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Combank Q facts > Combank 3 > Flashcards

Combank 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Name the two causative agents of tinea capitis and state which one fluoresces under wood light.

A

Microsporidium canis and Trichophyton tonsurons; Microsporidium canis fluoresces under wood light

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2
Q

Name this fungus - dimorphic fungus, part of normal skin flora in some, exists both as mold form and lipophilic yeast; known as spaghetti and meatballs

A

Malassezia furfur

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3
Q

What agents are used to treat Malassezia furfur?

A

topical ketoconazole or selenium sulfide

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4
Q

Name the fungus - dimorphic fungus that causes systemic disease, presents a severe pneumonia and skin ulcerations

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

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5
Q

What is Blastomyces dermatitidis treated with?

A

itraconazole

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6
Q

Name the bacterium: gram positive, rod shaped, anaerobic, sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces israelii

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7
Q

What is actinomyces israelii treated with?

A

penicillin G

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8
Q

What is Trichophyton tonsurans treated with?

A

griseofulvin or terbinafine

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9
Q

What should you suspect as the cause of tinea capitis if an African American child presents with patchy hair loss which leaves black dots on the scalp?

A

Trichophyton tonsurans

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10
Q

Name the bacterium: gram positive filamentous bacteria, partially acid fast, STRICT AEROBE, produces abscesses in the lungs

A

Nocardia asteroides

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11
Q

DOC for Actinomyces israelii

A

Penicillin

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12
Q

Treatment of choice for Nocardia asteroides

A

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

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13
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Coxiella burnetii

A

Doxycycline

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14
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Bordetella pertussis?

A

Erythromycin

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15
Q

Aminoglycosides are used on what type of gram stained infections?

A

severe gram negative infections

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16
Q

T/F Aminoglycosides are ineffective against anaerobes

A

T

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17
Q

Name some other catalase positive bacteria other than staph

A

Serratia, Pseudomonas, Actinomyces (most), Candida, E. coli

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18
Q

In staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome does the bullae contain organisms?

A

NO

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19
Q

In bullous impetigo (a localized form of staph scalded skin syndrome) does the fluid filled blisters contain bacteria?

A

YES

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20
Q

How does the cholera toxin work?

A

stimulates a stimulatory G protein in order to increase adenylate cyclase, this causes the release of more chloride into the gut lumen and the decreased resorption of sodium. Resulting electrolyte imbalance leads to loss of water from cells

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21
Q

How does pertussis toxin work?

A

inhibits an inhibitory G protein, leading to increased intracellular cAMP

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22
Q

How does the AB toxin of Vibrio cholerae work?

A

ADP ribosylates a stimulatory G protein, this turns the stimulatory G protein on, leading to rice water stools

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23
Q

Both Shigella and EHEC produces a toxin that ..

A

inactivates 60s ribosomes, leading to decreased protein synthesis of the host cell

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24
Q

How does the Clostridium tetani toxin called tetanospasmin work?

A

blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and glycine leading to spastic muscle paralysis

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25
Q

Which two bacteria both produce toxins that ADP ribosylates elongation factor-2 causing inactivation of this enzyme, leading to inhibition of protein synthesis and death?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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26
Q

What causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis?

A

Naegleria fowleri (protozoa)

27
Q

This is a dimorphic, lipophilic, fungal organism

A

Malassezia furfur

28
Q

Symptoms caused by Chlamydia trachomatis

A

urgency, frequency, dysuria, watery discharge, if left untreated can lead to PID

29
Q

Gonorrhea typically presents which what type of discharge?

A

Mucopurulent discharge

30
Q

Most common cause of bacterial vaginosis

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

31
Q

What is used to treat Gardnerella vaginalis?

A

Metronidazole

32
Q

What type of discharge does Gardnerella vaginalis cause?

A

Malodorous discharge

33
Q

secondary syphilis causes what kind of rash?

A

copper colored maculopapular rash on the trunk, palms and soles

34
Q

What two organisms are obligate intracellar organisms?

A

Rickettsiae and Chlamydia

35
Q

What family is the poliovirus in?

A

Picornavirus family - single stranded, linear RNA virus

36
Q

A family of double stranded linear RNA viruses with icosahedral capsules

A

Reovirus

37
Q

A family of double stranded circular DNA viruses with icosahedral capsules, includes JC and BK viruses

A

Polyomavirus family

38
Q

Family of viruses that includes the influenza virus; they are single stranded linear RNA viruses

A

Orthomyxovirus family

39
Q

Family of viruses that California encephalitis and Hantavirus belong to

A

Bunyavirus

40
Q

How does Brucellosis commonly present?

A

undulating fever, profuse sweating, joint pain

41
Q

What is the vector for loa loa?

A

Deer fly

42
Q

What is the DOC for Onchocerciasis?

A

Ivermectin

43
Q

What family of virus does rotavirus belong to?

A

Reovirus - double stranded linear segmented RNA virus

44
Q

The only dimorphic fungus that presents with hilar and mediastinal adenopathy

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

45
Q

The primary cause of subacute endocarditis in patients with dental caries and gingivitis

A

Streptococcus mutans

46
Q

How is Coxsackie B virus aquired?

A

fecal oral route

47
Q

Coxsackie B is in what family of viruses?

A

Picornaviruses - non enveloped

48
Q

A fastidious gram negative rod that is part of the HACEK group of organisms; normal flora of the GI tract; bleach like odor

A

Eikenella corrodens

49
Q

Cigar shaped budding yeasts match the description of what organism?

A

Sporothrix schenckii

50
Q

A skin infection that causes verrucous and plaque-like lesions after traumatic inoculation (contracted in Africa, South America)

A

Chromoblastomycosis

51
Q

Hepatitis virus that is most commonly associated with infection due to IV drug abuse

A

Hepatitis C

52
Q

Patients who have recovered from hepatitis will have what in circulation?

A

HBcAb-IgG and HBsAb

53
Q

Presence of IgG antibody to the core antigen of hepatitis B indicates (HBcAb-IgG) …

A

Patient had been infected with HBV

54
Q

Presence of the antibody to the HBV surface antigen (HBsAb) indicates …

A

Patient has mounted an immune response to the virus and is now immune

55
Q

Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) positive; negative for HBsAg antibody (HBsAb); IgM antibodies against core antigen of HBV (HBcAb-IgM) present

A

Acute Hepatitis B infection

56
Q

HBsAg has disappeared but HBsAb is not yet detectable

A

Window period

57
Q

Positive core IgG antibodies (HBcAb-IgG); will not have HBcAb-IgM

A

Chronic carrier of hepatitis B

58
Q

Chronic active carrier state of Hepatitis B

A

presence of HBeAg, indicates active viral replication

59
Q

Chronic passive carrier state of Hepatitis B

A

presence of antibodies to HBeAg (HBeAb)

60
Q

Have only a positive antibody to the surface antigen (HBsAb) - vaccine only contains HBsAg

A

Vaccinated against HBV

61
Q

What is the only way to get HBcAb and HBsAg?

A

by being exposed to the virus

62
Q

What is the 2nd most common cause of vaginitis after bacterial vaginitis as #1?

A

Candida albicans

63
Q

What are risk factors for vaginitis caused by candida albicans?

A

diabetes, pregnancy, recent treatment with antibiotics

64
Q

What type of discharge does Trichomonas vaginalis cause?

A

thick, frothy, greenish, foul-smelling discharge

Combank Q facts (11 decks)

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