Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Infectious Disease > Diagnosis of HIV pts > Flashcards

Diagnosis of HIV pts Flashcards

(96 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the cells that HIV can hide out in?

A

Memory CD4+ T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What indicates that transition from HIV to AIDS?

A

CD4 less than 200

OR

AIDS indicator disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happens to the viral load with HIV infection? How does CD4 count relate to this?

A

Peaks initially, then drops to a “set point”

CD4 count is the inverse of this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How well does the viral load correlate to the progression of HIV to AIDS

A

Correlates well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the viral cause of Kaposi’s sarcoma? What are the s/sx of this?

A

HSV 8

erythematous macules on the posterior oropharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

At what CD4 count are AIDS pts susceptible to pneumocystis?

A

Less than 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

At what CD4 count are AIDS pts susceptible to toxoplasmosis?

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

At what CD4 count are AIDS pts susceptible to Cryptococcosis?

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

At what CD4 count are AIDS pts susceptible to Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Over 400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At what CD4 count are AIDS pts susceptible to MAC?

A

Less than 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

At what CD4 count are AIDS pts susceptible to CMV?

A

Less than 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the prophylaxis for toxoplasmosis?

A

TMP-SMX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the source of MAC?

A

Water sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Does recurrent bouts of pyogenic pneumonia diagnose you with AIDS?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the cause of hairy tongue leukoplakia?

A

EBV caused growth that does not scrape away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What has happened to the incidence and prevalence of HIV?

A
  • Incidence lower

- Prevalence growing (people living longer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In what high risk group is HIV incidence increasing? Which is declining?

A

MSM

IVDA is going down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the current strategy to target MSM population to prevent AIDS?

A

Preexposure prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What ethnicity have the highest prevalence of HIV?

A

African Americans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What percent of people with HIV are unaware they have it? What percent of new infections are caused by people who don’t know they have it?

A

20% ish don’t know

50% of new infections from people who do not know they have it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the percentage of CD4 that is diagnostic of AIDS? What does this mean?

A

Less than 14%

This means that less than 14% of T cells are of the CD4 variety (the remainder being CD8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What percent of newly diagnosed HIV have a strain that is resistant to ART?

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the first s/sx of HIV with initial infection?

A

Mono-like ssx

-Pharyngitis, rash, HA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What percent of patients with an EBV infection present with a rash?

A

Less than 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What percent of patients with initial HIV infection have aseptic meningitis?
24%
26
What percent of patients with an initial HIV Infection present with oral ulcers?
15%
27
What percent of patients with an initial HIV Infection present with genital ulcers?
10%
28
What is the viral markers followed for initial HIV infection?
p24 antigen
29
What is the first, second, and third rise in markers for HIV?
1. HIV RNA first 2. p24 antigen 3. HIV ab last
30
Why does p24 antigen decline when HIV ab rise?
HIV ab binds to p24
31
How long can HIV-1 RNA be detected before the detection of HIV ab?
1-3 weeks
32
Do HIV antibodies assays detect HIV-1 or HIV 2?
Both
33
True or false: HIV antibody/antigen testing, if positive, needs to be followed up by a second test.
True
34
What is the gold standard for diagnosing HIV?
ELISA (99.7% sensitive, 99.9% specific)
35
How sensitive/specific are the rapid tests for HIV?
Very, both above 99.5%
36
What is the confirmatory tests for HIV?
-Multispot HIV-1/HIV-2
37
If the reactive HIV ag/ab test is positive, and the multispot confirmatory test is negative, what is the next step in diagnosis?
HIV-1 nucleic acid testing
38
What is the sequence of HIV testing?
- HIV ab/ag screen - Multispot - HIV1 nucleic acid testing if multispot is negative
39
What is the role of HIV screening?
- Opt-out testing | - Offered to all pregnant women
40
Where, geographically, is HIV-1 found more often? HIV-2?
``` HIV-1 = US HIV-2 = Africa ```
41
How does HIV-2 compare to HIV-1 in terms of virulence and transmissibility?
HIV-2 is less virulent, and less easily transmittable
42
What are the two receptors on CD4 cells for HIV? Which is more common, and which progresses more rapidly?
-CCR5 or CXCR4 - CCR5 = major one that is transmittable - CXCR5 = more rapid progression
43
What is the role of gp120?
Antigen that varies--determines tropism
44
What happens to the pathogenicity of an HIV virus if the tropism changes from CCR5 to CXCR4?
more virulent
45
What is the role of delta 32 deletion in humans (hetero and homozygous)?
If have homozygous, then less susceptible to HIV virus If heterozygous, then slower progression
46
What is the ligand for CCR5 on cells?
beta-chemokine
47
What is the treatment for kids born to HIV+ mothers? (3)
- Have mom on HIV antiretrovirals - Do not breastfeed - Give baby post-exposure prophylaxis
48
True or false: the placenta is a good barrier for the prevention of HIV positive infants
True
49
What is the most common route of transmission of HIV from mother to fetus?
During vaginal delivery
50
What is the viral load goal for mother's who are HIV+? Can they deliver vaginally if they meet this requirement?
- Less than 100 | - Vaginal delivery okay if this is met
51
Can breast milk transmit HIV?
Yes
52
What is the normal CD4 count?
More than 750
53
True or false: syphilis occurs at any CD4 count
True
54
True or false: syphilis occurs mostly in women
False
55
True or false: syphilis usually spares the eyes
False
56
True or false: syphilis rarely involved the oral mucosa
False
57
What are the ssx of secondary shyphilis?
Patchy rashes--condyloma lata
58
How infectious are the condyloma lata of syphilis?
Very
59
In what risk group is syphilis incidence rising?
MSM
60
Should you wait to treat suspected pneumocystis in order to obtain a good culture?
Nah--will not affect culture
61
What is the difference between primary prophylaxis and secondary?
Primary - do not have disease, but prevent from getting Secondary = have it, but prevent recurrence
62
Do you use primary prophylaxis for CMV?
No
63
What is the prognosis for late diagnosis of HIV?
10-30 years of life loss
64
What fraction of new HIV diagnoses also have AIDS?
1/3
65
What is the prognosis for HIV pts diagnosed early and have regular treatment?
normal life expectancy
66
What is the most common AIDS defining illness?
Pneumocystis pneumonia
67
How do you check for toxoplasmosis infx?
IgG antibody
68
What is the CD4 count at which you start secondary prophylaxis for CMV?
Less than 100
69
What are the components of the HAART therapy?
2 NRTIs + a protease inhibitor or NNRTI
70
What are the goals of HIV treatment? (3)
- Suppress HIV replication - Improve immune system - Prevent transmission
71
What is the MOA of enfuvirtide?
Prevents fusion
72
What is the MOA of maraviroc?
Prevents attachment of HIV to CCR5
73
What is the suffix for the protease inhibitors for HIV?
"-navir"
74
What is the caveat for prescribing abacavir?
Need to test HLA-b5701. If have, then will have hypersensitivity reaction to the drug
75
What is IRIS? What is the treatment for this?
"Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome"--inflammatory disorder that occurs with sudden drop of viral load d/t HIV therapy Usually self limiting, but may prescribe glucocorticoids if bad
76
What type of HIV drugs have a high incidence of drug-drug interactions? Why?
Protease inhibitors d/t p450 inhibition
77
True or false: HIV increases the risk of dyslipidemia
True
78
True or false: HIV increases the risk of CV disease
True
79
True or false: HIV increases the risk of squamous cell CA of the anus
True
80
What is the metabolic syndrome that can be caused by HIV drugs?
Cushing like features, but with fat atrophy in the face
81
What is the anal CA that HIV pts are susceptible to?
HPV-related
82
Anal warts in an an AIDs pt should be suspicious for what?
HPV cancer
83
Do you need to have anal sex to develop HPV-related anal cancer?
No
84
What is the CD4 count at which you would begin prophylaxis for Cryptococcosis?
100
85
What is the CD4 count at which you would begin prophylaxis for Histoplasmosis?
150
86
What are the integrase inhibitors?
"-gravirs"
87
What is the fusion inhibitor?
Enfuvirtide
88
What are the two major NNRTIs?
Nevirapine | Efavirenz
89
What type of drug is zidovudine?
NRTI
90
What type of drug is lamivudine?
NRTI
91
What type of drug is abacavir?
NRTI
92
What type of drug is tenofovir disoproxil?
NRTI
93
What type of drug is emtricitabine?
NRTI
94
What type of drug is nevirapine?
NNRTI
95
What type of drug is Efavirenz?
NNRTI
96
What AIDS drug decreases the effectiveness of birth control? Why?
Protease inhibitors | Inhibits p450

Infectious Disease (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions