change in its structure (in this example piece missing and replaced with something from 8

ie der(4)t(4;8) = unbalanced translocation of chromosomes 4 and 8 where one chromosome 4 is derivative and contains some missing of 4 replaced with some of 8