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Flashcards in Combank 3 Deck (64):
1

Name the two causative agents of tinea capitis and state which one fluoresces under wood light.

Microsporidium canis and Trichophyton tonsurons; Microsporidium canis fluoresces under wood light

2

Name this fungus - dimorphic fungus, part of normal skin flora in some, exists both as mold form and lipophilic yeast; known as spaghetti and meatballs

Malassezia furfur

3

What agents are used to treat Malassezia furfur?

topical ketoconazole or selenium sulfide

4

Name the fungus - dimorphic fungus that causes systemic disease, presents a severe pneumonia and skin ulcerations

Blastomyces dermatitidis

5

What is Blastomyces dermatitidis treated with?

itraconazole

6

Name the bacterium: gram positive, rod shaped, anaerobic, sulfur granules

Actinomyces israelii

7

What is actinomyces israelii treated with?

penicillin G

8

What is Trichophyton tonsurans treated with?

griseofulvin or terbinafine

9

What should you suspect as the cause of tinea capitis if an African American child presents with patchy hair loss which leaves black dots on the scalp?

Trichophyton tonsurans

10

Name the bacterium: gram positive filamentous bacteria, partially acid fast, STRICT AEROBE, produces abscesses in the lungs

Nocardia asteroides

11

DOC for Actinomyces israelii

Penicillin

12

Treatment of choice for Nocardia asteroides

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

13

What is the treatment of choice for Coxiella burnetii

Doxycycline

14

What is the treatment of choice for Bordetella pertussis?

Erythromycin

15

Aminoglycosides are used on what type of gram stained infections?

severe gram negative infections

16

T/F Aminoglycosides are ineffective against anaerobes

T

17

Name some other catalase positive bacteria other than staph

Serratia, Pseudomonas, Actinomyces (most), Candida, E. coli

18

In staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome does the bullae contain organisms?

NO

19

In bullous impetigo (a localized form of staph scalded skin syndrome) does the fluid filled blisters contain bacteria?

YES

20

How does the cholera toxin work?

stimulates a stimulatory G protein in order to increase adenylate cyclase, this causes the release of more chloride into the gut lumen and the decreased resorption of sodium. Resulting electrolyte imbalance leads to loss of water from cells

21

How does pertussis toxin work?

inhibits an inhibitory G protein, leading to increased intracellular cAMP

22

How does the AB toxin of Vibrio cholerae work?

ADP ribosylates a stimulatory G protein, this turns the stimulatory G protein on, leading to rice water stools

23

Both Shigella and EHEC produces a toxin that ..

inactivates 60s ribosomes, leading to decreased protein synthesis of the host cell

24

How does the Clostridium tetani toxin called tetanospasmin work?

blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and glycine leading to spastic muscle paralysis

25

Which two bacteria both produce toxins that ADP ribosylates elongation factor-2 causing inactivation of this enzyme, leading to inhibition of protein synthesis and death?

Corynebacterium diphtheriae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

26

What causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis?

Naegleria fowleri (protozoa)

27

This is a dimorphic, lipophilic, fungal organism

Malassezia furfur

28

Symptoms caused by Chlamydia trachomatis

urgency, frequency, dysuria, watery discharge, if left untreated can lead to PID

29

Gonorrhea typically presents which what type of discharge?

Mucopurulent discharge

30

Most common cause of bacterial vaginosis

Gardnerella vaginalis

31

What is used to treat Gardnerella vaginalis?

Metronidazole

32

What type of discharge does Gardnerella vaginalis cause?

Malodorous discharge

33

secondary syphilis causes what kind of rash?

copper colored maculopapular rash on the trunk, palms and soles

34

What two organisms are obligate intracellar organisms?

Rickettsiae and Chlamydia

35

What family is the poliovirus in?

Picornavirus family - single stranded, linear RNA virus

36

A family of double stranded linear RNA viruses with icosahedral capsules

Reovirus

37

A family of double stranded circular DNA viruses with icosahedral capsules, includes JC and BK viruses

Polyomavirus family

38

Family of viruses that includes the influenza virus; they are single stranded linear RNA viruses

Orthomyxovirus family

39

Family of viruses that California encephalitis and Hantavirus belong to

Bunyavirus

40

How does Brucellosis commonly present?

undulating fever, profuse sweating, joint pain

41

What is the vector for loa loa?

Deer fly

42

What is the DOC for Onchocerciasis?

Ivermectin

43

What family of virus does rotavirus belong to?

Reovirus - double stranded linear segmented RNA virus

44

The only dimorphic fungus that presents with hilar and mediastinal adenopathy

Histoplasma capsulatum

45

The primary cause of subacute endocarditis in patients with dental caries and gingivitis

Streptococcus mutans

46

How is Coxsackie B virus aquired?

fecal oral route

47

Coxsackie B is in what family of viruses?

Picornaviruses - non enveloped

48

A fastidious gram negative rod that is part of the HACEK group of organisms; normal flora of the GI tract; bleach like odor

Eikenella corrodens

49

Cigar shaped budding yeasts match the description of what organism?

Sporothrix schenckii

50

A skin infection that causes verrucous and plaque-like lesions after traumatic inoculation (contracted in Africa, South America)

Chromoblastomycosis

51

Hepatitis virus that is most commonly associated with infection due to IV drug abuse

Hepatitis C

52

Patients who have recovered from hepatitis will have what in circulation?

HBcAb-IgG and HBsAb

53

Presence of IgG antibody to the core antigen of hepatitis B indicates (HBcAb-IgG) ...

Patient had been infected with HBV

54

Presence of the antibody to the HBV surface antigen (HBsAb) indicates ...

Patient has mounted an immune response to the virus and is now immune

55

Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) positive; negative for HBsAg antibody (HBsAb); IgM antibodies against core antigen of HBV (HBcAb-IgM) present

Acute Hepatitis B infection

56

HBsAg has disappeared but HBsAb is not yet detectable

Window period

57

Positive core IgG antibodies (HBcAb-IgG); will not have HBcAb-IgM

Chronic carrier of hepatitis B

58

Chronic active carrier state of Hepatitis B

presence of HBeAg, indicates active viral replication

59

Chronic passive carrier state of Hepatitis B

presence of antibodies to HBeAg (HBeAb)

60

Have only a positive antibody to the surface antigen (HBsAb) - vaccine only contains HBsAg

Vaccinated against HBV

61

What is the only way to get HBcAb and HBsAg?

by being exposed to the virus

62

What is the 2nd most common cause of vaginitis after bacterial vaginitis as #1?

Candida albicans

63

What are risk factors for vaginitis caused by candida albicans?

diabetes, pregnancy, recent treatment with antibiotics

64

What type of discharge does Trichomonas vaginalis cause?

thick, frothy, greenish, foul-smelling discharge