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Combank Q facts > Combank 7 > Flashcards

Combank 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Name the skin disease – consists of smooth, shiny dermal papules or plaques arranged in a circle or ring; papules/plaques are usually asymptomatic but can be pruritic or burning

A

Granuloma annulare

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2
Q

What is the cause of granuloma annulare?

A

clustering of T cells below the skin which eventually rise close enough to the skin’s surface to be observed as small papules

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3
Q

Granuloma annulare is seen in healthy people but it is also associated with which diseases?

A

Diabetes, thyroid disease, lupus, autoimmune diseases

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4
Q

What is the skin condition most commonly associated with celiac disease?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

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5
Q

How does dermatitis herpetiformis present?

A

intensely pruritic water filled blisters in a cluster on the buttocks, back of neck, scalp, elbows, knees, back, hairline, groin or face

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6
Q

What is a common cutaneous manifestation of ulcerative colitis?

A

Pyoderma gangrenosum

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7
Q

Which biliary tract disease is associated with ulcerative colitis in 70% of cases?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

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8
Q

What is pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

chronic slow healing or non-healing ulcer most commonly seen in the lower legs

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9
Q

What is primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

idiopathic d/o characterized by inflammation, fibrosis and strictures of bile ducts and usually presents in young men with ulcerative colitis

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10
Q

What are the differences between primary sclerosing cholangitis and primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

PSC characteristically involves intra- and extra hepatic ducts, while primary biliary cirrhosis is a T-lymphocyte mediated attack on small intralobular bile ducts

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11
Q

What condition is commonly referred to as “pruritis w/o jaundice” and is associated with anti-mitochondrial antibodies?

A

primary sclerosing cirrhosis

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12
Q

The carina bifurcation is located behind what landmark structure and is at what level of vertebrae?

A

angle of Louis; 4th thoracic vertebrae

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13
Q

The level of vertebrae is the carotid bifurcation located?

A

4th cervical vertebrae

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14
Q

Caseous necrosis in the hilar lymph node in TB is known as?

A

a Ghon complex

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15
Q

Primary TB is usually found in what part of the lung?

A

lower lobe of the lung

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16
Q

Reactivated secondary TB is found in what part of the lung?

A

apex of the lung

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17
Q

Borderline personality d/o is more common in which gender?

A

Females

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18
Q

Name the personality d/o – displays impulsivity, suicidal tendencies, and self injurious behaviors; commonly have a hx of unstable relationships and are prone to excessive anger; commonly use splitting as a defense mechanism

A

Borderline personality d/o

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19
Q

Name the personality d/o – displays attention seeking behavior with extreme emotionality, have excessive concerns about their appearance and are commonly sexually promiscuous

A

Histrionic personality d/o

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20
Q

What stage of sleep are the deepest part of sleep where sleep walking, night terrors, and bedwetting occurs?

A

Stages 3-4

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21
Q

What is the 1st line therapy for HTN in pregnancy?

A

Hydralazine

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22
Q

Hydralazine is one of that drugs that is known to cause what, which presents as myalgias, arthralgias, lymphadenopathy, purpura, erythema nodosum, fever and positive anti-histone antibodies

A

drug-induced lupus

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23
Q

What is nifedipine and what is it used to treat?

A

calcium channel blocker; used to treat HTN

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24
Q

Are ACE inhibitors contraindicated in women?

A

YES

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25
Q

What drugs are known to cause drug-induced lupus?

A

Hydralazine, Isoniazid, Procainamide, Phenytoin

26
Q

Raising the cut-off point of a test causes?

A

increase in specificity; decrease in sensitivity

27
Q

What type of drug is Theophylline and what is it used to treat?

A

adenosine receptor antagonist; used to treat COPD and asthma patients

28
Q

How does cromolyn sodium work?

A

inhibits release of histimine and slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis from mast cells by stabilizing the cell membrane through chloride channel interference

29
Q

How does ipratroprium bromide work and what is it used to treat?

A

it is an antagonist of Ach at muscarinic receptors; used to treat COPD exacerbation

30
Q

What are common SEs of ipratropium bromide?

A

cough and metallic taste

31
Q

What type of drug is Montelukast and what is it used to treat?

A

a leukotriene antagonist; used to treat aspirin induced asthma

32
Q

What can be added to cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

Mesna

33
Q

What forms Hesselbach’s triangle?

A

inguinal ligament inferiorly, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, lateral border of the rectus abdominus muscles medially

34
Q

Name the hernia – lies lateral to the inferior epigastric artery; follows path of the descent of the testes through an incompletely closed patent processus vaginalis

A

indirect inguinal hernia

35
Q

What is a hiatal hernia?

A

the gastroesophageal junction of the stomach is displaced above the level of the diaphragmatic hiatus

36
Q

Name the hernia – protrudes directly through the abdominal wall, specifically through Hesselbach triangle, lying medial to the inferior epigastric vessels; does not enter the internal inguinal ring

A

Direct inguinal hernia

37
Q

What two cranial nerves is tested by the pupillary light reflex?

A

cranial nerves II and III

38
Q

What cranial nerve mediates the afferent limb of the pupillary light reflex?

A

cranial nerve II

39
Q

What cranial nerve innervates orbicularis oris muscle?

A

Cranial nerve VII

40
Q

What is the efferent limb of the pupillary light reflex?

A

Cranial nerve III

41
Q

What cranial nerves are tested by the corneal reflex?

A

cranial nerves V and VII

42
Q

What cranial nerves are tested by the gag reflex?

A

Cranial nerves IX and X

43
Q

What type of drug is acetazolamide and where does it work?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor; acts at proximal convoluted tubule

44
Q

What type of drug is chlorthalidone and where does it work?

A

thiazide diuretic; acts at the DCT and inhibits Na/Cl cotransporter

45
Q

What part of the tubule does spironolactone act on?

A

distal tubules

46
Q

What is the MOA of sildenafil (Viagra)?

A

inhibits phosphodiesterase-5 causing an increase in cGMP, which relaxes smooth muscle of the vascularcorpora cavernosa, increases bloodflow and maintains erection

47
Q

adult polycystic kidney disease is a autosomal dominant disease known to be associated with?

A

berry aneurysms

48
Q

Rupture of a berry aneurysm causes?

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

49
Q

Subdural hematomas are caused by rupture of the?

A

bridging veins

50
Q

Epidural hematomas usually result from?

A

trauma to middle meningeal artery

51
Q

What is Potter’s syndrome?

A

congenital malformation of the ureteric bud resulting in bilateral renal agenesis in a newborn

52
Q

What is a common cause of cough, fever and respiratory distress in infants during the winter months?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

53
Q

What causes vulvovaginitis in women and diaper rash in babies?

A

Candida albicans

54
Q

Clostridium tetani exotoxin, called tetanospasmin, causes?

A

decreaseed release of inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and lysine

55
Q

What is Fomepizole an antidote for?

A

ethylene glycol toxicity

56
Q

What frequently originates in a preexisting actinic keratosis?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

57
Q

What is Choledocholithiasis?

A

when a gallstone becomes impacted within the common bile duct

58
Q

Churg Strauss disease is characterized by …

A

serum eosinhophilia, increased ESR, mononeuropathy and positive p-ANCA

59
Q

Function of the broad ligament

A

connects uterus, Fallopian tubes, and ovaries to pelvic sidewall; also encompasses round ligaments bilaterally

60
Q

What is the most common structure affected in an ovarian torsion>

A

suspensory ligament of the ovary (aka infundibulopelvic ligaments)

Combank Q facts (11 decks)

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