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Flashcards in deck 5 Deck (58):
1

How many people will never get TSST-1 antibodies?

20%

2

What bacteria does yellow pus/discharge suggest?

staph aureus

3

What drug would you give in anticipation of either staph aureus TSS or Group A strep TSS?

vancomycin, clindamycin, and rifampin.[rifampin= mucous membrane penetration. clindamycin= stops toxin production. Vanco=strong Ab.]

4

What is a left shift in WBC

immature WBC meaning an infection

5

What are the 5 criteria for staph TSS?

1. Body temp >1022. Systolic BP<903. Diffuse rash/erythroderma4. Desquamation upon recovery5. Involvement of 3 or more organs

6

What is clindamycin used for?

protein synthesis inhibitor that has the capacity to inhibit exotoxin production at concentrations below its antimicrobial concentration

7

What does staph aureus need for TSST-1 production?

oxygen [tampons]

8

Does strep TSS need oxygen for production of TSST-1?

No they aerotolerant anaerobes but never use oxygen

9

What phase of bacterial growth is defined as enzymes being induced to allow bacterial growth?

Lag phase

10

What phase of bacterial growth is defined by doubling times?

log phase

11

What happens in post-exponential phase of bacterial growth?

toxin--small molecules signal a quorum and induces exotoxin production

12

What bacterial phase is defined as nutrients used up an growth stops?

stationary phase

13

What type of bacteria die quickly in death phase?

obligate fermenters [acid, superoxide, H2O2 build up]

14

What enzymes must obligate aerobes have?

superoxide dismutase SODcatalase

15

What enzymes must a facultative anaerobe (aerobe) have?

SODcatalase

16

What enzymes do aerotolerant anaerobes have?

SOD, but no catalase

17

What types of bacteria neither have SOD nor catalase?

obligate anaerobes

18

What type of bacteria are Bacillus and Mycobacterium?

obligate aerobes

19

What type of bacteria is Staph and Escherichia?

Facultative anaerobe

20

What type of bacteria are streptococcus?

aerotolerant anaerobes

21

What is a microaerophiles?

prefer reduced amounts of oxygen [Neisseria and Borrelia]

22

What is Gram+, Catalase+, coagulase+?

S. aureus

23

What groups of bacteria are catalase negative, cocci and gram positive?

streptococci and enterococci

24

What is gram positive, cocci, catalase negative, B hemolysis and bacitacin sensitive?

Group A strep

25

What is Gram positive, cocci, catalase negative, a hemolysis, and optochin sensitive?

streptococcus pneumoniae

26

What type of bacteria is a peptostreptococcus?

obligate anaerobe

27

anaerobe or aerobe Gram +Rod--listeria?

aerobe

28

anaerobe or aerobe Gram +Rod--lactobacillus?

aerotolerant anaerobe

29

anaerobe or aerobe Gram +Rod--bifidobacterium?

anaerobe

30

What are the 2 spore formers?

Bacillus [aerobe]Clostridium [anaerobes]

31

What bacteria category do neisseria and acinetobacter fall under?

Gram negative cocci

32

What bacteria category does enterobacteriaceae, pseudomonadaceae, fusobacterium, haemophilus, bordetella, legionella?

Gram neg. Rods

33

What are the 2 main lactose negative bacteria?

salmonella and shigella

34

What agar do we use primarily for lactose tests?

MacConkey- pink = lactose positivewhite=lactose negative

35

How is the MacConkey agar selective?

inhibits gram positive growth

36

What is a mesophile?

survive at body temperature

37

Why do we have fevers?

most bacteria require more iron at higher temperatures--this is why too much Iron is bad

38

How do bacteria scavenge iron?

siderophores

39

What antibiotics target DNA gyrase?

quinolones

40

Where does bacterial transcription terminate? What might it require?

hairpin turn, may require rho factor

41

What antibiotic is used to inhibit the initiation of transcription? What is its strong quality?

Rifampin [ also rifamycin]High mucosal surface penetrator [red urine and red contacts]

42

What does bacterial translation require?

Shine Dalgarnoinitiation factors30S and 50S subunits for 70Sribosomes

43

What are the 3 protein synthesis inhibitors of 50S ribosome?

chloramphenicolerythromycinclindamycin

44

What 50S inhibitor penetrates the CNS well?

chloramphenicol

45

What 50S inhibitor is used in penicillin allergic patients?

erythromycin

46

What 50 S inhibitor may allow the growth of Clostridium difficult and lead to pseudomembranous enterocolitis?

clindamycin

47

What are the major areas of toxicity for 30S inhibitors?

oto and nephro

48

How do amino glycoside protein synthesis inhibitors work?

cause the wrong amino acyl tRNA to bind and at higher concentration binds ribosomes and causes them to fall off[perfect for gram-]

49

The 30S inhibitor tetracycline may cause what side effects?

upset stomachimpairment of bone development under 12stains teeth dark of infants whose mothers took it during preg. [BINDS CALCIUM!]

50

What is mupirocin used for? how does it work?

topically in treating impetigo due to strep/staphinhibits isoleucine tRNA

51

What is polymyxin B used for?

membrane activity--used in affinity columns to remove LPS from cloned proteins[binds tightly with Lipid A]

52

What does daptomycin cause?

membrane disruption

53

How do sulfonamides and trimethoprim work? which one is specific to bacteria over human cells?

-blocks sequential steps in folic acid metabolism-sulfonamide is specific for only bacteria, but trimethoprim is 50k-100k more active on bacteria that human cells

54

What types of bacteria are resistant to sulfonamides and trimethoprim?

anaerobes are resistants[kills aerobes, facultative bacteria and pneumocystis carinii (fungi!!!!)]

55

What is the difference between minimum inhibitory concentration and minimum bactericidal concentration?

inhibitory is the amount of agent needed to impede visible growthbactericidal is the amount needed to kill the organism by 3log

56

Is tetracycline bactericidal?

no, bacteriostatic

57

anaerobe or aerobe Gram +Rod--corynebacterium?

aerobe

58

anaerobe or aerobe Gram +Rod-- propionibacterium?

anaerobe