EPQ3 Flashcards by Cody Green

jump seat occupied emergency ground egress order

jump seaterpassengersstudent / non AC commanderAC commander

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jump seat empty emergency ground egress order

student / non AC commanderAC commander

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emergency ground egress rally point

100 yards away, 45 degrees off nose

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T/O emergencies / emergency return

plan to fly a radar pattern or VFR breakout

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bird strike actions

discontinue mission and land as practical.consider controllability check and declaring emergency if structural damage is suspected

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intercom fail actions

abort mission, split formations, recover single ship

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airborne radio failure procedures

squawk 7600 (7700 if another emergency exists)expect ATC to contact on 243.0 / 121.5

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radio fail on departure with CBM RAPCON procedures

climb/descend to 7000’, intercept 13 DME arc, execute ILS

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radio fail on departure without CBM RAPCON

maintain last assigned alt, turn to intercept CBM 33 DME arc to KOBRE, execute an immediate penetration

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radio failure on arrival in tower airspace procedures

continue approach, squawk 7600, watch tower for green light (cleared) (red - go around / missed)

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radio failure on arrival in RAPCON airspace (north (not sec 6), echo, picks MOA)

squawk 7600maintain 7000’intercept 13 dme and arc to last assigned runwaydescend maintain 4000’ inside of 13 dme for an ILS approach

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radio fail on arrival in sector 6

descend to 8000’remain clear of sector 5 and proceed to CBM 330 radialintercept 330 radial inbound, descent/maintain 7000’intercept 13 dmedescend maintain 4000’ for ILS

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low level radio altimeter minimums

to 10% below the lowest planned AGL altitude for the low level

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standard VASI glideslope

2.5-3 degreesglidepath intercept abt 750 ft beyond runway threshold

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nonstandard VASI glideslope

3.5 degreesglidepath intercept abt 450 short of runway threshold

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speed when on approach banking more than 15 degrees

Vapp + 10

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how much to adjust speed with gusts

increase approach and touchdown speed by 50% of gust increment, not to exceed 10 knots

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use ____________ the drift correction required to pattern entry for the downwind leg

twice

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if you have a stronger headwind on final, you should

begin the final turn earlier than normal

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f you have a tailwind on final, you should

begin the final turn later than normal

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what is the purpose of the pattern break out

stay clear of the “inside downwind” traffic while remaining within the airfield’s airspace

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VFR straight in patterns are good for

minimum maneuvering, especially emergency situations

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VFR straight in pattern; at 1 mile from the runway be at

apprx 300 ft AGL

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when performing a straight in from a breakout procedure, normally plan the base leg to be established on final

3-4 miles from the runway

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what is the object of the VFR rectangular pattern

align the aircraft on final from a downwind position

information normally communicated to ATC includes

base and gear down calls

VFR rectangular pattern - fly the base turn to arrive a

1 to 1.5 mile final

when should you select final flap configuration

before perch point

define tactical pattern

one continuous turn to downwind and one continuous turn to final

what is the first step to a tactical pattern

initial ground track down runway center line, clean configuration, 200 KIAS, 1500 AGL

where is the normal break zone in a tactical pattern

threshold to 3000 feet down the runway

when should you be established on initial in a tactical pattern

3-4 miles from the runway

what is the minimum speed in the break (tactical pattern)

160 kias

VFR closed pattern - when to begin closed pull up

once cleared at a safe altitude, strive to initiate the pullup at the departure end of the runway

min speed during closed pull

160 kias

normal landing zone for t-1a

500-2000 feet down the runway

a threshold crossing height of ___________ corresponds to a ____________ aim point (instrument)

50 feet1000 foot

a threshold crossing height of ___________ corresponds to a ____________ aim point (VFR)

20 feet500 foot

abrupt control movements on the flare can cause

ballooning or bouncing on touchdown

touchdown speed is

Vapp - 6 kias

when should you extend the speed brakes (landing)

when the nose wheel touches down

Consider landing with ______ degree flaps in strong crosswinds or gusty wind conditions.

no flap landing pitch attitude and aim points are

pitch attitude - higher than normalaim point - lower in the windscreen

the power requirement in no flap landings are ______________ due to __________________

smallminimal drag

no flap landing should be a

power on approach (not a steep, idle power final)

on a no flap landing, landing assured is ___________________ because ________________________________

earlier than normalhigher airspeed and lower drag

stall speed is ___________ with flaps up

higher (so don't start the flare too high)

during a no flap landing, expect a _____________ pitch attitude, higher _______________, and slower ___________________

higherairspeedairspeed bleed off

the ground effect accentuates _____________ in no flap landings

ballooning

higher touchdown airspeed increases the possibility of ____________________ in no flap landings

bouncing

SE landings are similar to 10 flaps landings with the additions of

asymmetric thrust, rudder trim

use ___________________ to compensate for asymmetric thrust. do this before touchdown

rudder trim, neutralize the rudder before touchdown

the magnitude of asymmetric thrust is not as great during simulated SE approach because the

idling engine continues to produce thrust

do not select __________ on a single engine unless

30 flapsunless runway available requires it (set 30 flaps before 250 agl)

once you set both throttles to idle on SE approach -

asymmetric thrust becomes negligible (touchdown and rollout should be the same as a normal landing)

advancing the throttles on a touch and go will do this

minimize loss of speed and allow engines to equalize at a higher RPM to minimize asymmetric thrust

PM will call rotate on a touch and go when

reaching a minimum of Vapp

once a go around is started do NOT

change your mind and attempt a full stop or touch and go

flaps up at (2)

400 ft AGL AND Vco+10

flaps up at (2) during a go around

400 ft AGL AND Vref+20

single engine go around procedures

raise nose to 10 degrees

climb at ____________ during a SE go around

Vref + 22 (also called Vac) to 2,200 ft, traffic pattern alt, or obstacles clearance attitude

excessive sink often happens during

the final turn and final approach

when you not an excessive sink rate in the pattern, the proper action is to

execute a stall recovery, disregarding published ground tracks

a balloon or bounce on landing is usually the result of performing a

poor flare for touchdown

a balloon is caused by

over rotation in the flare or an abrupt flare

the tendency to ballon is magnified if the approach is

flown fast (more likley on a 0- or 10- flap setting_ because the higher speeds make flight controls more sensitive

a bounced landing is caused by

failure to complete the flare or landing hard

other irregularities that may make you bounce (3)

pumping the yoke, experiencing a gust of wind, entering wake turbulence

both ballons and bounces are indicated by being above the runway in a

nose high attitude with airspeed rapidly decreasing

if the bounce results in a hard landing, do not __________________________ during the go around because it might have been damaged

retract the gear

what is a porpoise ? what should you do?

a series of bounces between the main and nose gears. execute a go around with go around n1 and yoke slightly aft

over rotation can occur during initial TO and touch and gos. it is the result of an

abrupt application of back pressure in relation to airspeed (too much pitch at low speed)

what causes over rotation during a go around

maintaining landing altitude

ATIS is broadcasted on

VHF - 115.2UHF - 273.5

when runway edge lights are in use, vehicles are

required to hold short of all instrument hold lines and contact ATCT for further instructions

when the weather is _____________________, the ATCT will not authorize larger A/C to operate in or over ILS critical areas when an A/C is doing and ILS and inside the FAF

ceiling - less than 800 ftvis - less than 2 miles

when the weather is _____________________, the ATCT will not authorize any A/C or vehicle to operate in or over ILS critical areas when an A/C is doing and ILS and inside the FAF

ceiling - less than 200 ftvis - less than 1/2 miles

when the weather is _____________________ and there is A/C being vertically guided less than 2 miles from threshold, all aircraft taxiing to 31c will hold short of taxiway f (13c - taxiway m)

ceiling - below 300 ftvis - below 3/4 miles

runway changes require a minimum of

30 minutes notification

during restricted overhead/VFR straight in status, all a/c will depart the pattern or full stop _______________________ prior to initiation of runway change

10 mins

you will be given direction to full stop or depart the pattern during runway change 10 minutes out if

you have 1200 lbs of fuel or less

between 5-1 mins from runway change you will be directed to

climb to 2200' MSL and depart the pattern from the turn to downwind and accomplish VFR reentry

RAPCON airspace spans approx __________________ around CAFB

50 nautical miles

ATC assigned airspace is from

FL180 to FL230

columbus AFB airspace

class c

t-1 vfr pattern alt for rectangular and tactical

1700 MSL

t-1 vfr patten alt for straight in and straight in breakout

1200 MSL

t-1 vfr pattern alt for pattern breakout

2500 MSL

t-1 pattern alt for low closed

800 MSL

t-1 pattern alt for low closed breakout

1200 MSL

VFR weather at CAFB for USAF a/c

ceiling - 1500ft or greatervis - 3SM or greater

IFR weather at CAFB for USAF a/c

ceiling - below 1500ftvis - below 3SM

for ATC VFR is defined as ceiling of ______________ and vis of _______________ or greater within CAFB class c airspace

1000ft3sm

anytime a t-1 is involved, ____________________ min separation is required, or preceding aircraft is airborne

6000 ft

intersection departures- aircraft may utilize intersection takeoffs if

coordinated/approved thru GC

who has priority to ATCT

departing aircraft over arriving aircraft

departure is on channel

what is the standard / local climb out with VFR

fly runway heading, cross departure end at or below 700', climb and maintain 4000', contact departure channel 16

landing over a raised barrier is

prohibited (except for in an emergency)

VFR pattern breakouts to radar procedures

climb to 2500 MSL, heading 040, contact RAPCON (CH 16) and make request

all a/c must descend to _________________ or below before canceling IFR

17500'

what is the calm wind runway? what is calm wind?

runway 31, winds less than 5 knots

t-1 sector assignments for MOA will be established when

before takeoff

a/c in the MOA will maintain a listening watch on the

discrete MOA UHF frequency and 243.0

t-1 recovery from RAPCON controlled MOA on this frequency

UHF 239.25

what is MARSA

military authority assumes responsibility for the separation of aircraft

flying status - restricted definition

weather conditions and/or facilities do no permit full use of training areas, VFR patterns or outlying instrument facilities

OPS/weather recall meaning

conditions require recovery to CAFB. coordinate all launches with the SOF

Area Hold menaing

conditions prohibit normal aircraft recovery to CAFB. coordinate all launches with the SOF

Standby. Standby. meaning

all local flying is suspended for an indefinite period of time until conditions improve to support a better status

Terminate meaning

local flying terminated for the remainder of the day

Slow meaning

slot times are a landing window. they provide the capability to continue local flying operations when all a/c need to make an instrument approach to center runway

slot approaches will be a

full stop

(slots) any deviations from defined flying status will be coordinated with the _______________ before depature

RAPCON

the rest of the possible EPQ questions will come from AFMAN 11-2T-1 v. 3. i have read this and am now prepared for the week 3 EPQ test. true or false

true

EPQ3 Flashcards

(116 cards)