Combank 7 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Combank 7 Deck (60):
1

Name the skin disease -- consists of smooth, shiny dermal papules or plaques arranged in a circle or ring; papules/plaques are usually asymptomatic but can be pruritic or burning

Granuloma annulare

2

What is the cause of granuloma annulare?

clustering of T cells below the skin which eventually rise close enough to the skin's surface to be observed as small papules

3

Granuloma annulare is seen in healthy people but it is also associated with which diseases?

Diabetes, thyroid disease, lupus, autoimmune diseases

4

What is the skin condition most commonly associated with celiac disease?

Dermatitis herpetiformis

5

How does dermatitis herpetiformis present?

intensely pruritic water filled blisters in a cluster on the buttocks, back of neck, scalp, elbows, knees, back, hairline, groin or face

6

What is a common cutaneous manifestation of ulcerative colitis?

Pyoderma gangrenosum

7

Which biliary tract disease is associated with ulcerative colitis in 70% of cases?

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

8

What is pyoderma gangrenosum?

chronic slow healing or non-healing ulcer most commonly seen in the lower legs

9

What is primary sclerosing cholangitis?

idiopathic d/o characterized by inflammation, fibrosis and strictures of bile ducts and usually presents in young men with ulcerative colitis

10

What are the differences between primary sclerosing cholangitis and primary biliary cirrhosis?

PSC characteristically involves intra- and extra hepatic ducts, while primary biliary cirrhosis is a T-lymphocyte mediated attack on small intralobular bile ducts

11

What condition is commonly referred to as "pruritis w/o jaundice" and is associated with anti-mitochondrial antibodies?

primary sclerosing cirrhosis

12

The carina bifurcation is located behind what landmark structure and is at what level of vertebrae?

angle of Louis; 4th thoracic vertebrae

13

The level of vertebrae is the carotid bifurcation located?

4th cervical vertebrae

14

Caseous necrosis in the hilar lymph node in TB is known as?

a Ghon complex

15

Primary TB is usually found in what part of the lung?

lower lobe of the lung

16

Reactivated secondary TB is found in what part of the lung?

apex of the lung

17

Borderline personality d/o is more common in which gender?

Females

18

Name the personality d/o -- displays impulsivity, suicidal tendencies, and self injurious behaviors; commonly have a hx of unstable relationships and are prone to excessive anger; commonly use splitting as a defense mechanism

Borderline personality d/o

19

Name the personality d/o -- displays attention seeking behavior with extreme emotionality, have excessive concerns about their appearance and are commonly sexually promiscuous

Histrionic personality d/o

20

What stage of sleep are the deepest part of sleep where sleep walking, night terrors, and bedwetting occurs?

Stages 3-4

21

What is the 1st line therapy for HTN in pregnancy?

Hydralazine

22

Hydralazine is one of that drugs that is known to cause what, which presents as myalgias, arthralgias, lymphadenopathy, purpura, erythema nodosum, fever and positive anti-histone antibodies

drug-induced lupus

23

What is nifedipine and what is it used to treat?

calcium channel blocker; used to treat HTN

24

Are ACE inhibitors contraindicated in women?

YES

25

What drugs are known to cause drug-induced lupus?

Hydralazine, Isoniazid, Procainamide, Phenytoin

26

Raising the cut-off point of a test causes?

increase in specificity; decrease in sensitivity

27

What type of drug is Theophylline and what is it used to treat?

adenosine receptor antagonist; used to treat COPD and asthma patients

28

How does cromolyn sodium work?

inhibits release of histimine and slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis from mast cells by stabilizing the cell membrane through chloride channel interference

29

How does ipratroprium bromide work and what is it used to treat?

it is an antagonist of Ach at muscarinic receptors; used to treat COPD exacerbation

30

What are common SEs of ipratropium bromide?

cough and metallic taste

31

What type of drug is Montelukast and what is it used to treat?

a leukotriene antagonist; used to treat aspirin induced asthma

32

What can be added to cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis?

Mesna

33

What forms Hesselbach's triangle?

inguinal ligament inferiorly, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, lateral border of the rectus abdominus muscles medially

34

Name the hernia -- lies lateral to the inferior epigastric artery; follows path of the descent of the testes through an incompletely closed patent processus vaginalis

indirect inguinal hernia

35

What is a hiatal hernia?

the gastroesophageal junction of the stomach is displaced above the level of the diaphragmatic hiatus

36

Name the hernia -- protrudes directly through the abdominal wall, specifically through Hesselbach triangle, lying medial to the inferior epigastric vessels; does not enter the internal inguinal ring

Direct inguinal hernia

37

What two cranial nerves is tested by the pupillary light reflex?

cranial nerves II and III

38

What cranial nerve mediates the afferent limb of the pupillary light reflex?

cranial nerve II

39

What cranial nerve innervates orbicularis oris muscle?

Cranial nerve VII

40

What is the efferent limb of the pupillary light reflex?

Cranial nerve III

41

What cranial nerves are tested by the corneal reflex?

cranial nerves V and VII

42

What cranial nerves are tested by the gag reflex?

Cranial nerves IX and X

43

What type of drug is acetazolamide and where does it work?

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor; acts at proximal convoluted tubule

44

What type of drug is chlorthalidone and where does it work?

thiazide diuretic; acts at the DCT and inhibits Na/Cl cotransporter

45

What part of the tubule does spironolactone act on?

distal tubules

46

What is the MOA of sildenafil (Viagra)?

inhibits phosphodiesterase-5 causing an increase in cGMP, which relaxes smooth muscle of the vascularcorpora cavernosa, increases bloodflow and maintains erection

47

adult polycystic kidney disease is a autosomal dominant disease known to be associated with?

berry aneurysms

48

Rupture of a berry aneurysm causes?

subarachnoid hemorrhage

49

Subdural hematomas are caused by rupture of the?

bridging veins

50

Epidural hematomas usually result from?

trauma to middle meningeal artery

51

What is Potter's syndrome?

congenital malformation of the ureteric bud resulting in bilateral renal agenesis in a newborn

52

What is a common cause of cough, fever and respiratory distress in infants during the winter months?

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

53

What causes vulvovaginitis in women and diaper rash in babies?

Candida albicans

54

Clostridium tetani exotoxin, called tetanospasmin, causes?

decreaseed release of inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and lysine

55

What is Fomepizole an antidote for?

ethylene glycol toxicity

56

What frequently originates in a preexisting actinic keratosis?

Squamous cell carcinoma

57

What is Choledocholithiasis?

when a gallstone becomes impacted within the common bile duct

58

Churg Strauss disease is characterized by ...

serum eosinhophilia, increased ESR, mononeuropathy and positive p-ANCA

59

Function of the broad ligament

connects uterus, Fallopian tubes, and ovaries to pelvic sidewall; also encompasses round ligaments bilaterally

60

What is the most common structure affected in an ovarian torsion>

suspensory ligament of the ovary (aka infundibulopelvic ligaments)