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Combank Q facts > Combank 6 > Flashcards

Combank 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Name the syndrome: bowel and bladder dysfunction, variable lower extremity motor and sensory nerve impairment, and perineal sensory loss (“saddle anesthesia”)

A

Cauda equina syndrome

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2
Q

Name the syndrome: presents similar to cauda equina syndrome but also has UMN signs such as spasticity and hyperactive reflexes in addition to LMN signs such as muscle flaccidity and loss of reflexes

A

Conus medullaris syndrome

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3
Q

As compared to conus medullaris syndrome, cauda equina syndrome only presents with what?

A

LMN signs

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4
Q

Name the skin lesion: commonly described as a slightly elevated plaque and appears “stuck on”

A

Seborrheic keratosis

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5
Q

A high frequency of mutations in the gene encoding for what has been found in types of seborrheic keratoses?

A

tyrosine kinase receptor FGFR3

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6
Q

This is a chronic inflammatory skin d/o that commonly occurs in the scalp, hairline and face. It is described as scaly patches with surrounding areas of mild to moderate erythema

A

Seborrheic dermatitis

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7
Q

This is a small, rough growth that resembles a cauliflower or solid blister; it is caused by human papillomavirus

A

Verruca vulgaris

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8
Q

An abrupt onset of multiple seborrheic keratoses is likely a paraneoplastic syndrome for ?

A

gastrointestinal adenocarcinoma

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9
Q

What is Leser-Trelat sign?

A

an explosive onset of multiple seborrheic keratoses

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10
Q

This is a skin disease characterized by fever, leukocytosis and tender erythematous papules and plaques. It is most often associated with hematologic disease

A

Sweet syndrome aka acute febrile neutrophilic dematosis

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11
Q

Name 3 drugs that cause pulmonary fibrosis

A

Amiodarone, bleomycin and busulfan

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12
Q

Obstructive lung disease presents with a _______ FEV1/FVC ratio

A

decreased

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13
Q

Restrictive lung disease presents with a _______ or ________ FEV1/FVC ratio > 80%

A

normal or elevated

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14
Q

An esterase positive urine analyses is referring to the presence of ?

A

leukocyte esterase, which is found in the presence of pyuria

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15
Q

What type of studies are observational and retrospective where the subjects are chosen on the basis of disease outcome and the risk factors of interest are studied in the participant hx?

A

Case control

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16
Q

What type of study is observation and prospective, comparing the prevalence of targeted risk factors with a control group that does not have the risk factors in order to determine the likelihood of disease?

A

Cohort study

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17
Q

This type of study collects data from a group of people in order to assess the prevalence of disease and related risk factors at a particular point in time

A

Cross-sectional study

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18
Q

What is the DOC to initially control the symtpoms of severe hyperthyroidism?

A

Propanolol

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?

A

pregnancy

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20
Q

Shiga toxin of Shigella species and shiga-like toxin of EHEC both inhibit protein synthesis in entercytes by?

A

cleaving an adenine residue from the 60s subunit of the ribosome

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21
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae produces an exotoxin that does what?

A

inactivates elongation factor -2 and causes symptoms of diphtheria

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22
Q

What is modafinil and what is it used to treat?

A

a psychostimulant that is FDA approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, shift work sleep d/o and excessive daytime sleepiness associated with obstructive sleep apnea

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23
Q

What is hydroxyzine and what is it used to treat?

A

non selective histamine; used to treat anxiety, alcohol withdrawal, pruritus, nausea/vomiting, preoperative sedation, and insomnia.

24
Q

What type of drug is Maprotiline?

A

atypical antidepressant that blocks NE uptake

25
Q

What type of drug is Zolpidem and what is it used for?

A

non-benzodiazepine hypnotic that is used for the treatment of insominia by effectively initiating sleep

26
Q

What are the 3 branches of the celiac trunk?

A

Left gastric artery, splenic artery, common hepatic artery

27
Q

The common hepatic artery, a branch of the celiac trunk, bifurcates into what two arteries?

A

gastroduodenal artery and the proper hepatic artery

28
Q

Where does the superior mesenteric artery arise and what region does it supply?

A

arises directly from the aorta, inferior to the celiac trunk; supplies blood to regions of the gastrointestinal tract distal to the ligament of Treitz, but proximal to the splenic flexure

29
Q

What vessel supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach and where does it originate?

A

The left gastric artery supplies blood to the superior margin of the lesser curvature of the stomach before anastamosing with the right gastric artery; it orginates from the celiac trunk

30
Q

What vessel originates from the celiac trunk and travels dorsal to the body of the stomach, along the body and tail of the pancreas

A

splenic artery

31
Q

What is the MOA of Vinblastine and Vincristine?

A

binds to tubulin and inhibits microtubule formation; this disrupts the formation of the mitotic spindle and causes the cell cycle to arrest at metaphase ( it is specific for M and S phases of the cell cycle)

32
Q

What condition is a common cause of rapidly progressive crescentic glomerulonephritis and presents with hemoptysis and ends with rapid renal failure

A

Goodpasture syndrome (anti-GBM antibody disease)

33
Q

In a young female, development of visual changes and an intention tremor often signals the development of ?

A

Multiple sclerosis

34
Q

Degeneration of the caudate nucleus is associated with which disease?

A

Huntington’s Disease

35
Q

A lesion of the MLF commonly seen in MS patients causes ….

A

paralysis of the medial rectus muscles and nystagmus of hte contralateral eye upon lateral gaze

36
Q

Pericardial tamponade often presents with what triad?

A

Beck’s triad of hypotension, jugular venous distention and distant or muffled heart sounds

37
Q

A lesion affecting the medial medulla causes …

A

contralateral paresis and contralateral loss of vibratory and position sense; tongue deviates toward side of lesion

38
Q

What are the levels for sympathetic viscerosomatic reflex of the adrenal glands?

A

T8-T10 ipsilaterally

39
Q

What is Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A

a benign condition that results in a decreased ability by the liver to excrete conjugated bilirubin; the liver does not have a problem conjugating bilirubin

40
Q

Gilbert’s syndrome, Crigler-Najjar syndrome, hemolytic anemia and hepatocellular injury all cause an elevation in what type of bilirubin?

A

unconjugated bilirubin

41
Q

Those with dysplastic nevi have a higher risk of developing what compared to those without it?

A

melanoma

42
Q

What is a dysplastic nevi?

A

they are benign acquired melanocytic neoplasms; they present as asymmetric macule with irregular shape, ill-defined borders and variable color

43
Q

What is basal cell carcinoma?

A

skin cancer arising from the basal layer of the epidermis; occurs in sun exposed areas of the body; usually presents on the face on the upper lip; present as pearly papules with rolled edges and telangiectasias with a central ulceration

44
Q

T/F Basal cell carcinomas are locally invasive and have low metastatic potential

A

T

45
Q

Name the skin lesion – present as rough, erythematous and scaly macules or papules; most common risk factor is chronic sun exposure; have the potential to develop into squamous cell carcinomas

A

Actinic keratoses

46
Q

Treatment for glaucoma involves

A

muscarinic activation and beta-blocking

47
Q

Patients with reactivation tuberculosis will present with?

A

cough, hemoptysis, fevers, night sweats, weight loss

48
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter of the Raphe nucleus?

A

serotonin

49
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter in the basal nucleus of Meynert?

A

Acetylcholine

50
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter of the nucleus accumbens?

A

GABA

51
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter in the locus ceruleus?

A

NE

52
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter of the ventral tegmentum?

A

dopamine

53
Q

What is erythema nodosum?

A

an inflammation of fat cells under the skin, characterized as tender red nodules or lumps; usually seen on the shins with sarcoidosis and coccidiodomycosis

54
Q

What is lichen planus?

A

chronic mucocutaneous disease that can affect the skin, tongue, oral mucosa and genitalia

55
Q

How does lichen planus commonly present?

A

pruritic, polygonal, purple, flat-topped papules

56
Q

What is the standard treatment for lichen planus?

A

corticosteroids

Combank Q facts (11 decks)

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