Domain II: Nutrition Care for Individuals and Groups: Screening and Assessment Flashcards
(332 cards)
1
Q
The ___ ___ ___ is a standardized, consistent structure and framework used to provide nutrition care
A
Nutrition care process
2
Q
What are the steps of the nutrition care process?
A
-Assessment
-Diagnosis
-Intervention
-Monitoring/evaluation
3
Q
____ ____ integrates facts, informed opinions, active listening, and observations; it is a reasoning process where ideas are produced and evaluated that includes the ability to conceptualize, think rationally, think creatively, be inquiring, and think autonomously
A
Critical thinking
4
Q
____ reviewed during the assessment is reviewed during all steps of the NCP
A
Data
5
Q
Nutrition ____ is the use of preliminary nutrition assessment techniques to identify people who are malnourished or who are at risk for malnutrition
A
Screening
6
Q
All health care team members can participate in screening as it is a brief, ___-___ minute assessment
A
5-10
7
Q
What is reviewed during a nutrition screening?
A
-Client’s history
-Lab results
-Weight
-Physical signs
8
Q
For screening to be effective, the mechanism must be accurate based on ____ and ____
A
Specificity and sensitivity
9
Q
Specificity means that the tool can correctly identify patients ____ a condition
A
Without
10
Q
Sensitivity means that the tool can correctly identify patients ____ a condition
A
With
11
Q
Cultural ____ is the ability to provide care to patients with diverse values, beliefs, and behaviors and tailor delivery to meet their social, cultural, and linguistic needs
A
Competence
12
Q
The ____ ____ requires that nutrition risk is identified in hospitalized patients, but it does not mandate a method of screening
A
Joint Commission
13
Q
The Subjective Global Assessment assesses what data?
A
-History
-Intake
-GI symptoms
-Functional capacity
-Physical appearance
-Edema
-Weight change
14
Q
The Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA) assesses what data?
A
-Independence
-Medications
-Number of full meals consumed each day
-Protein intake
-Fruits and vegetable intake
-Fluid
-Mode of feeding
15
Q
The MNA is used for those age ____ and older
A
65
16
Q
The Nutrition Screening Initiative is used in what age group?
A
Elderly
17
Q
The Geriatric Nutrition Risk Index assesses what data?
A
-Serum albumin
-Weight change
18
Q
The Malnutrition Screening Tool (MST) is used in what population?
A
Acutely hospitalized adults
19
Q
The MST assesses what data?
A
-Recent weight loss
-Recent poor dietary intake
20
Q
The Nutrition Risk Screening (NRS) is used in what population?
A
Med-surg hospitalized pts over 70 years old
21
Q
The Nutrition Risk Screening assesses what data?
A
-% weight loss
-BMI
-Intake
22
Q
The Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool assesses what data?
A
-BMI
-Unintentional weight loss
-Effect of acute disease on intake for more than 5 days
23
Q
Nutrition ____ is initiated by referral/screening of individuals or groups for nutritional risk factors
A
Assessment
24
Q
Nutrition assessment makes comparisons between data collected and reliable _____
A
Standards
25
Assessment is an on-going, dynamic, process that involves continual reassessment and ____ and patient/client/group needs
Analysis
26
Nutrition assessment provides the basis for the nutrition _____
Diagnosis
27
What are some critical thinking skills that are needed during a nutrition assessment?
-Observe verbal/non-verbal cues that can guide effective interviewing methods
-Determine appropriate data to collect
-Select tools and procedures and apply in valid, reliable ways
-Distinguish relevant from irrelevant and important from unimportant
-Validate, organize, and categorize the data
28
What are the three components of a nutrition assessment?
-Review
-Cluster
-Identify
29
During an assessment, review data for factors that affect ____ and health status
Nutrition
30
Data is then clustered with characteristics of a ____ like food and nutrition-related history, lab/medical tests, NFPE findings, anthropometrics, and client history
Diagnosis
31
These indicators are compared to identified ____ (nutrition care criteria) and criteria for interpretation and decision-making; indicators are clearly defined markers that can be observed and measured
Standards
32
Nutrition indicators are used to ___ and ___ progress toward nutrition outcomes
Monitor and evaluate
33
What should be documented from an assessment?
-Date and time
-Pertinent data and comparison with the standards
-Patient's perceptions, values, and motivation related to the problem
-Changes in a patient's level of understanding, behaviors, and outcomes
-Reason for discharge
34
A diet ___ can give information on present patterns of eating (should avoid using leading questions)
History
35
A food ____ shows everything eaten in a specific period of time
Record/diary
36
A ____-____ ____ is a mental recall of everything eaten in that amount of time; it is a quick tool to estimate a sample daily intake in a clinical setting
24-hour recall
37
_____ and ____ are concerns with 24-hour food recalls
Underreporting and overreporting
38
A ____ ____ list asks how often an item is consumed; used in a community setting
Food frequency
39
Food frequency lists are a quick way to determine intake on ____ numbers of people
Large
40
Pertinent medical and family _____ provides insight into nutrition-related problems
History
41
_____ measurements are focused on body structure
Anthropometrics
42
Hamwi method for women:
100 lbs for the first 5 feet + 5 lb for every inch over 5 ft (+/- 10% for small or large frame) (if under 5 feet, subtract 5 lb for each inch)
43
Hamwi method for men:
106 lbs for the first 5 feet + 6 lbs for every additional inches (+/- 10% for small or large frame) (if under 5 feet, subtract 6 for each inch)
44
If someone has an entire leg amputation, subtract ____% of body weight from IBW
16
45
If someone has an amputation of the lower leg with foot (BKA), subtract ____% from IBW
6
46
If someone has a full arm amputation, subtract ____% from IBW
5
47
If someone has an amputation of the forearm with hand, subtract ____% from IBW
2.3
48
For a quadriplegic, subtract ____-____% from IBW; for a paraplegia, subtract ____-___%
10-15; 5-10
49
____ ____ ____ stresses the significance of weight change and can be used to assess nutritional risk
Percent weight change
50
Formula for calculating percent weight change?
[(Usual body weight - current body weight)/(usual body weight)] x 100
51
Significant weight loss is ____% within 6 months
10
52
____ ____ thickness measured body fat reserves and calorie reserves
Triceps skinfold
53
Standard male triceps skinfold measurement is ____ mm, for females it is ____ mm
12.5; 16.5
54
Arm muscle area measures skeletal ____ ____ (somatic protein)
Muscle mass
55
In order to determine arm muscle area, you must have measures for what two things?
-Triceps skin fold
-Midarm circumference
56
Standard male arm muscle area is ____ cm, for females it is _____ cm
25.3; 23.2
57
____ ____ ____ (Quetlet index) compared weight to height
Body mass index
58
Formula for calculating BMI:
(Weight in kg) / (height in m2)
59
Categories for BMI:
-Underweight: <18.5
-Normal weight: 18.5-24.9
-Overweight: 25-29.9
-Obese (class I): 30-34.9
-Obese (class II): 35-39.9
-Obese (class III, morbidly obese): 40+
60
BMI for age charts are used starting at age ____, when accurate stature can be obtained
2
61
Waist circumference of over ___ for men and over ____ for women is an independent risk factor for disease when out of proportion to total body fat (with BMI over 25)
40; 35
62
Waist circumference is best for assessing _____; it predicts central adiposity (lower torso around abdominal area)
Risk
63
EAL recommends measurement of BMI and waist circumference during _____ visit to determine risk of of CVD and type 2 diabetes
Annual
64
Waist/hip ratio differentiates between ____ and ____ obesity
Android; gynoid
65
A waist/hip ratio of ____ or greater in men or ____ or greater in women is indicative of android obesity and increased risk for obesity-related diseases like diabetes and hypertension
1; 0.8
66
____ ____ ____ is used at bedside to evaluate fat-free mass and total body water (usefulness in critical illness may be limited)
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
67
What conditions must be met for accurate BIA results?
-Must be well-hydrated
-No caffeine, alcohol, or diuretics in the past 24 hours
-No exercise in the past 4-6 hours
68
What things may affect the reliability of BIA results?
-Fever
-Electrolyte imbalance
-Extreme obesity
69
The ___ ___ measures air displacement plethysmography
Bod Pod
70
The bod pod measures body composition by determining body _____; it is determining the amount of air displaced and this is as accurate as underwater weighting
Density
71
The ___-___ ____ ___ is a visual assessment using sight, sense of smell and hearing to observe textures, sizes, colors, shapes, and sounds
Nutrition-focused physical exam
72
What information can be obtained from NFPE?
-Obesity
-Cachexia
-Fluid status
-Skin integrity
-Wound healing
-Feeding devices
-Jaundice
-Ascites
73
What two types of deficiencies could cause thin, sparse, dull, dry hair?
-Vitamin C
-Protein
74
If hair is easily pluckable, it indicates a ____ deficiency
Protein
75
What three deficiencies may cause eyes that are pale and dry with poor vision?
-Vitamin A
-Zinc
-Riboflavin
76
What deficiencies may cause lips that are swollen, red, dry, and cracked?
-Riboflavin
-Pyridoxine
-Niacin
77
What two deficiencies could cause a tongue that is smooth, slick, purple, or has a white coating?
-Vitamin(s)
-Iron
78
What deficiency could cause sore, red, swollen, or bleeding gums?
Vitamin C
79
What two deficiencies could cause missing or loss teeth and loss of enamel?
-Calcium
-Poor intake
80
What three deficiencies may lead to skin that is pale, dry, and scaly?
-Iron
-Folic acid
-Zinc
81
What two deficiencies could cause nails that are brittle, thin, and spoon-shaped?
-Iron
-Protein
82
____ is gathering data via touch using palms and fingertips
Palpation
83
What information can be obtained through palpation?
-Areas of tenderness
-Muscle rigidity
-Fluid retention or pitting edema
-Skin integrity and moisture
-Body temperature
84
____ involves listening to bowel using a stethoscope on the right lower quadrant which is the location of the ileocecal valve
Auscultation
85
Normal bowel sounds should sound every ___-___ seconds and should sound like high-pitched gurgling
5-15
86
Hypoactive bowel sounds sound every 15-20 seconds and may indicate ____ ____ or _____
Paralytic ileus or peritonitis
87
Hyperactive, continuous, high-pitched tickling sounds may indicate ____ or ____ ____
Diarrhea; intestinal obstruction
88
_____ is not performed by the dietitian, but findings are recorded in the medical record
Percussion
89
Intake and output are used to assess...
-Hydration status
-Fluid balance
90
Normal range for serum albumin is between ___-___ g/dL
3.5-5
91
Albumin maintaines ____ ___ ___
Colloidal osmotic pressure
92
Hypoalbuminemia is associated with...
-Edema
-Surgery
93
Albumin levels above the normal range are likely due to ____
Dehydration
94
Albumin has a long-half life, so albumin levels do not reflect current ____ ____
Protein intake
95
Serum transferrin should be above ____ mg/dl (visceral protein)
200
96
Transferrin transports iron to ____ ____
Bone marrow
97
Serum transferrin levels are controlled by the iron storage pool; levels rise with ____ ____
Iron deficiency
98
Serum transferrin levels can be determined from ___ ___ ___ ____
Total iron binding capacity
99
Serum transferrin is not useful as a measure of ____ ____
Protein status
100
The normal range for transthyretin, or prealbumin, is between ___-___ mg/dl
16-40
101
Prealbumin has a ____ half-life, so it picks up changes in protein status quickly
Short
102
During inflammation, the liver synthesizes ___-___ ___ at expense of prealbumin
C-reactive protein
103
Prealbumin has limited ____ in screening and assessment
Usefulness
104
The normal range for retinol-binding protein is between ___-___ mg/dl
3-6
105
Retinol-binding protein circulates with ____ and has the shortest half-life of 12 hours
Prealbumin
106
Retinol-binding protein binds and ____ retinol
Transports
107
Normal hematocrit for men is ____-____%
42-52
108
Normal hematocrit for women is ____-____%
36-48
109
Normal hematocrit for a pregnant woman is ____%
33
110
Normal hematocrit for a newborn is ___-___%
44-64
111
Hematocrit measures the ____ of packed cells in whole blood
Volume
112
Normal hemoglobin range for men is ___-___ gm/dl
14-18
113
Normal hemoglobin range for women is ___-___ gm/dl
12-16
114
Normal hemoglobin for pregnant women is ___ or more gm/dl
11
115
Hemoglobin is the ____-containing pigment of red blood cells
Iron
116
Red blood cells, or erythrocytes, are produced in the ___ ___
Bone marrow
117
Normal range for serum ferritin in men is ___-___ ng/ml
12-300
118
Normal range for serum ferritin for women is ___-___ ng/ml
10-150
119
Normal range for serum creatinine in men is ___-___ mg/dl
0.6-1.2
120
Normal range for serum creatinine in women is ____-____ mg/dl
0.5-1.1
121
Serum creatinine is related to ___ ___ and measures somatic protein
Muscle mass
122
A high serum creatinine may indicate ___ ____ ___
Chronic kidney disease
123
A low serum creatinine may indicate ___ ___
Muscle wasting
124
A normal creatinine height index is ____% or above
80
125
The creatinine height index is the ratio of creatinine excreted in ____ hours related to height
24
126
Creatinine height index estimates ____ ____ ____ (somatic protein)
Lean body mass
127
Creatinine height index of 60-80% indicates mild ____ ____
Muscle depletion
128
The normal range for blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is ___-___ mg/dl
10-20
129
BUN level is related to ____ intake
Protein
130
BUN is also an indicator of ____ disease
Renal
131
A normal BUN:Creatinine ratio is _____
10-15:1
132
A normal urinary creatinine clearance is...
115 +/- 20 ml/minute
133
Urinary creatinine clearance measures ____ ____ ____, which indicates renal function
Glomerular filtration rate
134
Estimated GFR included body surface ____ (height and weight)
Area
135
A normal total lymphocyte count is above ____ cells/cu mm
2700
136
Total lymphocyte count measures ____
Immunocompentency
137
A moderate depletion in total lymphocyte count is when counts are between ___-___
900-1800
138
A severe depletion in total lymphocyte count is when levels are under ____
900
139
Total lymphocyte count is ____ in someone with protein-calorie malnutrition
Decreased
140
C-reactive protein is a marker of ____ ____ ____
Acute inflammatory stress
141
As CRP declines, it indicates when ____ ____ would be beneficial
Nutrition therapy
142
When elevated CRP decreases, ____ increases
Prealbumin
143
Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin is a direct measure of toxic effects of ____ on heme synthesis (leading to anemia)
Lead
144
Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin is ____ with lead poisoning
Increased
145
Lead and ____ compete ay the plasma membrane for transport
Calcium
146
Normal prothrombin time is ___-___ seconds or 85-100% of normal
11-12.5
147
Hair analysis is not used for nutritional assessment, but useful for measuring intake of _____ _____
Toxic chemicals
148
For someone with a sedentary lifestyle, multiply basal energy expenditure by an activity factor of ____
1.2
149
For someone with an active lifestyle, multiply basal energy expenditure by an activity factor of ____
1.3
150
For someone with a highly active lifestyle or who is experiencing stress, multiply basal energy expenditure by an activity factor of ____
1.5
151
What are two examples of appetite stimulant medications?
-Megestrol acetate
-Marinol
152
Dextroamphetamine (Adderall) is an appetite _____
Suppressant
153
Dextroamphetamine (Adderall) can cause nutrition-related side effects such as...
-Anorexia
-Nausea
-Weight loss
154
Orlistat decreases fat absorption by binding to _____
Lipase
155
When taking Orlistat, you must supplement with ____/____
Vitamins/minerals
156
What are some possible nutrition-related side effects of Methylphenidate (Ritalin)?
-Anorexia
-Weight loss
-Nausea
157
What are the effects of statin drugs?
-Decreased LDL
-Decreased triglycerides
-Increased HDL
158
What is one food-drug interaction with statins?
Avoid grapefruit
159
Chemotherapy may cause ____ of certain nutrients
Malabsorption
160
Mineral oil and cholestyramine (used to lower cholesterol) may decrease absorption of ____ and ___-___ vitamins
Fat; fat-soluble
161
Glucocorticoids and antibiotics may cause ____ deficits
Protein
162
Oral contraceptives can decrease levels of...
-Folate
-Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
-Vitamin C
163
Loop diuretics can deplete...
-Thiamin
-Potassium
-Magnesium
-Calcium
-Sodium
164
Thiazide diuretics can deplete...
-Potassium
-Magnesium
165
Thiazide diuretics can increase absorption of ____
Calcium
166
Antibiotics can decrease levels of ____ ____
Vitamin K
167
Corticosteroid use can cause...
-Hyperglycemia
-Thin skin
-Hypertension
-Bone fracture
168
Methotrexate, a type of chemotherapy, can decrease levels of _____
Folate
169
Lithium carbonate can cause...
-Increased appetite
-Weight gain
170
It is important to maintain consistent ____ and ____ intake when taking lithium carbonate in order to stabilize levels
Sodium; caffeine
171
If sodium and caffeine levels are restricted, lithium levels excretion is ____, leading to toxicity
Decreased
172
Anticoagulants like Warfarin antagonize ___ ___ (important to have consistent intake)
Vitamin K
173
What should be avoided when taking Warfarin?
-Ginko biloba extract
-Garlic (may increase bleeding)
-Ginger (may increase bleeding)
-High dose vitamin A
-High dose vitamin E
174
____ is a pressor medication that is administered in oil
Propofol
175
Propofol provides ____ kcal/cc
1.1
176
For someone on propofol, check ____ levels
Triglyceride
177
Phenobarbitol, which is an anti-seizure medication, decreases levels of...
-Folic acid
-Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamine)
-Vitamin D
-Vitamin C
-Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
178
Cyclosporine, an immunosuppressant, can cause...
-Hyperlipidemia
-Hyperglycemia
-Hyperkalemia
-Hypertension
179
Isoniazid, which treats tuberculosis, depletes levels of ____
Pyridoxine (B6)
180
Isoniazid can cause peripheral ____
Neuropathy
181
Isoniazid should not be taken with ____
Food
182
Isoniazid interferes with...
-Vitamin D
-Calcium
-Phosphorus
183
Elavil (an antidepressant) can cause...
-Sedation
-Weight gain
-Increased appetite
184
Vitamin ____, as well as ____, can decrease the effects of Levodopa which is used to control symptoms of Parkinson's disease
B6 (pyridoxine) and protein
185
Levodopa should be taken in the ____ with limited protein (<10g), as it competes with the drug for absorption
Morning
186
____ binds tetracycline; avoid taking concurrently as it can decrease the effectiveness of the antibiotics
Calcium
187
_____ can cause hypertension if taken with MAIO drugs
Tyramine
188
Monoamine oxidase eliminates ____ from the brain
Dopamine
189
MAOIs interact with tyramine, causing them to release _____ which elevates blood pressure
Norepinephrine
190
What foods are high in tyramine and should be restricted in those taking MAOIs?
-Hard, aged cheese (cheddar, swiss)
-Sauerkraut
-Some sausages
-Lunch meats
-Tofu
-Miso
-Chianti wine
-Tomatoes
-Limit: sour cream, yogurt, buttermilk
191
What types of cheese are okay for someone on MAOIs?
-Cottage cheese
-Cream cheese
192
Good advice for someone on MAOIs is to buy, cook, and eat ____ food
Fresh
193
_____ is found in curry powder; it may reduce inflammation and act as an antioxidant
Curcumin (turmeric)
194
What are economic/social factors that influence food choices?
-Income
-Price of food
-Time spent on food activities
-How close to nearby stores
-Cultural practices that impact diet
-Access to healthy food during work
-What media is consumed/what are their sources of nutrition and food information?
195
An educational readiness assessment asks how ____ or ____ someone is to learn (readiness impacts educational methods)
Ready or willing
196
A general ____ assessment is a process that involves being aware of better health and actively working toward that goal; it includes physical health and well-being, as well as mental and spiritual healthy
Wellness
197
The first step in a nutrition assessment of a population/community needs assessment is to determine the ____ and ____ of the assessment
Purpose and goals
198
Obtain an overview of community needs to determine whether nutritional ____ are adequate, what groups are potentially high risk, and how well health needs are being met by existing programs
Resources
199
The next step would be to identify a target ____ and a nutrition problem of concern
Population
200
The next steps of conducting a community needs assessment:
-Set parameters of the assessment
-Collect data
-Analyze and interpret the data
-Share findings
-Set priorities
201
It is important to define ___ and ____, develop a plan, and define management systems
Goals and objectives
202
A ____ ____ ____ is a survey categorizing a population's general health status (used in worksites and government agencies as a health education screening tool)
Health Risk Appraisal
203
A Health Risk Appraisal consists of a _____, as well as calculations that predict disease risk, and educational messages to the participant
Questionnaire
204
Assessment information should include demographics like...
-Age
-Ethnic groups
-Sex
-Birth rates
-Deaths
-Socioeconomic stratification
205
____ describes disease rates, while _____ describes death rates
Morbidity; mortality
206
Infant mortality rates describe number of deaths under 1 year old expressed per ____ live births
1000
207
_____ describes the number of NEW cases of a disease over a period of time x 100,000 (provides estimate of total number of people at risk)
Incidence
208
_____ describes the total number of people with a disease during a period of time x 100,000 (average number of people
Prevalence
209
____ welfare programs evaluate the number and percent of the population receiving public aid
School
210
____ ____ is the access by all people at all times to sufficient food for an active and healthy life; it is the ready availability of nutritionally adequate and safe foods as an assured ability to acquire them in a socially acceptable manner
Food security
211
A ____ ____ ____ Initiative is the development of sustainable, community-based strategies to ensure that all have access to culturally acceptable, nutritionally adequate food at all times
Community Food Security
212
Strategies that strengthen local food systems:
-Farmer's markets (increased access to produce)
-Food recovery and gleaning programs (collect excess wholesome foods that would otherwise be thrown away for delivery to hungry people)
-Prepared and Perishable Food Programs (non-profit programs that link sources of unused, cooked, and fresh foods with social service agencies that serve the hungry)
213
Food insecurity is prevalent among ____ ____ recipients; it affects all ages, ethnicities, and locations, affects the working poor
Emergency food
214
A nutrition ____ is an examination of a population group at a particular point of time
Survey
215
A nutrition survey is considered a ___-____ study/exam; it pin-points problems
Cross-sectional
216
A nutrition survey determines ____ of a condition or characteristics at a specific time
Prevalence
217
What are two examples of nutrition surveys?
-WIC Program and Participant Characteristics (WIC PC)
-National Collaborative on Childhood Obesity Research (NCCOR)
218
Nutrition ____ is a continuous collection of data over time
Surveillance
219
Nutrition surveillance identifies a problem, sets baselines and priorities, and detects ____ in trends
Changes
220
Nutrition surveillance uses ____ parameters such as height, weight, hematocrit, hemoglobin, and serum cholesterol
Monitoring
221
Nutrition surveillance is an ongoing system linked to an active health ____ such as WIC, CDC, and Early Periodic Screening, Diagnosis, Treatment
Program
222
Data from nutrition surveillance identifies ____ and the kind of intervention needed
Need
223
The ____ ____ ____ promotes nutrition and improves nutritional care for the elderly to identify nutritional problems early
Nutrition Screening Initiative
224
The nutrition screening initiative uses the _____ checklist which identifies factors placing people at nutritional risk; it increases awareness of factors that influence nutritional health (Disease, Tooth loss, Economic hardship, Reduced social contact, Multiple medications, Involuntary weight gain or loss, Needs assistance in self-care, Elder years over age 80)
DETERMINE
225
A Level ____ screen identifies those who need more comprehensive assessments
I
226
A Level ___ screen provides more specific diagnostic information on nutritional status (RD must be involved)
II
227
A ___ ___ is a group of 5-12 people brought together to talk about concerns, beliefs, and problems
Focus group
228
A focus group can provide insights and information; they can contribute ____ data
Attitudinal
229
The National Nutrition Monitoring and Related Research Program (NNMRRP) includes all data and analysis activities of the ____ government related to measuring health and nutrition status, food consumption, and attitudes about diet and health
Federal
230
The NNMRRP is jointly run by the ____ and the _____
USDHHS and USDA
231
The Pediatric Nutrition Surveillance System (PedNSS) is run by the...
US Department of Health and Human Services (USDHHS)
232
The Pediatric Nutrition Surveillance System focuses on ___-___, high-risk children from birth to 17 years of age (focus on birth-5 years)
Low-income
233
What parameters does the Pediatric Nutrition Surveillance System monitor?
-Height
-Weight
-Birth-weight
-Hematocrit
-Hemoglobin
-Cholesterol
-Breast-feeding
234
The Pediatric Nutrition Surveillance System monitors ____ and ____ ____, as well as infant feeding practices
Growth and nutritional status
235
The Pregnancy Nutrition Surveillance System (PNSS) is run by the...
US Department on Health and Human Services
236
The Pregnancy Nutrition Surveillance System assesses what parameters?
-Maternal weight gain
-Anemia
-Pregnancy behavioral risk factors (smoking, alcohol)
-Birth-weight
-Counts # of women who breastfeed
237
The goal of The Pregnancy Nutrition Surveillance System is to identify and reduce pregnancy-related ____ ____
Health risks
238
The National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) is run by the...
Center for Disease Control (CDC)
239
NHANES is an ongoing (repeated) survey to obtain information on the ____ of the American people
Health
240
What kinds of data does NHANES assess and monitor?
-Clinical
-Chemical (hemoglobin, hematocrit, cholesterol)
-Anthropometric
-Nutritional (24-hour recall, food frequency lists)
241
NHANES III is an oversampling of adults ___ and older with NO upper age limit
65
242
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ is the dietary intake component of NHANES (also known as the National Food and Nutrition Survey)
What We Eat In America
243
What We Eat in America requires ___ days of 24-hour food recall with times of eating and sources of foods eaten away from home
2
244
The ___ ___ ____ ____ conducts over-sampling of adults 60 and older, African Americans, and Hispanics
United States Department of Agriculture
245
The USDA Nationwide Food Consumption Survey obtains information on food intake of ____ and ____ from the entire US
Individuals and households
246
The USDA Nationwide Food Consumption Surveys evaluates what 7 nutrients?
-Protein
-Calcium
-Iron
-Thiamin
-Riboflavin
-Vitamin C
-Vitamin A
247
The USDA Nationwide Food Consumption Surveys rates diets good if intakes equaled or surpassed the ____, rated poor if less than 2/3 is met for one or more nutrients
RDA
248
The Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance system is run by the...
US Department of Health and Human Services
249
The Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance system has a population of adults ____ and older residing in households with telephones
18
250
The Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance system conducts _____ interviews to collect information on height, weight, smoking, alcohol use, and food frequency for fat, fruits, and vegetables
Telephone
251
The Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System is run by the...
US Department of Health and Human Services
252
The Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System assesses those ___-___ years old
9-12
253
What data does The Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System monitor?
-Smoking
-Alcohol use
-Weight control
-Exercise
-Eating habits
254
The Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System assesses ____ of health risk behaviors among young people
Prevalence
255
The Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System and the Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System can monitor changes in ___ ___ behaviors over time and can better target health promotion efforts to populations most at risk
Risk behavior
256
The Food Safety and Nutrition Survey (FSANS) is run by the...
Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
257
The Food Safety and Nutrition Survey assesses consumers' awareness, knowledge, and reported behaviors related to ___ ___ and nutrition-related topics
Food safety
258
The Food Safety and Nutrition Survey helps to make better informed ___, ____, and ____ decisions to promote and protect public health
Regulatory, policy, educational
259
There are federal and state food and nutrition ____ programs
Assistance
260
Temporary Assistance for Needy Families helps needly families achieve ___-___ and helps foster economic security and stability
Self-sufficiency
261
Eligibility and the benefits/services of Temporary Assistance for Needy Families is determined by the ____ (funds are granted to states)
State
262
Temporary Assistance for Needy Families is ___-limited
Time
263
The USDA Commodity Food Donation/Distribution Program provides food to help meet the nutritional needs of children and adults and strengthens _____ market for products produced by American farmers
Agricultural
264
The USDA Commodity Food Donation/Distribution Program provides food to...
-School lunch programs
-Elderly feeding programs
-Supplemental feeding programs
265
The Commodity Supplemental Food Program (funded by USDA) is administered by ____ health agencies
State
266
The Commodity Supplemental Food Program provides ____ commodity canned or packaged food
Monthly
267
The goal of The Commodity Supplemental Food Program is to improve the health of low-income elderly people at least ____ years of age
60
268
To qualify for The Commodity Supplemental Food Program, some states may require that participants be at ____ ____
Nutritional risk
269
The Emergency Food Assistance Program (TEFAP) provides ____ distributions of commodity foods by local, public or private nonprofit agencies, food banks, soup kitchens, or homeless shelters
Quarterly
270
The Emergency Food Assistance Program supplements the diet of low-income households; provides ___-___ hunger relief
Short-term
271
The National School Lunch Program is funded by the...
USDA Food and Nutrition Services
272
The National School Lunch Program is an ____ program to improve the nutrition of children, especially from low-income families; it uses surplus production of foods
Entitlement
273
The National School Lunch Program also receives cash grants and food donations; dollars reimburse schools on the basis of ____ of meals served
Numbers
274
The National School Lunch Program implements the ____ ____ into the Lunch and Breakfast Programs
Dietary Guidelines
275
The National School Lunch Program requires that, on average, over the course of the school week, that lunch must provide ____ of the recommended intake for protein, vitamin A, vitamin C, iron, and calcium
1/3
276
Grades 9-12 are required to receive ____ ounces of meat per serving; nuts must be combined and only used for half the requirements
2
277
_____ flour is considered whole grain with The National School Lunch Program
Graham
278
For grades K-5, one serving of vegetables is ____ based on The National School Lunch Program
3/4
279
100% full-strength juice may be used as ____ of weekly servings of fruit according to The National School Lunch Program
1/2
280
Team Nutrition implements School Meals Initiatives for Healthy Children motivates children to make healthy choices and helps schools meet ____
Guidelines
281
Team Nutrition implements School Meals Initiatives for Healthy Children provides ____, ____, and ____ to child nutrition professionals
Recipes, training, support
282
The National School Breakfast Program is funded by the _____
USDA
283
The National School Breakfast Program is an entitlement program; meals must meet federal ____ ____
Dietary guidelines
284
According to the National School Breakfast Program, breakfast must provide, on average over the course of the school week, ____ of daily recommended level for protein, calcium, iron, vitamin A, and vitamin C
1/4
285
The Afterschool Snack Program provides health snacks and is funded by the ____
USDA
286
The Afterschool Snack Program has the same eligibility criteria as the school lunch program; receives cash subsidies for each ____ served
Snack
287
The Special Milk Program is funded by the ____
USDA
288
The Special Milk Program provides milk to children in schools and childcare who do not participate in other ___ ___ ___
Federal meal services
289
The Special Milk Program ____ schools for milk served
Reimburses
290
The Summer Food Service Program is related to the ____ ____ ____ program
USDA School Lunch
291
The Summer Food Service Program is another entitlement program; the purpose is to initiate, maintain, or expand foodservice programs to children and teens in low-income areas when school is ____ of session
Out
292
The Summer Food Service Program reimburses provides for meals served at a ____ site, 18 and younger
Central
293
The Summer Food Service Program can be administered by...
-USDA food and nutrition services
-State educational agencies
-Public or private nonprofit residential summer camps
294
The Child and Adult Care Food Program is funded by the ____
USDA
295
The Child and Adult Care Food Program supports public and non-profit food service programs for...
-Family day care centers
-Neighborhood houses
-Homeless shelters
-Nonresidential adult daycare centers
296
The Child and Adult Care Food Program reimburses operators for ____ costs; also provides commodity food and nutrition education materials
Meal
297
To be reimbursed from The Child and Adult Care Food Program, meals must meet ____ and they must offer free or reduced-price to eligible people
Guidelines
298
The eligibility criteria for The Child and Adult Care Food Program is the same as it is for the ___ ___ ___ program
National School Lunch
299
The Fresh Fruit and Vegetable Program is funded by the ____
USDA
300
The Fresh Fruit and Vegetable Program introduces ____ to fresh fruits and vegetables and helps develop eating habits that improve health, prevent obesity and subsequent chronic disease
Children
301
The Fresh Fruit and Vegetable Program is ____ to children at eligible elementary schools who operate the National School Lunch Program
Free
302
____ is for pregnant, postpartum, and breastfeeding women as well as infants and children up to age 5
WIC
303
WIC provides food for low-income mothers at nutritional risk, which includes...
-Abnormal weight gain
-History of high risk
-Low birth weight
-Underweight
-Overweight
-Anemia
304
What criteria is assessed to determine eligibility for WIC?
-Weight
-Height
-Head circumference in infants
-Hemoglobin
-Hematocrit
305
WIC provides food, nutrition education, as well as ____ to other agencies
Referrals
306
A ___ ___ is required to determine eligibility at WIC
Health exam
307
To be eligible for WIC, women/children need to meet ____ standards, but at nutritional risk, and be in need of foods offered
Income
308
What foods are provided by WIC?
-Iron-fortified formula
-Cereal
-Milk
-Cheese
-Fruit juice
309
WIC is NOT an _____ program; there is a cap on the amount of federal dollars allocated
Entitlement
310
What groups does WIC prioritize?
-Pregnant women
-Breastfeeding women
-Infants up to 1 year
311
WIC ___ ___ ___ ____ provides coupons to purchase fresh, locally grown foods at farmer's markets
Farmer's Market Nutrition Program
312
WIC provides ____ cards that contain a participant's allotted funds
EBT (electronic benefits transfer)
313
The Expanded Food and Nutrition Education Program is funded by the ____
USDA
314
The Expanded Food and Nutrition Education Program provides ____ to universities that assist in community development
Grants
315
The Expanded Food and Nutrition Education Program trains nutrition aides to educate the ____ (works with small groups, teaches skills needed to obtain a healthy diet)
Public
316
The Expanded Food and Nutrition Education Program does not provide _____
Food
317
The Maternal and Child Health Block Grant is funded by the...
US Department of Health and Human Services
318
The Maternal and Child Health Block Grant is housed under Title ____ of the Social Security Act
V
319
The Maternal and Child Health Block Grant fosters ___ ___ nutrition programs at the state and local level
Public health
320
The Maternal and Child Health Block Grant provides ____, ____, and ____
Training, consultation, funding
321
Those eligible for The Maternal and Child Health Block Grant are ____ of childbearing age, ____, and ____ (state eligibility requirements)
Women, children, infants
322
Health Start is funded by...
US Department of Health and Human Services
323
The goals of Healthy Start include...
-Reduce infant mortality
-Improve health of low-income women, infants, children, and families
324
The Nutritional Services Incentive Program is funded by the...
Administration on Aging
325
The Nutritional Services Incentive Program developed services to foster ____ living; provides cash and commodities to state agencies
Independent
326
The Older American Act Nutrition Program is funded by the...
US Department of Health and Human Services (Title III)
327
The Older American Act Nutrition Program provides one hot meal per day, ____ days per week
5
328
The meals provided by The Older American Act Nutrition Program provide ___ of daily recommended intake
1/3
329
Who is eligible for The Older American Act Nutrition Program?
All adults 60 or over plus spouse, regardless of income
330
The Older American Act Nutrition Program also provides ____ meals for ambulatory adults; transportation is essential for rural adults
Congregate
331
The Older American Act Nutrition Program provided ____-delivered meals (Meals on Wheels), only to those who are homebound
Home
332
In addition to meals, The Older American Act Nutrition Program provides...
-Counseling
-Nutrition education
-Referrals
-Social interaction
