Combank 5 Flashcards

(95 cards)

1
Q

T scores greater than -1 are considered?

A

Normal

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2
Q

T scores between -1 and -2.5 are considered?

A

Osteopenic

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3
Q

T scores less than -2.5 are considered?

A

Osteoporotic

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4
Q

What is the function of Calcium acetate and when is it used?

A

It is a phosphorus binder that causes the phosphorus consumed to be excreted in the stool; used to manage hyperphosphatemia in end stage renal failure

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5
Q

In what class of drugs is raloxifene and what does it do? What risk does it carry?

A

Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs); decrease osteoclast function of estrogen; carries increased risk for DVT

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6
Q

What is Dupuytren’s contracture?

A

A painless thickening and contracture of tissue beneath the skin on the palm of the hand and fingers, one or both hands can be affected. Typically, a painless nodule develops in the connective tissue below the skin on the palm side of the hand. Over time, it thickens into a cord-like band and leads to an inability to extend or straighten the fingers

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7
Q

Classical Dupuytren’s contracture most commonly involve which digits?

A

Fourth and fifth

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8
Q

What are the seronegative spondyloarthropathies which present as joint pain in the absence of rheumatoid factor and ANA?

A

ankylosing spondylitis, Reiter’s syndrome and psoriatic arthritis

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9
Q

Name the condition - a complex immune mediated d/o that presents as inflammatory plaques on the skin characterized by silver scaling plaques

A

Psoriasis

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10
Q

What is adenomyosis and how do patients usually present?

A

presence of endometrium within the myometrium; usually present with unusually painful and hemorrhagic menses

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11
Q

What is premature ovarian failure?

A

when a woman shows signs of menopause before 40 years of age

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12
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

an abnormal invasion of the chorionic villi into the myometrium of the uterus

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13
Q

The development of an early onset of breast and ovarian cancer is associated with the deletion of what gene?

A

tumor suppressor gene BRCA1

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14
Q

What type of inheritance pattern does BRCA1 have?

A

autosomal dominant

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15
Q

This is a tumor suppressor gene that is associated with the development of retinoblastomas and osteosarcomas

A

Retinoblastoma

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16
Q

Patients with a genetic mutation of p53 can develop what syndrome?

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome; leads to the development of various malignancies at an early age, including breast cancer, sarcomas, brain tumors, and adrenocortical carcinomas

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17
Q

What is the p53 tumor suppressor gene located and what is its function?

A

located on chromosome 17; normal function of p53 is regulation of the cell cycle at the G1/S checkpoint; p53 delays cell cycle progression and permits opportunity for DNA repair or initiation of apoptosis

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18
Q

What is HER2?

A

An oncogene that has intracellular tyrosine kinase activity

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19
Q

Breast cancer with positive HER2 expression is treated with?

A

Trastuzumab

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20
Q

Treatment with which antibiotic is notorious for causing pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Clindamycin

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21
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis can treated with?

A

Either metronidazole or oral vancomycin

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22
Q

In order to treat Clostridium difficile should vancomycin be given orally or IV?

A

orally

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23
Q

How does GERD occur?

A

tone of the lower esophageal sphincter decreases and gastric material is allowed to reflux back into the esophagus

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24
Q

Why are beta-adrenergic agonists unlikely to contribute to GERD?

A

b/c they have been demonstrated to maintain the constriction of the lower esophageal sphincter

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25
What substances are capable of decreasing the constrictive tone of the lower esophageal sphincter and consequently increasing the risk for GERD?
fats, alcohol, caffeine, nicotine, nitrates, beta-adrenergic blockers, and calcium channel blockers
26
Duchene muscular dystrophy has what type of inheritance?
x-linked recessive
27
What is Gower's maneuver?
use of arms to help themselves climb up
28
How is Becker muscular dystrophy different from Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
symptoms present later in life (5-15 years)
29
What is Gaucher disease?
lysosomal storage disease characterized by hematologic abnormalities, organomegaly and skeletal involvement
30
What enzyme is elevated in Duchene Muscular Dystrophy?
Creatine phosphokinase
31
In what class of drugs are Tamoxifen and raloxifene?
selective estrogen receptor modulators
32
What is the difference between Tamoxifen and raloxifene?
Tamoxifen increases the risk of endometrial cancer because it is a partial agonist on the endometrium; raloxifene does not increase the risk of endometrial cancer because it is an endometrial antagonist
33
Elevated alkaline phosphatase is a sign of ?
increased bone turnover
34
Why do thiazide diuretics induce hyperuricemia?
they increase urate reabsorption
35
In what drug class does amlopidine belong and what is it used to treat?
long-acting dihydropyridine-type (DHP) calcium channel blocker; used to treat HTN by relaxing arterial smooth muscle
36
How does amlodipine affect uric acid levels?
decreases serum uric acid by blocking the reabsorption of urate
37
Rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent cystals and a WBC count of 10,000 cells/uL are found in?
pseudogout
38
Straw-colored, normally viscous aspirate with moderal WBCs is characteristic of?
Osteoarthritis
39
Turbid, runny fluid with high WBCs describes?
joint aspirate of RA
40
Allopurinol should not be used to treat what condition?
acute gout -- may exacerbate the condition
41
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) causes what type of diarrhea?
copious watery, non-bloody diarrhea; can cause dehydration; travelers
42
Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli causes what type of diarrhea?
watery, non-bloody diarrhea in infants and children, not associated with fevers
43
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli causes what type of diarrhea?
causes blood diarrhea, most commonly in children, commonly acquired by eating ground beef or unpasteurized milk (also from petting zoos)
44
In EHEC the fact that the bacteria does not invade the gastric wall means?
neither fever or white blood cells in a stool sample are present with EHEC
45
This syndrome is thought of as Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) with malignant CNS tumors (predominantly medulloblastomas and astrocytomas)
Turcot's syndrome
46
What is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?
AD syndrome of benign hamartomatous polyps in the GI tract; these hamartomas are commonly found in the small and large intestine
47
What is a unique feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?
hyperpigmented buccal mucosa
48
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome holds a 50% increased risk of what cancers?
colorectal, breast, and gynecological cancers
49
Hereditary nonpolyposis coli colon cancer (HNPCC) is also known as?
Lynch syndrome
50
What is HNPCC (Lynch Syndrome)?
AD mutation of DNA mismatch repair genes that leads to colorectal cancer in approximately 80% of the patients with the genetic mutation
51
How does Lynch Syndrome differ from FAP?
Lynch syndrome does not correlate with the phenotype of multiple colorectal polyps and can lead to malignancy even in the absence of adenomatosis of the colon and/or rectum
52
What is Gardner Syndrome?
Familial adenomatous polyposis with the addition of extracolonic manifestations including desmoids, osteomas, and epidermoid cysts
53
What is the deficient enzyme in Fructose intolerance?
Adolase B
54
What is the deficient enzyme in Essential Fructosuria?
Fructokinase
55
What is deficient in Galactosemia?
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
56
Proglottids are associated with?
tapeworms such as Taenia solium
57
Pin-shaped helminths describes?
Enterobius vermicularis
58
Motile uni-nuclear trophozoites describes mobile protozoa known as?
Trichomonas vaginalis
59
Central karyosome, "Ring and Dot" describes the cyst of?
Entamoeba histolytica
60
What is the DOC for giardiasis?
Metronidazole
61
DOC for tapeworms such as Taenia solium
Praziquantel
62
DOC for Enterobius vermicularis
Albendazole
63
A biopsy of the jejunum in a patient with celiac disease would show what characteristic?
blunted villi
64
What should be avoided in patients on metronidazole to prevent a disulfiram like reaction?
Alcohol
65
GET GAP on the Metro
Metronidazole is used to treat Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas, Gardnerella, Anaerobes (Clostridium, Bacteroides, Actinomyces) and H. pylori
66
DOC for metronidazole resistant giardiasis
Quinacrine
67
What is the tumor marker for colorectal cancer?
CEA
68
Serial S-100 is used to track what condition?
melanoma
69
What is the tumor marker for ovarian carcinoma?
CA-125
70
What is a Krukenberg tumor?
bilateral ovarian metastasis from GI tract adenocarcinoma
71
What is characteristic of a Krukenberg tumor histologically?
mucin-producing signet ring cells
72
Where is osteosarcoma usually found, what appearance does it have and what is the prognosis?
found in the metaphysis of long bones; characteristic sunburst appearance; poor prognosis
73
What is the predisposing factor for development of osteosarcoma?
Familial retinoblastoma
74
The tumor suppressor gene Rb normally inhibits what?
G1 to S progression in the cell cycle; if mutation of Rb exists then unrestrained cell growth occurs
75
How do PPI's (end in -prazole) work?
by blocking the production of acid via inhibition of parietal cell H+/K+ ATPases
76
What is struma ovarii?
a rare ovarian tumor consisting of ectopic thyroid tissue; causes elevation of thyroid hormones in up to 15% of patients
77
These cysts form as a result of overstimulation from high hCG levels or hypersensitivity to hCG
Theca lutein cysts also called lutein cysts
78
What is Meigs' syndrome?
Triad of ovarian fibroma with ascites and pleural effusion
79
An adnexal mass consisting of hypertrophied myometrial tissue represents a?
leiomyoma -- also known as a fibroid
80
What ligament is commonly injured during athletics from twisting or hyperextension?
ACL
81
Where does the ACL originate?
posterior aspect of the lateral femoral condyle and inserts on the anteromedial aspect of the tibial plateau
82
Name the bug: a spore forming, anaerobic Gram-positive rod that causes antibiotic-associated diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis
Clostridium difficile
83
This genus of bacteria are aerobic, gram positive rods that also form spores
Bacillus
84
What is Chadwick's sign and what does it indicate?
bluish hue in the vaginal mucosa; usually the first physical sign of pregnancy in the first few weeks
85
T/F Warfarin is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy
T; under pregnancy category X
86
What are tophi?
chalky white uric acid deposits under the skin found in patients with gout
87
Cloudy purulent synovial fluid indicates?
septic arthritis
88
How does joint aspiration differ for gout and pseudogout?
Negative birefringence for gout and positive birefringence for pseudogout
89
What is the DOC for acute gout attacks?
Indomethacin
90
What is used to treat chronic gout and to prevent future attacks by decreasing uric acid production?
Allopurinol
91
How does allopurinol work?
acts on purine catabolism; inhibits the enzyme xanthine oxidase which converts hypoxanthine to xanthine to uric acid
92
Schistosoma, Clonorchis sinensis and Paragonimus westermani are all?
trematodes (flukes)
93
Taenia solium, Diphylllobothrium latum and Echinococcus granulosus are all?
cestodes (tapeworms); hermaphrodites
94
Enterobius vermicularis is a?
pinworm (nematode); they are dioecious (separate male and female organisms)
95
How do bisphosphonates treat osteoporosis?
inhibit osteoclastic bone resorption by binding to hydroxyapatite and interfering with osteoclastic adherence