Combank 5 Flashcards Preview

Combank Q facts > Combank 5 > Flashcards

Flashcards in Combank 5 Deck (95):
1

T scores greater than -1 are considered?

Normal

2

T scores between -1 and -2.5 are considered?

Osteopenic

3

T scores less than -2.5 are considered?

Osteoporotic

4

What is the function of Calcium acetate and when is it used?

It is a phosphorus binder that causes the phosphorus consumed to be excreted in the stool; used to manage hyperphosphatemia in end stage renal failure

5

In what class of drugs is raloxifene and what does it do? What risk does it carry?

Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs); decrease osteoclast function of estrogen; carries increased risk for DVT

6

What is Dupuytren's contracture?

A painless thickening and contracture of tissue beneath the skin on the palm of the hand and fingers, one or both hands can be affected. Typically, a painless nodule develops in the connective tissue below the skin on the palm side of the hand. Over time, it thickens into a cord-like band and leads to an inability to extend or straighten the fingers

7

Classical Dupuytren's contracture most commonly involve which digits?

Fourth and fifth

8

What are the seronegative spondyloarthropathies which present as joint pain in the absence of rheumatoid factor and ANA?

ankylosing spondylitis, Reiter's syndrome and psoriatic arthritis

9

Name the condition - a complex immune mediated d/o that presents as inflammatory plaques on the skin characterized by silver scaling plaques

Psoriasis

10

What is adenomyosis and how do patients usually present?

presence of endometrium within the myometrium; usually present with unusually painful and hemorrhagic menses

11

What is premature ovarian failure?

when a woman shows signs of menopause before 40 years of age

12

What is placenta accreta?

an abnormal invasion of the chorionic villi into the myometrium of the uterus

13

The development of an early onset of breast and ovarian cancer is associated with the deletion of what gene?

tumor suppressor gene BRCA1

14

What type of inheritance pattern does BRCA1 have?

autosomal dominant

15

This is a tumor suppressor gene that is associated with the development of retinoblastomas and osteosarcomas

Retinoblastoma

16

Patients with a genetic mutation of p53 can develop what syndrome?

Li-Fraumeni syndrome; leads to the development of various malignancies at an early age, including breast cancer, sarcomas, brain tumors, and adrenocortical carcinomas

17

What is the p53 tumor suppressor gene located and what is its function?

located on chromosome 17; normal function of p53 is regulation of the cell cycle at the G1/S checkpoint; p53 delays cell cycle progression and permits opportunity for DNA repair or initiation of apoptosis

18

What is HER2?

An oncogene that has intracellular tyrosine kinase activity

19

Breast cancer with positive HER2 expression is treated with?

Trastuzumab

20

Treatment with which antibiotic is notorious for causing pseudomembranous colitis?

Clindamycin

21

Pseudomembranous colitis can treated with?

Either metronidazole or oral vancomycin

22

In order to treat Clostridium difficile should vancomycin be given orally or IV?

orally

23

How does GERD occur?

tone of the lower esophageal sphincter decreases and gastric material is allowed to reflux back into the esophagus

24

Why are beta-adrenergic agonists unlikely to contribute to GERD?

b/c they have been demonstrated to maintain the constriction of the lower esophageal sphincter

25

What substances are capable of decreasing the constrictive tone of the lower esophageal sphincter and consequently increasing the risk for GERD?

fats, alcohol, caffeine, nicotine, nitrates, beta-adrenergic blockers, and calcium channel blockers

26

Duchene muscular dystrophy has what type of inheritance?

x-linked recessive

27

What is Gower's maneuver?

use of arms to help themselves climb up

28

How is Becker muscular dystrophy different from Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

symptoms present later in life (5-15 years)

29

What is Gaucher disease?

lysosomal storage disease characterized by hematologic abnormalities, organomegaly and skeletal involvement

30

What enzyme is elevated in Duchene Muscular Dystrophy?

Creatine phosphokinase

31

In what class of drugs are Tamoxifen and raloxifene?

selective estrogen receptor modulators

32

What is the difference between Tamoxifen and raloxifene?

Tamoxifen increases the risk of endometrial cancer because it is a partial agonist on the endometrium; raloxifene does not increase the risk of endometrial cancer because it is an endometrial antagonist

33

Elevated alkaline phosphatase is a sign of ?

increased bone turnover

34

Why do thiazide diuretics induce hyperuricemia?

they increase urate reabsorption

35

In what drug class does amlopidine belong and what is it used to treat?

long-acting dihydropyridine-type (DHP) calcium channel blocker; used to treat HTN by relaxing arterial smooth muscle

36

How does amlodipine affect uric acid levels?

decreases serum uric acid by blocking the reabsorption of urate

37

Rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent cystals and a WBC count of 10,000 cells/uL are found in?

pseudogout

38

Straw-colored, normally viscous aspirate with moderal WBCs is characteristic of?

Osteoarthritis

39

Turbid, runny fluid with high WBCs describes?

joint aspirate of RA

40

Allopurinol should not be used to treat what condition?

acute gout -- may exacerbate the condition

41

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) causes what type of diarrhea?

copious watery, non-bloody diarrhea; can cause dehydration; travelers

42

Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli causes what type of diarrhea?

watery, non-bloody diarrhea in infants and children, not associated with fevers

43

Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli causes what type of diarrhea?

causes blood diarrhea, most commonly in children, commonly acquired by eating ground beef or unpasteurized milk (also from petting zoos)

44

In EHEC the fact that the bacteria does not invade the gastric wall means?

neither fever or white blood cells in a stool sample are present with EHEC

45

This syndrome is thought of as Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) with malignant CNS tumors (predominantly medulloblastomas and astrocytomas)

Turcot's syndrome

46

What is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

AD syndrome of benign hamartomatous polyps in the GI tract; these hamartomas are commonly found in the small and large intestine

47

What is a unique feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

hyperpigmented buccal mucosa

48

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome holds a 50% increased risk of what cancers?

colorectal, breast, and gynecological cancers

49

Hereditary nonpolyposis coli colon cancer (HNPCC) is also known as?

Lynch syndrome

50

What is HNPCC (Lynch Syndrome)?

AD mutation of DNA mismatch repair genes that leads to colorectal cancer in approximately 80% of the patients with the genetic mutation

51

How does Lynch Syndrome differ from FAP?

Lynch syndrome does not correlate with the phenotype of multiple colorectal polyps and can lead to malignancy even in the absence of adenomatosis of the colon and/or rectum

52

What is Gardner Syndrome?

Familial adenomatous polyposis with the addition of extracolonic manifestations including desmoids, osteomas, and epidermoid cysts

53

What is the deficient enzyme in Fructose intolerance?

Adolase B

54

What is the deficient enzyme in Essential Fructosuria?

Fructokinase

55

What is deficient in Galactosemia?

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase

56

Proglottids are associated with?

tapeworms such as Taenia solium

57

Pin-shaped helminths describes?

Enterobius vermicularis

58

Motile uni-nuclear trophozoites describes mobile protozoa known as?

Trichomonas vaginalis

59

Central karyosome, "Ring and Dot" describes the cyst of?

Entamoeba histolytica

60

What is the DOC for giardiasis?

Metronidazole

61

DOC for tapeworms such as Taenia solium

Praziquantel

62

DOC for Enterobius vermicularis

Albendazole

63

A biopsy of the jejunum in a patient with celiac disease would show what characteristic?

blunted villi

64

What should be avoided in patients on metronidazole to prevent a disulfiram like reaction?

Alcohol

65

GET GAP on the Metro

Metronidazole is used to treat Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas, Gardnerella, Anaerobes (Clostridium, Bacteroides, Actinomyces) and H. pylori

66

DOC for metronidazole resistant giardiasis

Quinacrine

67

What is the tumor marker for colorectal cancer?

CEA

68

Serial S-100 is used to track what condition?

melanoma

69

What is the tumor marker for ovarian carcinoma?

CA-125

70

What is a Krukenberg tumor?

bilateral ovarian metastasis from GI tract adenocarcinoma

71

What is characteristic of a Krukenberg tumor histologically?

mucin-producing signet ring cells

72

Where is osteosarcoma usually found, what appearance does it have and what is the prognosis?

found in the metaphysis of long bones; characteristic sunburst appearance; poor prognosis

73

What is the predisposing factor for development of osteosarcoma?

Familial retinoblastoma

74

The tumor suppressor gene Rb normally inhibits what?

G1 to S progression in the cell cycle; if mutation of Rb exists then unrestrained cell growth occurs

75

How do PPI's (end in -prazole) work?

by blocking the production of acid via inhibition of parietal cell H+/K+ ATPases

76

What is struma ovarii?

a rare ovarian tumor consisting of ectopic thyroid tissue; causes elevation of thyroid hormones in up to 15% of patients

77

These cysts form as a result of overstimulation from high hCG levels or hypersensitivity to hCG

Theca lutein cysts also called lutein cysts

78

What is Meigs' syndrome?

Triad of ovarian fibroma with ascites and pleural effusion

79

An adnexal mass consisting of hypertrophied myometrial tissue represents a?

leiomyoma -- also known as a fibroid

80

What ligament is commonly injured during athletics from twisting or hyperextension?

ACL

81

Where does the ACL originate?

posterior aspect of the lateral femoral condyle and inserts on the anteromedial aspect of the tibial plateau

82

Name the bug: a spore forming, anaerobic Gram-positive rod that causes antibiotic-associated diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis

Clostridium difficile

83

This genus of bacteria are aerobic, gram positive rods that also form spores

Bacillus

84

What is Chadwick's sign and what does it indicate?

bluish hue in the vaginal mucosa; usually the first physical sign of pregnancy in the first few weeks

85

T/F Warfarin is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy

T; under pregnancy category X

86

What are tophi?

chalky white uric acid deposits under the skin found in patients with gout

87

Cloudy purulent synovial fluid indicates?

septic arthritis

88

How does joint aspiration differ for gout and pseudogout?

Negative birefringence for gout and positive birefringence for pseudogout

89

What is the DOC for acute gout attacks?

Indomethacin

90

What is used to treat chronic gout and to prevent future attacks by decreasing uric acid production?

Allopurinol

91

How does allopurinol work?

acts on purine catabolism; inhibits the enzyme xanthine oxidase which converts hypoxanthine to xanthine to uric acid

92

Schistosoma, Clonorchis sinensis and Paragonimus westermani are all?

trematodes (flukes)

93

Taenia solium, Diphylllobothrium latum and Echinococcus granulosus are all?

cestodes (tapeworms); hermaphrodites

94

Enterobius vermicularis is a?

pinworm (nematode); they are dioecious (separate male and female organisms)

95

How do bisphosphonates treat osteoporosis?

inhibit osteoclastic bone resorption by binding to hydroxyapatite and interfering with osteoclastic adherence