EPQ3 #2 Flashcards
(184 cards)
1
Q
how to perform emergency ground egress when the jump seat is occupied
A
jump stows seat (far right) and opens exit to egress first. passengers next. then student egresses after checklist items. then aircraft commander exits after checklist items (unless they are in the jumpseat)
2
Q
how to perform emergency ground egress when the jump seat is empty
A
student/non AC performs checklists and egress first. A/c commander then does checklist and then egreesses
3
Q
where is the rally point for emergency ground egress
A
100 yards away, 45 degrees off nose on the side of exit, unless briefed otherwise
4
Q
the most important abort consideration is to
A
not delay making the decision to abort
5
Q
what are important factors in an abort situation
A
aircraft weight and airspeed
6
Q
when doing a touch and go, what conditions would decrease the available runway for a safe abort?
A
if you are long and fast on the touch and go
7
Q
any other condition other than ______________________ will increase the distance required to stop the aircraft
A
completely dry
8
Q
for emergencies necessitating immediate return, consideration may be given to
A
pulling closed and/or staying in the tower pattern if conditions permit
9
Q
if you cannot pull closed or stay in the pattern during a T/O emergency, plan to fly
A
a radar pattern or VFR breakout
10
Q
after physiological/rapid decompression, what should be done?
A
notify others of symptoms. pilot feeling the best flies. after initial actions complete, fly an emergency descent.
11
Q
after physiological/rapid decompression where should you recover?
A
a field that can provide adequate medical attention. if practical - a military field with a flight surgeon
12
Q
after physiological/rapid decompression - after landing; oxygen masks remain on until cleared to removed them by
A
emergency /medical personnel if landing at a military field
13
Q
what should you do after hitting a bird? (BLAZE standards)
A
conditions permitting, leave configuration the same until the situation is completely analyzed
14
Q
what are other considerations to a bird strike?
A
end mission, land as practical. if structural damage is suspected = declare emergency and consider a controllability check
15
Q
what should you do if birds are more than expected at the out base?
A
let the squadron know and try to mitigate the issue
16
Q
what to do with an intercom failure?
A
abort mission and recover single ship
17
Q
what to do with a radio failure (SINGLE SHIP)
A
comply with directions in IFG and CAFBI 13-204outside local area: comply with comm out procedures in the FIH (squawk 7600)
18
Q
low level navigation; use what?
A
EFB and squadron built e charts with the appropriate obstacle display
19
Q
as an alternative to squadron charts (low level nav), crews can use ___________________ to print out their own level charts
A
falcon view
20
Q
what to set radio altimeter to for low levels?
A
10% below the lowest planned AGL altitude for the low level
21
Q
bird avoidance for low levels reference
A
IAW CAFB BASH plan
22
Q
bird avoidance (low level) - consideration to the _________________________ predicted by SOAR when making bird avoidance plans
A
altitudes of bird activity
23
Q
aircraft malfunctions during low level emergencies
A
PF initiates a climb to leg min safe altitude (MAS) or top of the MTR corridor whichever is higher (minor malfunction) or ERAA (major malfunction); use route abort procedures if needed
24
Q
once at a safe altitude (during low level), use __________________________
A
normal emergency procedures
25
Standard VASI lights have a ______ to ______ degree glide slope and a glidepath intercept point generally _____ feet beyond the threshold.
2.5 to 3750
26
VASIs are normally coincidental with the __________________ or ___________________ to that runway
ILS (instrument landing system)PAR (precision approach radar)
27
Nonstandard VASI has a _____ degree glide slope and a glidepath intercept point generally _____ feet short of the runway threshold.
3.545
28
following the nonstandard VASI too far will results in a _____________________ and may contribute to ____________________ of runway threshold
dragged in approachlanding short
29
use information in part ____ of the 1 dash _____ to calculate the Vref
81
30
When maneuvering the aircraft in excess of _____ degrees AOB, you must add _____ knots to your computed Vapp.
1510
31
what is touchdown speed
Vapp - 6
32
for gusty wind procedures, increase approach speed and touchdown speed by
50% of the gust, not to exceed 10 knots
33
one technique for wind analysis
use twice the direct correction required prior to pattern entry for the downwind leg
34
the effect of wind on the length of final approach
strong headwind = perch earliertailwind = perch later
35
what can give you information about wind direction and strength at pattern altitude?
EFIS (one on how HSI and one on the MFD)
36
what is the purpose of a pattern break out
stay clear of the inside downwind traffic while remaining within the airfields airspace
37
the VFR straight in pattern is used when conditions require a lnading with
min maneuvering, especially emergency sitautions (structural damage, fuel imbalance, gear malfunctions)
38
what should you use to maintain orientation in low vis conditions during the straight in pattern?
NAVAID information
39
after being cleared for a visual straight in pattern, descend as required to achieve a __________________________________
normal 3 degrees glidepath
40
straight in pattern; begin descent to arrive _______________ from the runway at approx __________________
1 miles300 ft AGL
41
when performing a straight in from a breakout procedure, normally plan the base leg to be established on final _____________________ from the runway
3-4 miles
42
from a 1500 AGL pattern, a ____________________________ should start on the base leg
normal 3 degree glideslope
43
the objective of the VFR rectangular pattern is to
align the aircraft on final from a downwind position
44
information normally communicated to the controlling agency and crew includes ___________________________________
base and gear down calls (to make sure landing configuration is correct)
45
downwind spacing criteria
30 flap = fuel filler cap on RWY10 flap = wingtip on RWY0 flap = wingtip slightly off RWY
46
the min airspeed on downwind is based on the
min flap maneuvering speed for the current configuration (Vapp + 10)
47
Fly the base turn to arrive at a __ to __ mile final
1-1.5
48
normally, select __________________ prior to perch point
final flap configuration
49
a proper final approach angle passes through approx ____________ at _________ from the runway
300 ft AGL1 mile
50
define tactical pattern
one continuous turn to downwind and one continuous turn to final
51
what is the initial ground track, configuration, speed, and alt in a tactical pattern
down the runway center line, clean, 200 kias and 1500 AGL
52
what should you be doing while on initial for tactical pattern flying down runway ground track?
ensure inside downwind is clear of aircraft, and listen to radio to make sure no one is on a straight in or rectangular pattern
53
when should you be established on initial for a tactical pattern
3-4 miles from the runway
54
when do you initiate before landing checklist or pattern checklist on tactical pattern (besides configuration)
before the break
55
when to initiate break in a tactical pattern and how?
3000 ft down the runwayretard throttles to idle and roll into 46 deg bank
56
what is the min speed during tactical pattern break?
160 kias
57
inside downwind spacing for tactical pattern
1-1.5 miles from the runway
58
final turn airspeed during a tactical pattern
Vapp + 10 minimum
59
when should you select final flap setting and gear down during a tactical pattern
before the perch point
60
if there is traffic during your tactical pattern what should you do
go around
61
final setup during tactical pattern
1-1.5 miles from the runwayslow to Vappget an angle that passes thru approx 300 ft AGL at 1 mile from the runway
62
what should you request while doing VFR closed patterns (rectangular or tactical)
request clearance for "closed"
63
min speed for pulling closed
min speed = 160 kias
64
what are considered normal landings
10 flap and 30 flap
65
the normal landing zone for the t1 is between
500-2000 ft down the runway
66
landing accomplished from instrument approaches may result in a touchdown beyond
2000 ft
67
a threshold crossing height of ______ corresponds to a ___________ aim point for instrument approaches
50ft1000ft
68
a threshold crossing height of ______ corresponds to a ___________ aim point for VFR patterns
20ft500ft
69
during landing, retard the throttles when
landing is assured
70
how to determine when landing is assured factors
airspeed, configuration, wind, glidepath angle, gross weight
71
abrupt control movements can cause (1) or (2) during the flare
ballooning bouncing
72
touchdown speed
Vapp - 6 kias
73
after the nosewheel touches down you should
deploy speed brakes, use wheel brakes as needed
74
after clearing the runway, call for
flaps up, after landing checklist
75
if you are landing in a crosswind, hold your _________________ ______________ until ___________________________ to avoid excessive bank angle and the wingtip contacting the runway surface
wing low controlsboth main gears are firmly on the runway
76
neutralize the __________________ before nosewheel contacts the runway
rudder pedals
77
consider landing with _______________ in strong crosswinds or gusty wind conditions to provide a greater _______________________
10 flapdegree of controllability
78
use caution for ___________________ tendency when neutralizing the rudder during strong crosswind landings
weathervaning
79
no flap landings have less drag making what important
management of approach speed and threshold speed
80
in a no flap landing, you should strive to have the same (_) as a flapped landing
landing zone
81
the no flap pitch attitude is _____________. making the aim point ___________
higher than normallower than normal
82
the power requirement during a no flap landing is usually
small due to minimal drag
83
no flap landing: make a
power on approach, not a steep idle final
84
when is landing assured in a no flap approach
earlier than normal because of higher airspeed and lower drag
85
flare considerations with a no flap landing
dont start the flare too high. stall speed is higher with no flaps
86
during a no flap landing, expect
higher pitch, higher airspeed, and slower airspeed bleed off
87
the tendency to do what is greater with a no flap landing? why?
balloon or bounce. because ground effect accentuates ballooning while the higher touchdown airspeed increases the possibility of bouncing
88
single engine landings are similar to __________. with the consideration to: (5)
10 flap landingsasymmetric thrust, rudder trim, power control, flaps, and crosswind control
89
the primary difference between a SE and 10 flap landing:
asymmetric thrust, use rudder trim to compensate (and neutralize rudder before touchdown)
90
avoid getting _____________________ on final because it may be impossible to recover when one engine is operative
low and slow
91
only select 30 flaps with SE landing when
the landing distance for 10 flap exceeds runway available
92
when selecting 30 flaps for single engine landing, do it before this alt
250 ft AGL
93
what can you NOT do with 30 flap and single engine
go arounds
94
charted performance for single engine landings assumes the throttle is brought to idle at __________. but if using 10 flaps you may need to __________
50 ftretard the throttle earlier
95
when retarding throttle to idle with single engine landing, asymmetric thrust becomes
no longer a factor (touchdown and rollout are now the same as a normal landing)
96
touch and go initial procedures
PF - flaps call (either 10 or up)PM - confirms, resets trim, checks engine indications
97
why does the PM adjust trim to TO trim during touch and go
yoke could be too heavy or light for a safe takeoff
98
what does standing the throttles up during a touch and go do?
minimize airspeed loss, allow engines to equalize at higher RPM, minimize possibility to reduce asymmetric thrust
99
if multiple touch and go landings are being done, the crew till recompute VApp for every
500 lb change in weight
100
do not delay your decision to do a _____________. also do not
go around, change your mind
101
if you touch down on a go around -
complete the go around
102
do what to the throttles to avoid excessive sink rate to ground impact
firewall
103
dont forget to _________ during a go around
retrim
104
the PF will call for flaps up during a go around at a min of
400 ft AGL and Vref + 20
105
go around call
crew going around, flaps 10, set power
106
during a go around do not let airspeed fall below
approach speed
107
during a single engine go around or missed approach, rotate the nose
10 deg nose high but don't let airspeed fall below approach speed
108
the PF will call for flaps up on a SE go around at
400 ft AGL and Vref + 20
109
if any crew member or tower directs a "go around" while practicing a SE approach
use both throttles
110
if desired, during a SE go around, climb at _______ (speed) to __________ (alt)
Vac or Vref +22 2200 ft, traffic pattern alt, or obstacle clearance alt
111
when does excessive sink usually occur?
during final turn and final approach
112
when you not e an excessive sink rate in the pattern, the proper action is to
execute a stall recovery, disregarding published ground tracks
113
a balloon or bounce on landing is usually the result of
a poor flare
114
if the deviation is minor during balloon or bounce =
continue the landing, go around if it is unsafe
115
a balloon is caused by
over rotation during flare or an abrupt flare
116
a balloon is more likely during a
fast approach (0 or 10 flap landings as well)
117
why are 0 and 10 flap landings more susceptible to ballooning?
higher airspeeds make the controls more sensitive, resulting in greater opportunity to balloon the landing
118
how does ballooing happen
over rotation will increase pitch and generate lift. lift is increased in ground effect. combo of this creates a balloon tendency
119
why does a bounce occur
failure to flare or landing hard
120
what can cause a high sink rate which increases chance to bounce?
low airspeed
121
other irregularities that may cause a bounce
pumping the yoke while feeling for the runway, experiencing gust of wind, or entering wake turbulence
122
both balloon and bouncing are indicated by being above the runway in a _______________ with your airspeed ________________
nose high attitudedecreasing rapidly
123
during a go around due to a balloon or bounce,
lower nose of place to a safe attitude and maintain directional control. if you are flying towards the runway, go thru with the go around!
124
if a bounce resulted in a hard landing and you execute a go around, do not
retract the gear as it may have been damaged
125
why does underrotation happen?
placement of engines toward the rear of the aircraft (makes it so the plane does not fly itself off the runway)
126
what causes over rotation
abrupt or excessive application of back pressure in relation to airspeed (can cause premature, low speed liftoff)
127
to avoid a premature liftoff on a go around, do this to the nose / yoke
lower the nose to normal t/o attitude and allow the aircraft to accelerate
128
what is / causes a porpoise ?
series of bounces between main and nose gear caused by improper control inputs
129
what to do when you porpoise?
go around with GA n1 and put the yoke slight aft of neutral
130
what are the 6 flying status common to all airframes at columbus? (SSORTA)
standby, standbyslotOPS/weather recallrestrictedterminatearea hold
131
what is restricted flying status?
weather conditions and/or facilities do not permit full use of training areas, VFR patterns, or outlying instrument facilities
132
what is OPS/weather recall flying status?
conditions require recovery to CAFB. Coordinate all launches will the SOF
133
what is area hold flying status?
conditions prohibit normal a/c recovery to CAFB. coordinate all launches with the SOF
134
what is standby. standby. flying status
all local flying is suspended for an indefinite period of time until conditions improve to support a better status
135
what is terminate flying status
local flying is terminated for the remainder of the day
136
what is slots flying status
slot times are a landing window. they provide the capability to continue local flying operations when weather precludes simultaneous t38 and t6 recoveries because an ILS approach to center runway is required by ALL aircraft.
137
what are the weather requirements based on for slots status
published precision approach mins and SOF recommendations
138
slow times should be coordinated between _______________. all squadron aircraft must landing with the _____________________.
flying squadronsagreed upon window
139
all approaches in slots status will be
full stop
140
how many planes can land in what time frame during slots status
1 a/c every 3 minutes
141
any deviations from defined flying status will be coordinated with the __________________ prior to ________________
RAPCONdeparture
142
ATIS is broadcasted on what VHF and UHF freq?
VHF = 115.2UHF = 273.5
143
when will ATCT not authorize a/c larger than fighter type size to operate in or over the ILS critical areas when an a/c is inside the FAF on an ILS?
ceiling is less than 800 ft and/or vis is less than 2 miles
144
when will atct not authorize any a/c or vehicle operations in or over the ILS critical area when an a/c is s inside the FAF on an ILS?
ceiling is less than 200 ft and/or vis is less than 1/2 mile
145
when will ALL a/c taxiing or vehicles moving towards 31c hold short of the instrument hold line on taxiway F? (protects the precision obstacle free zone)
when an a/c is on vertically guided approach and within 2 miles of RWY threshold and the ceiling is less than 300ft or vis is less than 3/4 SM
146
runway change procedures requires what time notification
30 minutes
147
when is the effective runway change time?
the time the center runway resumes full stop landings in the new direction (inside and outside RWYs are suspended at this time)
148
during restricted overhead / VFR straight in status, all aircraft will
depart the pattern or full stop 10 mins before initiation of runway change
149
RAPCON airspace spans approx _____________________ around CAFB from the surface up to and including ____________-
50 NMFL230
150
the floor and ceiling of the north t-1 MOA is
8000 MSL to but not including FL180
151
CAFB is class ____ airspace
C
152
CAFB class c airspace non regulatory area parameters
20NM radius from CAFB, surface to 17500 MSL
153
CAFB class c airspace regulatory area parameters
5NM radius from CAFB, surface to 4200 MSL10NM from 1500 MSL to 4200 MSL
154
VFR local training areas - sunfish airspace extended from the surface to __________ MSL along the __________ arc
35007 DME
155
VFR rectangular and tactical pattern altitude for t-1
1700 msl
156
VFR straight in and straight in breakout pattern altitude for t-1
1200 msl
157
VFR pattern breakout altitude for t-1
2500 msl
158
VFR low closed pattern altitude for t-1
800 MSL
159
VFR low closed breakout pattern altitude for t-1
1200 MSL
160
VFR weather mins for USAF a/c
ceiling of 1500 ft or higher and vis of 3 SM or greater
161
reduced same runway separation when a t-1 is involved
6000 ft min or the preceding a/c is airborne
162
wet runway reduced same runway separation for dissimilar trainer type aircraft
6000 ft min in all cases
163
who has priority - departing or arriving aircraft?what is the exception?
departing a/c has priority except when the arriving a/c is a delay mission, checkride, or full stop landing
164
what is the standard local climbout
fly runway heading, cross departure end at or below 700', climb and maintain 4000', contact departure channel 16
165
when is opposite direction traffic procedures allowed
emergency a/cflight checkspecial missionsweather
166
can you land over a raised barrier?
no, unless it is an emergency
167
breakout / go around procedures while inside the faf
standard local climbout = fly runway heading, cross departure end at or below 700', climb and maintain 4000', contact departure channel 16
168
breakout / go around procedures while outside the faf but within 10 miles on final
fly runway heading, climb and maintain 4000'
169
VFR pattern breakouts to radar are allowed for which runways?
center and outside
170
VFR pattern breakouts to radar instructions
climb to 2500', heading 040, contact CH 16, make request
171
runway offset procedures for center runway
offset in given direction only as far as necessary to not directly overfly the center runway and to not create a traffic conflict with the other runways
172
when radar failure occurs expect to
stop maneuvering in MOAs. be prepared to start area hold procedures and standby for further instructions
173
all aircraft must descend to ___________________ or below before canceling IFR
17500 msl
174
define wing flying
simultaneous operations by 2 or more airframes with 5 or more 14 FTW a/c conducting local training within CBM delegated airspace
175
aircrew will minimize request for ____________________ approaches at GTR
opposite direction
176
GTR can be used as an alternate airport due to ______________ or ____________________
weatherrunway limitations at CBM
177
what is the calm wind runway?what is calm winds?
rwy 31winds less than 5 knots
178
all wing assigned a/c will proceed to and from MOAs under _________ to the max extent possible
IFR
179
what will you set once established in the MOA
altimeter
180
formation a.c shall use transponder mode 3 code of
181
when should t-1 sector assignments be established for MOA area assignments?
prior to takeoff
182
memphis center controlled moa - t-1s get these
two southernmost sectors of CBM 3
183
define MARSA
military authority assumes responsibility of the separation of aircraft
184
TRUE/FALSE: I HAVE FINISHED THIS QUIZLET AND WILL MOVE ON TO THE 11-2T-1 V.3 QUIZLET IN ORDER TO BE PREPARED FOR WEEK 3 EPQ.
hell if i know
