Domain IV: Foodservice Systems: Procurement, Production, Distribution, Service Flashcards
(441 cards)
1
Q
____ is the first functional subsystem; the function of acquiring material for production (purchase, receive, storage, inventory control)
A
Procurement
2
Q
A ____ center is assigned both expense and revenue responsibilities (ex: cafeteria)
A
Profit
3
Q
A _____ center manages expenses, but does not generate profit (patient)
A
Cost
4
Q
An informal, ____ market is used when a small amount of food is needed quickly
A
Open
5
Q
A buyer requests _____ on specific items for specific amounts and quantities from one or more sources of supply; contact made by phone or with a vendor
A
Quotes
6
Q
An order is placed after considering…
A
-Price
-Quality
-Delivery
7
Q
In formal, competitive ____ ____, someone provides written specifications and quantity needs to vendors who then submit a price
A
Bid buying
8
Q
____ are opened together; place order with the lowest bid (lowest price)
A
Bids
9
Q
With _____ contracts, you purchase goods at a specific price to be shipped later
A
Future
10
Q
_____ vending uses a single vendor for the majority of purchases; saves time and money
A
Prime
11
Q
With _____ purchasing, personnel in one office does all purchasing for all units in that organization; this is cost-effective and time-saving
A
Centralized
12
Q
Group or co-op purchasing involves a ____ or separate units who are not related to a single management, for joint purchasing
A
Union
13
Q
There is an economic advantage of group purchasing due to large _____ discounts
A
Volume
14
Q
___-___-___ purchasing is when a food service system purchases products as needed for production and immediate consumption by customers, without having to store and record them in inventory; receiving clerks take items immediately to the area in which they will be used
A
Just-in-time
15
Q
The purchasing _____ is the first document used in the purchasing process; it is an internal form used to request items from the purchasing manager
A
Requisition
16
Q
The purchasing ____ is completed by the buyer; it is a written record of items ordered and quantities needed
A
Order
17
Q
_____ purchasing orders eliminate the need to call in dairy or weekly orders (used for everyday things like milk and bread)
A
Standing
18
Q
____-____-____ products are delivered with all transport charges paid
A
Free-on-board
19
Q
With free-on-board ____, the buyer takes ownership of the products at the seller’s location
A
Origin
20
Q
A written ____ is an accurate word, picture, or definition of a product
A
Specification
21
Q
Product specifications are precise statements of quality (brief, complete, simple); they include…
A
-Name
-Form
-Quantity
-Quality
-Size
-Grade
-Brand
-Style
-Sieve size
22
Q
_____ specifications indicate the quality of a product by objective and impartial test results (graded food items, gauge of metal)
A
Technical
23
Q
A ____-____ allows a buyer to open cans for comparison among brands
A
Can-cutting
24
Q
Approved brand specifications indicate ____ by specifying brand names
A
Quality
25
_____ specifications indicate quality by functioning characteristics of the product (Ex: how many dishes washed/minute)
Performance
26
A ____ has descriptions of all approved products that an organization (or a department) would like all personnel (who need such a product) to use; volume discounts can be used, standardizes usage
Formulary
27
Evaluate vendor _____ (price, quality, service) after several orders have been filled
Performance
28
What are examples of value-added services?
-Chopped lettuce vs heads of lettuce
-Coffee-making equipment with the purchase of coffee products
29
A buyer's ___ ___ ____ can serve as a legal agent for the organization (first, consider the interest of your company)
Code of Ethics
30
Buy without _____ and obtain maximum value for each dollar spent
Prejudice
31
____ bribery and kickbacks from sellers; respect your obligations
Denounce
32
Avoid ____ with vendors; decline gifts and favors that could compromise your ability to make objective purchasing decisions
Collusion
33
A food ____ does not own products, but they connect buyers with sellers and make deals
Broker
34
What are examples of food service management systems?
-Computrition
-CBORD
-Dietary Manager
-ChefMax
35
Procurement decisions are determined by ____
Needs
36
The amount of food to order is based on...
-Number to be served
-Portion sizes
-Amount of waste
37
When determining how many servings can be obtained from an uncooked item, consider the ____ ____ in preparation
Percent lost
38
____ ____ ____ is a quantitative approach to ordering staple or regularly stocked items
Economic order quantity
39
Economic order quantity attempts to find the quantity that minimizes both ____ and ____ costs (determines the order size that is most economical)
Purchasing and inventory
40
The total annual cost of restocking an inventory depends don't he number of times it is ____ each year
Ordered
41
To decrease costs, place orders as ____ as possible by ordering large quantities
Seldom
42
When the cost of ____ an order aligns with the cost of ____ the items, economic order quantity is obtained
Placing; holding
43
A ____ _____ is a short-term forecast; it is an assumption that needs to follow an identifiable pattern over time
Time series
44
A ____ average uniformly weighs past observations (numbers are weighted equally)
Moving
45
____ ____ uses software to forcast usage; it gives more recent values more weight; does not uniformly weigh past observations
Exponential smoothing
46
____ models follow the assumption that a relationship exists between the item being forecast and other factors such as selling price and number of customers
Casual
47
Medium- and long-term forecasts are _____ to develop
Expensive
48
One example of a medium/long-term forecast is ____ ______ forecasting; based on the assumption that relationships between variables will continue over time
Regression analysis
49
A _____ model of forecasting is used when relevant data are scarce or when the relationship between data do not tend to persist over time (must rely on opinion)
Subjective
50
The ____ technique is an example of subjective forecasting; relies on expert opinions (market research, panel consensus)
Delphi
51
The ____ ____ is the *first control* in the receiving process
Purchase order
52
The receiving area is close to ___ docks with easy access to storage
Loading
53
An _____ is a vendor's delivery slip that accompanies the order
Invoice
54
The invoice is the supplier's statement of...
-Items being shipped
-Unit price
-Total expected payment
55
First, compare the invoice against the ____ ___
Purchase order
56
Next, compare the invoice against the ____
Items
57
____ items upon delivery, list on receiving report, and then store property
Inspect
58
In the ___ ____ receiving method, give the clerk a blind invoice or purchase order listing incoming merchandise but omitting quantities and weights; the receiving clerk inserts these numbers into the order on the basis of a check of the delivery (this forces the clerk to make serious checks of the delivery
Blind check
59
Downsides of using the blind check receiving method:
-Takes longer
-Costs more in labor
60
A daily ____ ____ lists the items received, date, number of units, unit price, supplier, and PO number
Receiving report
61
Use a _____ invoice when an order arrives without an invoice
Substitution
62
A request for ____ lists discrepancies such as shortages
Credit
63
The person who purchased the items should not be the one to ____ them
Receive
64
Schedule hours for ____; avoid busiest production times, and avoid too many deliveries arriving at the right time
Receiving
65
If there is any indication that frozen fish has been allowed to _____, reject it
Thaw
66
The amount of ____ in a facility depends on the frequency of deliveries, the market form of food purchased (raw, prepared, partially prepared), the extent of the menu
Storage
67
Store items at the point of first use; store heavier items ____ and lighter items ____
Lower, higher
68
____ storage should be dry, cool, dark, well-ventilated, and clean
Dry
69
There should be a separate room for dry food products and ____ supplies
Cleaning
70
The temperature of dry storage rooms should be between ____-____ degrees F
50-70
71
Storage areas should be well _____, meaning that there is good circulation of air that removes moisture and odors
Ventilated
72
Cartons and bags should be stored on shelves at least ____ inches above the floor and away from walls
6
73
Humidity is measured with a ____; should read between 50-60% in dry storage
Hygrometer
74
Fresh fruits and vegetables require the highest humidity of ___-___%
85-90
75
All potentially hazardous foods should be stored under ____ degrees F in the fridge
41
76
Fresh fruits and vegetables can be stored at temperatures between ____-____ degrees F
40-45
77
Meat, dairy, and eggs must be stored at temperatures between ____-____ degrees F
32-40
78
Frozen foods should bet stored between ____-____ degrees F
0-10
79
Fresh eggs in the shell can be safely stored in the fridge for ____-____ weeks
3-5
80
Raw egg yolks and/or whites can be stored safely in the fridge for ___-___ days
2-4
81
Fresh poultry, ground meat, fresh fish, and shellfish can be safely stored in the fridge or ___-__ days
1-2
82
Steaks, chops, and roasts can be stored safely in the fridge for ___-___ days
3-5
83
_____ decreases if employees know management is watching
Theft
84
Employees should have to sign in and out when taking items from the ____
Storeroom
85
Theft is ____ burglary without force
Premeditated
86
_____ is burglary with force
Robbery
87
_____ is inventory shrinkage caused by employees stealing food
Pilferage
88
Inventory management tells you ____ and ___ ___ to order
When, how much
89
____ inventory management is a running record or balance on hand
Perpetual
90
With perpetual inventory management, inventory is updated each time an item is ____ in or ____ from storage
Placed; taken
91
Perpetual inventory management is used in large operations that keep large quantities of product in ____; generally restricted to dry and frozen storage
Stock
92
Products such as bread, produce, and milk are not on inventory and are considered ____ ____
Direct issues
93
____ inventory management is an actual count of all goods on hand at the end of accounting period
Physical
94
Physical inventory is counted as an _____ on balance sheet
Asset
95
The ____ ____ method is when stock is bought up to par level each time an order is placed regardless of the amount on hand (ex: if par is 10 and you have 8, order 2)
Par stock
96
A fixed order quantity inventory system determines the ___ ___ (when you must reorder the item)
Order point
97
How to calculate the order point:
(average daily use x lead time) + safety stock
98
The ____ ____ is the number of days from placing the order until delivery
Lead time
99
____ ____ is the small backup supply to ensure against sudden increases in use
Safety stock
100
___ ___, ____ ____stock rotation is the process of rearranging merchandise so that the older containers are in the front and are issued first; takes extra work but pays off by eliminating the problem of stale merchandise
First in, first out
101
The ___-___ method of storing products is where stock is allowed to deplete to safety level before new order is placed; establish minimum and maximum amounts to have on hand (order goods when minimum is reached and only in amounts needed to reach the maximum level; the amount of item ordered will be the same each time it is ordered)
Mini-max
102
The ____ inventory classification system is based on the fact that small amounts of product account for a major portion of inventory value
ABC
103
With the ABC inventory classification system, the relative importance of each inventory item is measured by how much the total value of purchases is for that item each ____ (this is the activity level)
Year
104
The ABC method indicates that <20% of the total number of items in stock constitute 75-80% of the total annual value of purchases (____ items; vital and high value); 50-60% of inventory items comprise only 5-10% of the value (____ items; trivial, low value)
A; C
105
Items between the A and C range are in the ___ class (moderate, medium value)
B
106
Tightest inventory controls are needed for A items, which are the most ____ (often proteins)
Expensive
107
The ____ purchase price is based on the true price for the items; count products; add value of all products on hand
Actual
108
____ average purchase price is time-consuming to determine; based on the average price paid for products over time
Weighted
109
To determine the weighted average purchase price, multiply the number of units of each product in opening inventory and those ____ during the month by the purchase price; add these prices and divide by the total number of units
Purchased
110
FIFO is based on the ____ price paid, multiplied by the number of units in inventory
Last
111
FIFO uses the most ____ prices, so tends to price inventory high
Recent
112
Last in, first out uses the ____ price paid for an item in inventory; usually underestimates the value of the current inventory; current purchases are largely made to meet current production demands
Oldest
113
You could also use the ____ purchase price to determine the value of the inventory; this is simple and fast
Last
114
____ procedures are removed on written orders only (storeroom requisition or issue sheet); should be locked and well organized; one person in control
Issuing
115
Benefits of a central ingredient room:
-Quality control measure
-Assure storage, inventory, and production control
-Saves food costs
116
Inventory technology is the use of ___ ____ to identify products; includes a 5-digit manufacturing ID number and a 5-digit product number
Bar Codes
117
_____ systems are mixtures of solids, liquids, and gases
Dispersion
118
An example of gas in a liquid is...
Whipped egg whites (foam)
119
An example of gas in a solid is...
Sponge cake (suspension)
120
An example of a liquid in a liquid is...
Mayonnaise (emulsion)
121
An example of a solid in a liquid is...
Gravy (sol)
122
An example of a liquid in a solid is...
Custard (gel)
123
Small particles dispersed (salt, sugar) make a ____ ____
True solution
124
Large particles (protein, cooked starch) dispersed makes a ____ ____
Colloidal dispersion
125
Clumps of molecules like ____ or ____ ____ create a suspension that separates upon standing
Fat; uncooked starch
126
What can you do in order to change the degree of dispersion?
-Apply heat
-Beat
127
An _____ is a line that forms between two immiscible liquids (oil and water)
Interface
128
Most vegetables are slightly ____ with a relatively high pH
Alkaline
129
Acid is needed to process vegetables at a temperature higher than 212 degrees F in order to destroy ____
Botulism
130
Pressure cookers can be used to can low-acid vegetables because they reach temperatures higher than ____
212 degrees F
131
____ are sometimes pickled with vinegar (acetic acid) which lowers the pH, and can no be canned in a boiling water bath
Beets
132
Acid causes the loss of ____ when green vegetables are overcooked or canned
Color
133
How does acid cause the loss of color in green vegetables?
-Heat disrupts cells and releases organic acids
-H ions from the acid come into contact with the magnesium in the chlorophyll
-Magnesium is removed; molecule becomes pheophytin which is brown or olive color
134
To prevent the loss of color in green vegetables...
-Cook for short periods of time
-Leave lid off for the first few minutes of cooking to allow escape of volatile acids
135
When baking soda (alkaline) is added to green vegetables, there will be an intense green color due to ____
Chlorophyllin
136
While alkaline substances enhance the color of green vegetables, they make the texture ____ and cause the loss of ___-soluble vitamins
Mushy; water
137
Cream of tartar (acid) in angel food cake has many functions such as...
-Maintains white color by preventing the Maillard browning reaction
-Contributes to large volume by stabilizing egg-white foam
-Contributes to tender crumb
138
Without cream of tartar in an angel food cake, the cake would be...
-Tough
-Yellow
-Small
139
_____ act as catalysts to facilitate chemical reactions
Enzymes
140
Enzymes may remain ____ after a cell dies; must be controlled
Active
141
All enzymes are _____, so their activity is affected by temperature and pH
Proteins
142
Enzymes play a role in the ripening of fruits; they covert ____ to ____ and soften the fruit
Starch to sugar
143
Enzymatic ____ causes browning of cut surfaces of fruit; you can use acid to slow this process; acid will lower the pH and inhibit enzymatic activity to prevent oxidation
Oxidation
144
You should ____ vegetables before freezing to destroy enzymes (boiling water quickly, then cold water)
Blanch
145
Non-enzymatic browning is caused by the ____ reaction
Maillard
146
The initial step of the Maillard reaction is the combination of a ____ ____ (all simple sugars except sucrose) and an ___ ___
Reducing sugar and amino acid
147
The Maillard reaction mostly occurs in an _____ environment; baking soda and solid sugar will result in deep brown colors (not baking powder)
Alkaline
148
For more rapid browning, increase the ____ (6 or higher) or increase the _____
pH or temperature
149
With _____ cooking, heat moves from one particle to another by contact
Conduction
150
Examples of good conductors:
-Copper
-Black cast iron
-Aluminum
151
Examples of poor conductors:
-Glass
-Stainless steel
152
An example of conduction is meat kept warm on a dish sitting on ____ pellet
Heated
153
_____ is a cooking method where heated air is moved with a fan
Convection
154
Convection cooks by the transfer of heat by the circulation of hot air or liquid resulting from the change in _____ when heated; as the less dense, hot substance rises, it pushes aside the more dense, cooler material; the cooler portion sinks to the bottom, where it comes into contact with the metal of the pan or heating element
Density
155
_____ is the use of electric magnetic vibrations to excite the molecules of metal cooking surface
Induction
156
An induction burner has no ____ ____, and the burner surface does not get hot
Open flame
157
With induction, the pan itself is the original generator of the cooking heat, transferred to food by _____
Conduction
158
Induction cooking is ____-based
Iron
159
Benefits of induction cooking:
-Faster heat
-No wasted heat
160
_____ is caused by infrared waves coming from glowing heat (gas flame, charcoal, electrical element, toasting, broiling)
Radiation
161
One example of radiation is a ____, which causes kinetic action (friction) that cooks food
Microwave
162
A microwave affects only _____ molecules and penetrates two inches into food
Water
163
____ ____ is the subsequent distribution of heat by conduction when the magnetron is turned off
Standing time
164
In food service, a microwave is mainly used to heat ____ foods; on-demand feeding
Prepared
165
Disadvantages of microwave cooking:
-Uneven heat
-Lack of browning in foods cooked for a short time
-Simmer or stew to tenderize is not possible
-Limited to small amounts
-Should not be used to heat infant formula
166
Cooking steak on a grill, or meat braising in a steam-jacketed kettle use both ____ and ____ cooking methods
Conduction; radiation
167
_____ foods are composed of a variety of natural and/or synthetic ingredients texturized and modified to stimulate the appearance and taste of a particular product
Engineered
168
Advantages of engineered food:
-Consistent in year-round availability, taste, appearance, nutrient content
-Increases shelf life
169
Meat ____ are made up of isolated soy protein, along with vegetable protein, fat, carbohydrate, vitamins, minerals, flavor, and color (less fat than meat, about 50% protein, and no saturated fat)
Analogs
170
Seafood analogs are made up of ____ blended with fish; retains flavor and does not change greatly with heat, this reducing weight loss and shrinkage (economical)
Soy
171
What are examples of engineered vegetable blends?
-Incaparina (maize, sorghum, cottonseed flour)
-CSM (corn, soy, non-fat dry milk, vitamins, minerals)
172
Molds grown in warm (between ___-____ degrees F), damp, dark conditions
77-86
173
Mold grows best in ____ conditions or on neutral or sweet foods
Acidic
174
Mold is used in curing cheese and making soy sauce; it usually does not produce ____ substances
Harmful
175
Food can be ____ to destroy molds
Boiled
176
Yeasts grow best in temperatures between ___-____ degrees F
77-86
177
Yeast is used for ____-making
Bread
178
Yeast produces bubbles of ____; can be destroyed by boiling
Gas
179
Bacteria need abundant ____ and a neutral pH to grow best
Moisture
180
Bacteria grows best in temperatures between ____-____ degrees F
68-113
181
Some bacteria can grow at temperatures above 113 degrees F; these are _____ bacteria (may be aerobic or anaerobic)
Thermophilic
182
Bacteria is destroyed by temperatures of _____ (145 degrees for 30 minutes)
Pasteurization
183
The temperature danger zone for bacterial growth is between ____-____ degrees F
40-140
184
FATTOM describes the ideal conditions for microorganism growth; it stands for:
-Food
-Acidity
-Temperature
-Time
-Oxygen
-Moisture
185
Enzymes produce both ____ and ____ effects; they act at body temperature and are inactivated at boiling temperature
Desirable and undesirable
186
Freezing foods at under ____ degrees is the least damaging to flavor and texture
0
187
Freezing preserves...
-Quality
-Nutritive value
-Chemical and physical properties
188
The growth of ____ is prevented by cold temperatures and lack of water when frozen
Microorganisms
189
Adding ____ to foods being frozen causes loss of flavor and increases rancidity of any item containing fat
Salt
190
The action of ____ is slow, but noticeable over time in frozen foods
Enzymes
191
Commercially, quick-frozen meals have ____ crystals with a smooth feeling
Small
192
_____ is a process that includes drying food to 50% of its weight and volume, and then freezing
Dehydrofreezing
193
Thaw potentially hazardous foods in the ____, or submerge under running cold water at 70 degrees or lower
Fridge
194
If frozen food is thawed in the microwave, it must be _____ immediately
Cooked
195
____ freezing is freezing at very low temperatures (-238 degrees) using liquid nitrogen or carbon dioxide
Cryogenic
196
Drying can be used to preserve because low ____ content prevents the growth of microorganisms
Moisture
197
There needs to be an appropriate water level in ____ foods to ensure food safety and shelf life; microorganisms grow well at an AW of 0.91-0.99
Dehydrated
198
The AW that limits growth is ___-___; the lower limit for all microorganisms is 0.6 AW
0.7-0.9
199
Dehydrated fruits have ____% of water removed; dehydrated vegetables have ____% of water removed
80; 95
200
Enzymes are inactivated by _____
Blanching
201
In the process of ____, food is frozen first, and then water is evaporated without melting crystals
Sublimation
202
The USDA's _____ inspects canned product manufacturing
FSIS
203
Canned foods last up to...
1 year
204
Canning is done under high ____ for a short amount of time in order to preserve quality
Pressure
205
Bacteria grow best in foods with a pH near ____; most foods have a pH of 7 or less
Neutrality
206
High _____ foods support less bacteria growth
Acid
207
____ is more readily destroyed by heat in acid
Botulism
208
If pH is low (4.5 or under-> acid is high), use ____ ____ in the canning process (strawberries, apples, pickles)
Boiling water
209
If pH is high (>4.5-> acid is low), use ____ ____ in the canning process (carrots, beets, peas)
Pressure cooker
210
_____ compounds are additives used in canned foods used as humectants; they retain moisture, increase firmness, and tenderness
Calcium
211
_____ canning is when food is sterilized outside the can, then placed in sterile cans which are sealed in a clean
Aseptic
212
When pickling foods, the acidity level of the vinegar used must be at least ____%
5
213
_____ spoilage may occur in canned foods due to an interaction between contents and an imperfect container
Chemical
214
_____ is cold sterilization (the temperature of the food does not rise much even though large amounts of energy are used)
Irradiation
215
Products that are irradiated are marked with the ____ symbol
Radura
216
Irradiation is used to prevent ___-___ in meat; irradiate frozen
Off-flavors
217
Irradiation is approved by the FDA for what products?
-Spices
-Beef
-Lamb
-Pork
-Poultry
-Wheat
-Potatoes
218
Irradiation kills most harmful bacteria in foods other than ____
Milk
219
_____, also known as high-pressure processing, extends shelf life (ex: guacamole)
Pascalization
220
Chemical preservatives such as ____ and ____ are antioxidants for fatty products (used to preserve butter and meat)
BHA, BHT
221
____ and ____ make water unavailable for bacterial growth
Sugar and salt
222
A ____ ____ tells the food service operation what to do and when to do it
Production schedule
223
A production schedule assures efficient use of employee ____ and minimal production problems; it assigns preparation to employees by hour of the day
Time
224
____ recipes produce a known quantity of food in the desired quality
Standardized
225
What is included in a standardized recipe?
-Name
-Ingredients
-Procedures
-Pan sizes
-Baking time
-Temperature
-Quantity and number of portions of specified size
-Standards of quality expected
226
Standardized recipes must be ____ and ____ for use
Tested and adapted
227
Quality control is obtained through...
-Employee evaluations
-Taste panels
-Customer reaction
228
The problem with quality control is the lack of ____ measures
Objective
229
_____ control is obtained through proper forecasting and controlling portion sizes
Quantity
230
In order to maintain quantity control, servers should be aware of...
-Size of portion
-Dish
-Serving tool
231
The scoop number indicates how many scoops it would take to get to a _____
Quart
232
A quart contains ____ cups
4
233
To determine the volume of a scoop, divide the scoop number by ____ to get the volume in cups (#8 scoop/4= 0.5 cups)
4
234
To determine the amount of ounces in a scoop, divide the scoop number by ____
32
235
A _____ process chart is used to schedule and control work
Gantt
236
Gantt process charts are concerned with the ____ of production, not the cost
Time
237
Rows on Gantt process charts are ____ to be completed
Tasks
238
Horizontal bars of Gantt process charts indicate the ____ _____ to complete each task
Time frame
239
The Program Evaluation and Review Technique and the Critical Path Method are evaluation tools used for effective ____ and control of the functions of management; network for decision-making
Planning
240
The Program Evaluation and Review Technique and the Critical Path Method show relationships among ____ of a project
Phases
241
The Program Evaluation and Review Technique and the Critical Path Method show what activities must await ____ of other tasks and which activities can be performed _____
Completion; concurrently
242
The Program Evaluation and Review Technique and the Critical Path Method can calculate the total amount of ____ needed to complete a task; need sequencing requirements and an estimate of the time required for each activity
Time
243
The critical path method (longest path through) determines the ____ time for completion (helps to determine labor costs); if any of these steps are delayed, the completion of the project will also be delayed
Minimum
244
In _____ production systems, all preparation is done on the same premises where meals are served; foods are prepared and served on the same day (immediate service)
Conventional
245
Advantages of conventional production systems:
-More adaptable to individual preferences
-Menu flexibility
-Low distribution costs
-Less freezer space needed
246
Disadvantages of conventional production systems:
-Uneven stressful workday caused by peak meal period demands
-Productivity is lower as menus differ daily
-High labor costs
-Need all pre-preparation, cooking and serving equipment, skilled and unskilled labor
247
With _____ delivery, trays are set up close to production under common supervision (tray line)
Centralized
248
Centralized delivery requires...
-Heated/refrigerated carts
-Heated pellets
-Insulated trays
249
The concern with centralized delivery is how ____ the tray can be delivered
Quickly
250
_____ delivery services are used where the distance from the kitchen to the patient is great
Decentralized
251
With decentralized delivery, ____ food is delivered; trays are set up in areas separate from production but close to the customer
Bulk
252
Decentralized delivery requires _____ of equipment, employees, and supervisors
Duplication
253
An ____ cart system uses built-in corridors (monorail); the decision to use this is made in the planning stage (blueprint) of kitchen design
Automated
254
A _____, or satellite production, centralizes procurement and production; food production (kitchen) and service areas (patients) are in separate facilities
Commissary
255
With a commissary production, menu items are in bulk or portioned, then frozen, chilled, or hot-held; carriers are filled at the commissary and delivered to the ____ units
Service
256
Advantages of commissary production:
-Uniform quality of products for all units
-Economical (centralized, large volume purchasing, no duplicate personnel or equipment)
257
With commissary production, equipment and personnel operate at a high _____ rate during the day with no idle periods; need highly skilled personnel
Efficiency
258
With commissary production, large and sophisticated equipment is needed such as _____ trucks
Delivery
259
Disadvantages of commissary production:
-Delivery and safety issues
-Had 9 critical control points
260
Ready-prepared (cook-chill, cook freeze) items are not produced for ____ service, but for inventory and subsequent withdrawal
Immediate
261
With ready-prepared production, foods are prepared on-site, and then frozen or chilled for later use; requires ____ ____ or ____ and adequate storage
Blast chiller or freezer
262
A distinct feature of ready-prepared production is the separation between time of ____ and time of ____
Preparation; service
263
With ready-prepared, foods may be held ___-___ days (blast chilling), up to ____ days (tumbled chilled), or up to ___-___ months (cook freeze)
1-4; 45; 3-4
264
Bulk foods should be brought down to ____ degrees F in 90 minutes or less
37
265
___ ____ is a process that seals raw, fresh food items in plastic pouches to allow chilled storage and then cooking in boiling water prior to service
Sous vide
266
What are methods of rethermalization for ready-prepared foods?
-Microwaves
-Convection oven: food heated in bulk; reaches temperatures more rapidly
-Integral heat systems (converts electric energy to heat through carbon resistors fused to the bottom of dishes)
-Immersion technique (heat pouches of food in boiling water or steamers)
267
Advantages of ready-prepared production:
-Offsets critical shortage of high-skilled employees
-Production schedule is more liberal
-Decreased job stress related to production deadlines
-Decreased labor costs
-Menu items on call
268
Disadvantages of ready-prepared production:
-Cost of large cold storage, freezers, and space needed
-Need all pre-preparation, cooking, and service equipment
269
____-___ production is total convenience, and requires minimal cooking
Assembly-serve
270
With assembly-serve, an operation purchases completely ____ individual portions; finish by thawing, and heating on premises
Prepared
271
With assembly-serve, there is no on-site ____ ____ (kitchen-less kitchen); reheat and assemble (may use sous vide)
Food production
272
Advantages of assembly-serve:
-Only has 4 critical control points
-Curtails labor time by separating manufacture from distribution
-No skilled cooks or pre-preparation employees needed
-Equipment and space requirements are minimal
-Just need reheating and serving equipment
273
Disadvantages of assembly-serve:
-Limited menu items
-Lower quality food
-Lower acceptability
274
_____ cooking is a restaurant design where food is displayed and prepared in full view of the diner
Display
275
A traditional cafeteria serves ___-___ people per minute
3-4
276
Scramble, hollow square, and free-flow are separate counters used for hot foods and salads; serve a ____ number of people within a cafeteria and are used with "repeat" customers such as in an employee or school cafeteria
Greater
277
If the scramble system is too slow, add ____ ____
Food stations
278
A food bank is an electronic system containing precooked, frozen meals that are color-coded for the _____
Microwave
279
To determine ___ ____, divide customers per meal by the number of seats (if you have 150 customers and 100 seats (150/100), seats turnover 1.5 times during the meal period)
Seat turnover
280
____ machines may include health options
Vending
281
With a buffet or smorgasbord, watch for _____ (use sneeze guards); eye appeal is important
Contamination
282
Waiter service done at a ____ has benefits of ease and speed; a U-shaped space utilizes space to the maximum
Counter
283
With American waiter service, the waiter takes ____ and food is portioned onto plates in the kitchen
Orders
284
With French waiter service, portions are brought to the table on a platter, and the waiter completes ____ at the table (carving, making sauce, flaming); this is the most expensive style
Preparation
285
With Russian waiter service, food is prepared and portioned in the kitchen; brought to table on serving platters and waiter serves _____ portions to each guest
Individual
286
With ____ ____ service, guests serve themselves from platters and bowls
Family style
287
At a ____, there is a preset menu and service for a given number of people
Banquet
288
The USDA ____ ____ sets requirements for holding temperatures of food
Food Code
289
Hold frozen foods between ___-___ degrees F
0- -10
290
Transport hot food between ___-___ degrees F
165-170
291
Not not hold food within the range of ____-____ degrees F
40-140
292
Food should be reheated to ____ for 15 seconds within 2 hours of cooling
165
293
Leftovers should be rapidly cooled (two-stage process); total cool time ____ hours
6
294
Leftovers should be cooled quickly from ____ to ____ degrees F within 2 hours
135 to 70
295
Then, food should be cooled from ____ to ____ degrees F within an additional 4 hours
70 to 40
296
Hold cold food at ____ degrees F or less
40
297
The ideal temperature range for the growth of pathogens is between ____-____
70-125
298
The USDA's Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) inspects...
-Meat
-Poultry
-Eggs
299
The Meat and Poultry Division of the FSIS contains what two acts?
-Wholesome Meat and Poultry Act
-Eggs Products Inspections Act
300
The Wholesome Meat and Poultry Act inspects all meal and poultry at the time of ____ and of processed products during production used in interstate, intrastate, and foreign commerce
Slaughter
301
The Eggs Products Inspections Act inspects ____ ____; requires pasteurization of liquid eggs to be frozen or dried
Processing plants
302
The U.S Department of Commerce runs the ____ ____ ____ Services
National Marine Fisheries
303
The National Marine Fisheries ____ and ____ fishing vessels, seafood processing plants, and retail facilities for federal sanitation standards
Inspects and certifies
304
US Grade ____ fish indicates that the product met sanitation and quality standards; grades for shellfish are based on size
A
305
The Department of Health and Human Services runs the ___ ____ Service
Public Health
306
The Public Health Service is concerned with ___ and ____ ____ transmitted through shellfish, milk, vending machines, and restaurants
Infectious and contagious diseases
307
Contaminated shellfish can transmit ____
Hepatitis
308
The Milk Ordinance code requires ____ of milk
Pasteurization
309
The CDC runs the ____ system, which is an early *warning system* for outbreaks of foodborne disease; a national network of labs that fingerprint bacteria
PulseNet
310
The CDC also runs ____, which tracts trends of foodborne diseases over time in order to develop interventions
FoodNet
311
The FDA's Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition funds the ____, ____, and ____ Act (law)
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic
312
The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act covers all interstate (domestic and imported) food except...
-Meat
-Fish
-Poultry
-Eggs
313
Roles of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act:
-Inspect food processing factories, raw materials, and labeling
-Inspection of egg substitutes and imitation eggs
-Monitors interstate shipping of *shellfish*
-Prohibits adulteration (lowering of quality by mixing or substituting substances)
-Prohibits misbranding (use of deceitful or unfair labeling)
-Regulates additives
314
Products recognized as GRAS are recognized as such due to long-term use, but have not been ____
Tested
315
The Food Additives Amendment requires that the producer of an additive must prove its ____
Safety
316
The _____ Clause states that anything causing cancer in animals or humans but be removed from the market
Delaney
317
_____ additives are from incidental contamination (ex: pesticide residue)
Unintentional
318
The ____ formulates mandatory standards (federal regulations) for products shipped across state lines
FDA
319
Standard of ____ defines what a product must be to be called by a certain name (ex: mayonnaise)
Identity
320
Standard of _____ specifies minimum quality below which foods must not fall (ex: fruit)
Quality
321
Standard of ____ of containers protects against deception through use of containers that appear to hold more than they do (ex: canned goods_
Fill
322
The ____ controls any food labeled as "limitation" or "substitute"
FDA
323
____ foods are often nutritionally inferior; mast cost less but taste the same (ex: coffee whitener)
Imitation
324
_____ foods are nutritionally equal or superior in some ways and inferior in others (ex: egg substitute)
Substitute
325
The ___ ____ ____ establishes and monitors water quality standards and determines safety and tolerance levels for pesticides
Environmental Protection Agency
326
Food ____ is an illness caused by a toxin in food prior to consumption
Intoxication
327
____ ____ is a bacteria found in humans (nose, hands, intestines, cuts, sores)
Staphylococcus aureus
328
Staphylococcus aureus enters through handling or contact with _____ surfaces
Contaminated
329
Staphylococcus aureus grows best at temperatures between ___-___ degrees F; it is resistant to drying, freezing, and is not destroyed by cooking
70-97
330
Staphylococcus aureus can be found in ____ foods that are high in protein such as meat, poultry, eggs, milk products, or stuffing
Reheated
331
1-7 hours after ingestion, Staphylococcus aureus can cause...
-Nausea
-Vomiting
-Pain
-Diarrhea
-*NO FEVER*
332
To avoid infection with Staphylococcus aureus:
-Wash hands
-Chill food quickly
-Cool food in shallow pans
333
Clostridium botulinum is ____; it is rare and more deadly; unusually resistant to heat
Anaerobic
334
Clostridium botulinum is found in...
-Soil
-Water
-Plants
-Intestinal tract of humans and animals
335
The ingestion of Clostridium botulinum causes no harm (does not multiply or produce toxin in the GI tract), but if heat is not adequate in canning, spores produce a _____ under anaerobic conditions (spores are destroyed in an acidic environment)
Toxin
336
4-36 hours after ingesting Clostridium botulinum, symptoms include:
-Weakness
-Double vision
-Fatigue
-Diarrhea
-Affects central nervous system (paralysis)
-Inability to swallow
-Slurred speech
337
Botulism may be fatal in ___-___ days if not treated
3-10
338
Clostridium botulinum spoils many foods, including...
-Low acid foods
-Improperly canned foods
-Vacuum-packed (sous vide) and tightly wrapped foods
-Smoked and salted fish
-Cooked root vegetables held at warm temperatures for too long
339
____ is also a source of Clostridium botulinum, do not give to infants due to inadequate immune system
Honey
340
Clostridium perfringens is also anaerobic; found in the ____ tract of humans and animals and the surfaces of meat and poultry
Intestinal
341
8-10 hours after the ingestion of Clostridium perfringens, symptoms may include...
-Nausea
-Vomiting
-Abdominal pain
-Diarrhea
342
To prevent Clostridium perfringens...
-Cool foods in shallow pans
-Keep cold food below 40 degrees F
-Keep hot food above 140
-Reheat leftovers to 165
-Wash hands
343
Clostridium perfringens is found in improperly ____ and ____ foods
Cooked and reheated
344
Clostridium perfringens commonly causes the "cafeteria bug" by infecting foods like...
-Meats
-Soups
-Gravies
-Stews
-Casserole
345
Clostridium perfringens is found in foods held at _____ ____ in large quantities for several hours
Room temperature
346
Bacillus cereus forms ____ and is found in soil, dust, grains, flour, cereal crops; it is aerobic
Spores
347
30 minutes to 6 hours after ingestion of Bacillus cereus, someone will experience ____ (emetic)
Vomiting
348
6-15 hours after ingestion of Bacillus cereus, someone will experience _____ (this lasts up to 24 hours)
Diarrhea
349
Foods that may cause vomiting with Bacillus cereus:
-Rice products (fried rice)
-Starchy foods (potatoes, pasta, cheese products)
-Food mixtures like casseroles, sauces, pudding, soups, pastries
350
Foods that may cause diarrhea with Bacillus cereus:
-Meats
-Milk
-Vegetables
-Fish
351
Foodborne infections are caused by the activity of ____ carried by food into the GI tract
Bacteria
352
Salmonella causes symptoms within ___-___ hours
6-48
353
Symptoms of Salmonella include...
-Fever
-Nausea
-Vomiting
-Chills
-Headache
354
Symptoms of Salmonella last ___-___ days
2-3
355
Salmonella is found in...
-Intestinal tract of humans and animals
-Water
-Soil
356
Salmonella is spread by ____ handlers
Food
357
Salmonella is found in low ____ foods at body or room temperature and is destroyed by temperatures of pasteurization
Acid
358
What foods contain salmonella?
-Raw and undercooked meat and poultry
-Eggs
-Raw dairy
-Seafood
-Melons
359
Streptococcus is found in ____ contents of humans and animals
Intestinal
360
Streptococcus is caused by...
-Poor hygiene
-Ill handlers
361
Streptococcus grows between ___-____ degrees F and is destroyed by cooking
50-113
362
Streptococcus can be found in foods such as...
-Milk
-Eggs
-Potato salad
-Food held at room temperature for hours
363
The onset of Streptococcus is between ___-___ days
2-60
364
Streptococcus causes symptoms like...
-Fever
-Diarrhea
365
Listeria monocytogenes presents syptoms within ____-____ days
2-30
366
Listeria monocytogenes is found in...
-Human or animal intestinal tract
-Unwashed vegetables
-Fruits
-Soil
-Water
367
Listeria monocytogenes grows between ____-____ degrees F on neutral or slightly alkaline foods; it is resistant to freezing, drying, or heat
34-113
368
Foods that common contain Listeria monocytogenes include...
-Hot dogs
-Deli meats
-Cold cuts
-Coleslaw
-Raw milk
-Soft cheese
369
Listeria monocytogenes can harm a ____ (pregnant women should avoid)
Fetus
370
Listeria monocytogenes can cause symptoms like...
-Flu-like symptoms
-Encephalitis
-Meningitis
371
Campylobacter jujuni is one of the more common causes of _____
Gastroenteritis
372
Campylobacter jujuni is found in the intestinal tract of...
-Cattle
-Sheep
-Pigs
-Poultry
373
Campylobacter jujuni causes symptoms within 3-5 days, including...
-Abdominal pain
-Bloody diarrhea
374
Symptoms of Campylobacter jujuni last ___-___ days
2-10
375
Campylobacter jujuni can be found in...
-Raw or undercooked meat or poultry
-Raw milk
-Raw vegetables
376
To reduce risk of Campylobacter jujuni, prevent ____ _____ between raw and cooked foods
Cross contamination
377
Vibrio parahaemolyticus and Vibrio vulnificus can be found in raw or undercooked _____
Seafood (shellfish, oysters)
378
Vibrio parahaemolyticus and Vibrio vulnificus cause symptoms such as...
-Fever
-Vomiting
-Cramps
-Diarrhea
379
Symptoms of Vibrio parahaemolyticus and Vibrio vulnificus start ____ hours after ingestion and last ____ hours
16; 48
380
Vibrio parahaemolyticus and Vibrio vulnificus yield a _____
Norovirus
381
Shigella is found in the human intestinal tract and in water polluted by feces; can be transmitted by...
-Bare hands
-Flies
382
What foods may contain Shigella?
-Cold mixed salads (chicken, tuna, potato)
-Raw vegetables
-Watermelon
383
12-50 hours after ingestion of food containing Shigella, what symptoms may occur?
-Bloody diarrhea
-Abdominal pain
384
Symptoms of Shigella last ___-___ days
4-7
385
E. coli is found in human or animal intestinal tracts; infection causes...
-Diarrhea
-Severe cramping
386
E. coli has a slow onset, ____-____ days after ingestion
3-8
387
Symptoms of E. coli last ____-____ days
5-10
388
Foods that may contain E. coli include...
-Rare or raw ground beef
-Uncooked fruits and vegetables
-Raw milk
-Unpasteurized apple juice
389
E. coli can survive ____ and high ____; can grow at refrigerator temperatures
Freezing; acid
390
_____ is an illness caused by poor personal hygiene among infected food handlers
Norovirus
391
Norovirus does not reproduce in humans, but remains _____ until after the food is eaten
Active
392
Norovirus is found in human feces and can be transmitted through...
-Contaminated water
-Human contact
-Vegetables fertilized by manure
-Manufactured ice cubes
-Ready-to-eat foods
393
Symptoms of norovirus appear in 24-48 hours and include...
-Nausea
-Diarrhea
-Vomiting
394
Symptoms of norovirus last ___-___ days
1-2
395
What are the two most critical elements of food safety?
-Hand-washing
-Control of proper time and temperature (follow Food Code)
396
Foodborne illness can be linked directly to the lack of attention to ____ ____
Personal hygiene
397
What are some ways to prevent staff from spreading foodborne illness:
-Employees should wear clean, washable clothing with effective hair restraints
-Jewelry is discouraged, as bacteria can lodge in settings and contaminate food
-Hands should be washed using soap and friction for at least twenty seconds
-Disposable gloves are encouraged for direct food contact; change gloves frequently to avoid-cross contamination
-Employees with symptoms of vomiting, diarrhea, fever, respiratory infection, or sore throat should not work as a food handler
398
___ _____ _____ are written step-by-step instructions for routine tasks; documentation is a prerequisite for the quality control analysis model of HACCP
Standard Operating Procedures
399
HACCP stands for...
Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point
400
HACCP is a _____ approach to quality control, identifying potential dangers for corrective action; identifies food hazards and high-hazard jobs
Preventative
401
___ ___ ___ are points in food service where a loss of control would result in unacceptable safety risks (numbers: time, end-point temperatures, etc)
Critical control points
402
Commissary productions have ____ critical control points
9
403
Ready-prepared productions have ____ critical control points
8
404
Conventional productions have ____ critical control points
5
405
Assembly-serve productions have ____ critical control points
4
406
What are the 7 principles of HACCP?
-Conduct hazard analysis
-Determine CCP
-Establish critical limits
-Monitoring procedures
-Correct actions
-Verification procedures
-Record-keeping and documentation protocols
407
The Food Safety Modernization Act (FDA) focuses more on _____ food safety problems
Preventing
408
Food recalls are made by the ____; monitor notifications by the FDA and USDA; remove items from inventory and store in secure and appropriate locations away from food, utensils, equipment, and linens (label items: Do not use/do not discard)
Manufacturer
409
A Class I recall involves a health hazard situation in which there is a _____ probability that eating the food will cause health problems or death
Reasonable
410
A Class II recall involves a potential health hazard situation in which there is a ____ probability of adverse health consequences from eating the food
Remote
411
A Class III recall involves a situation in which eating the food will ____ cause adverse health consequences
Not
412
The Public Health Security and Bioterrorism Preparedness and Response Act protects the ___ and ____ of the food supply
Safety and Security
413
____ ____ ____ prioritizes preventative measures likely to have the greatest impact on reducing the risk of food security problems
Operations Risk Management
414
_____ is the intentional use of biological agents or germs to cause illness
Bioterrorism
415
______ identifies measures to minimize risk of food being subjected to tampering; assures products are received from safe sources; look (monitor) the security of production; employees know who should and should not be there; report and keep information related to food defense accessible; threat-> what you will do and who to contact if there is suspicious activity
ALERT
416
Employees should wear ____ ____ ____ such as rubber gloves and protective glasses
Personal protective equipment
417
A ____ ____ ____ requires a plan to communicate chemical hazards to employees
Hazard Communication Standard
418
A ____ ____ ___ ___ must be available on all hazardous materials
Material Safety Data Sheet
419
OSHA requires a ___ ____ Pathogen Standard, which requires notice to employees of all potentially infectious materials
Blood Borne
420
_____ is the built-in safety features of building and equipment
Engineering
421
_____ is also important in keeping food safe; provide policies, on-the-job training, and keep records of accidents and injuries on the job
Education
422
Policies and procedures related to safety should be ____; follow up and do periodic inspections using a checklist
Enforced
423
What creates a safe work environment?
Management cares about employee and works to educate employees on safe work practices, resulting in decreased lost work days and workman's compensation costs
424
____ pest management denies pest access, food, water, and a nesting place; use a licensed pest control operator and install mesh screens over ventilation pipes (inspection is done by state/county/city/town health inspectors)
Integrated
425
The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) is a law that sets minimum _____ standards; requires record keeping of accidents and illness
Safety
426
OSHA also performs ____ of facilities looking for safety hazards (wet floors), fire extinguishers, handrails on the stairs, lighted passageways, first-aid supplies, etc
Inspections
427
Fires release ____ ____
Carbon monoxide
428
Class ___ fires are caused by ordinary combustible materials like wood, paper, and cloth
A
429
Class ____ fires are caused by flammable liquids, gases, and greases
B
430
Class ____ fires are caused by live electrical wires
C
431
Fire extinguishers are made of multi-purpose ____ ____ (ammonium sulfate, monoammonium phosphate, mica, talc); they can be used on class A, B, or C fires
Dry chemicals
432
Class ____ fire extinguishers are required in commercial kitchens that use appliances and oils that operate at much higher temperatures than previous oils and appliances
K
433
Cleaning ____ and standard procedures should include a list of what is to be cleaned, when, how, and by whom; bacteriological counts should be performed regularly
Schedules
434
Maintain equipment and facilities in good ____; keep equipment information; record repairs and service; schedule corrective maintenance promptly
Repair
435
Equipment and facilities should have good ____; include floor drains and cantilever equipment (wall-mounted)
Cleanability
436
Chemical cleaning supplies are regulated by the ___ ___ ____
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
437
What are the most common chemicals used in sanitizing surfaces that touch food (countertops, pots, pans)?
-Chlorine solution
-Iodine
-Quaternary ammonia
438
Chloride solution should be used in concentrations of ____-____ ppm (pH <8)
50-90
439
Iodine should be used in concentrations of ____-____ ppm (pH <5)
12.5-25
440
Quaternary ammonia should be used in concentrations of ____-____ ppm (pH 7)
150-400
441
Most states and local codes require immersion in chemical solutions for last least ____ seconds using water above ____ degrees F
60; 75
