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Combank Q facts > Combank 1 > Flashcards

Combank 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is also known as croup, is common in children <4 and has a classic seal life barky cough?

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis

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2
Q

What causes atypical pneumonia, insidious onset of low grade fever, nonproductive cough, and diffuse interstitial infiltrates on plain film chest radiographs?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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3
Q

Is Bell’s Palsy a LMN lesion or a UMN lesion?

A

LMN - the forehead is classically involved

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4
Q

Internal rotation of the temporal bone may result in what?

A

Bell’s palsy - can lead patient to complain of tinnitus, vertigo and high pitched ringing

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5
Q

Acute somatic dysfunctions are characterized by ….

A

swelling, warmth, moisture, fullness, bogginess, hypertonic muscles, edema, tension, erythema, and acute tenderness

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6
Q

Chronic somatic dysfunctions present with

A

cool, dry, thickened skin, decreased muscle tone, asymmetry with compensation in other parts of the body, decreased or no pain, dull or achy tenderness, prolonged blanching of the skin, lack of edema and erythema

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7
Q

This condition is primary hyperaldosteronism caused by a aldosterone secreting tumor of the adrenal gland. Characterized by HTN, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, low renin levels

A

Conn syndrome

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8
Q

In determining the axis of rotation in a sacral torsion, how can the seat flexion test lead you to the answer?

A

side of the axis of rotation is opposite the side of the positive seated flexion test

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9
Q

Name the organism - non lactose fermenting gram negative rod associated with urinary tract infections; has rapid motility leading to swarming pattern

A

Proteus mirabilis

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10
Q

Clarithromycin is what type of antibiotic and what are its indications?

A

Macrolide antibiotic that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by bind to 23s rRNA of the 50s subunit; commonly used to treat atypical pneumonias, upper respiratory infections, Neisseria infections

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11
Q

What is the MOA of Metronidazole and what does it treat?

A

creates free radical toxic metabolites in the bacterial cell that damages DNA; used to anaerobic infections, below the diaphragm and certain protozoa infections.

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12
Q

What is the first line treatment of pyelonephritis?

A

Fluoroquinolone antibiotics with TMP-SMX and amoxicillin clavulanic acid as a second line agent

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13
Q

Hexagonal crystals and a positive urinary cyanide nitroprusside test are associated with what type of kidney stones?

A

Cysteine

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14
Q

How does Proteus mirabilis lead to the formation of struvite stones in the renal pelvis and calyces of the kidneys?

A

Proteus mirabilis has urease which causes an increase in urinary pH due to increased ammonia levels

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15
Q

Name the syndrome - autosomal dominant, familial adenomatous polyps, osteomas, desmoid tumors, dental abnormalities, and hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium

A

Gardner Syndrome

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16
Q

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome caused by abnormalities in collagen synthesis is associated with what other condition?

A

berry aneurysms in the circle of willis

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17
Q

Ribs 1-5 move in what type of motion and axis?

A

pump handle motion; transverse axis

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18
Q

Ribs 6-10 move in what type of motion and axis?

A

bucket handle motion; AP axis

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19
Q

Ribs 11 and 12 move in what type of motion?

A

Caliper motion; move inferiorly with inhalation and superiorly with exhalation

20
Q

Exhaled pump handle ribs are in what position?

A

depressed anteriorly

21
Q

Name the sacral dx - positive right sided seated flexion, anterior/deep right sacral base, posterior/shallow right ILA

A

right unilateral sacral flexion

22
Q

Name the STD - presents with single, painless ulcer; screened for with rapid plasma reagin (RPR) or Venereal Disease Research Lab (VRDL)

A

Primary syphilis

23
Q

How does genital herpes classically present?

A

multiple vesicular ulcers that are painful

24
Q

What types of tests can be used to confirm syphilis?

A

FTA-ABS or MHA-TP

25
Q

What is primary syphilis classically treated with?

A

penicillin

26
Q

What is the drug of choice for chlamydia?

A

Macrolides, specifically azithromycin - usually given in combination with ceftriaxone to treat for both chlamydia and gonorrhea

27
Q

By what mechanism is the heart tissue damaged in rheumatic fever?

A

Antibodies against the M protein produced by Streptococcus pyogenes cross-react with healthy heart tissue

28
Q

What type of collagen does Ehlers-Danlos syndrome affect and how does it present?

A

Affects type III colagen; hypermobile joints, elastic skin, easy bruising

29
Q

Disseminated gonococcal infection causes what triad of symptoms?

A

Migratory polyarthritis, tenosynovitis, dermatitis

30
Q

Neisseria gonorrhea is what type of organism? (gram stain and shape)

A

gram negative diplococcus

31
Q

What is the DOC for gonococcal arthritis and disseminated gonococcal infection?

A

3rd generation cephalosporin - ceftriaxone

32
Q

When should patients with scoliotic curves be treated with bracing?

A

with scoliotic curves greater than 20 degrees

33
Q

The descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum receive sympathetic innervation from what levels?

A

T10-L2

34
Q

The middle portion of the GI tract - duodenum, jejunum, ilium ascending colon and proximal 2/3 of transverse colon get sympathetic innervation from what levels?

A

T10-T11

35
Q

This is a benign tumor of muscle, most commonly cardiac; has a predilection for children, genetically associated with tuberous sclerosis

A

Rhabdomyoma

36
Q

Where is hantavirus typically acquired?

A

Southwestern US (Arizona)

37
Q

Where is histoplasma capsulatum found?

A

Ohio and Mississippi River valleys

38
Q

Where is Blastomyces dermatitidis found?

A

Ohio and Mississippi River Valleys and the Great Lakes

39
Q

Chapman points for the appendix are located where?

A

tip of the 12th rib and the transverse process of T11

40
Q

What type of antibodies are specific for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Anti-cyclic citrullinated protein antibodies

41
Q

What type of antibodies are specific for SLE?

A

Anti-Smith antibodies

42
Q

Name the cancer - associated with smoking, cavitations, hypercalcemia due to secretion of PTH related potein

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

43
Q

Most common lung cancer in non-smokers

A

Adenocarcinoma

44
Q

Name the tumor - results in mild diabetes, anemia, venous thrombosis, severe infections, characterisstic rash of necrotizing migratory erythema

A

Glucagonoma

45
Q

When rib dysfunction is associated with thoracic dysfunction what should be treated first?

A

the affected thoracic segment should be treated first

Combank Q facts (11 decks)

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