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Equine Clinical Anatomy Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

List the correct directional terms for 1-11

A
  1. Caudal
  2. Rostral
  3. Proximal
  4. Distal
  5. Cranial (above carpus)
  6. Dorsal (below carpus)
  7. Caudal (above carpus)
  8. Palmar (below carpus)
  9. Cranial (above tarsus)
  10. Dorsal (below tarsus)
  11. Palmar (below tarsus)
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2
Q

What is the veterinary term for hock

A

Tarsus

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3
Q

What is the veterinary term for knee

A

Carpus

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4
Q

What is the veterinary term for the medial splint bone

A

MCII

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5
Q

What is the veterinary term for the cannon bone

A

MCIII

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6
Q

What is the veterinary term for the lateral splint bone

A

MC IV

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7
Q

What is the veterinary term for fetlock or ankle

A

Metacarpo-pharyngeal (ankle)
Torso pharyngeal (fetlock) joint

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8
Q

What is the veterinary term for long pastern bone

A

First phalanx/P1/proximal phalanx

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9
Q

What is the veterinary term for the short pastern bone

A

Second phalanx/P2/proximal phalanx

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10
Q

What is the veterinary term for the coffin bone

A

P3

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11
Q

What are the 4 nerve blocks commonly performed in the foot and forelimb

A
  1. Palmar digital
  2. Abaxial sesamoid
  3. Low 4 point/low palmar
  4. High 4 point/high palmar
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12
Q

What are the 4 common sites of joint injections in the foot and forelimb

A
  1. Distal interphalangeal joint
  2. Metacarpophalangeal joint/fetlock
  3. Middle carpal joint (capus)
  4. Radio carpal joint (carpus)
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13
Q

What are some reasons to do nerve blocks

A
  1. Diagnose lameness
  2. Desensitize area for surgery
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14
Q

What is the correct technique for nerve blocks

A

Needle bevel up and inserted subcutaneously over the nerve

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15
Q

What is the “heel block”

A

Palmar/plantar digital nerve block

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16
Q

What is desensitized in palmar/plantar digital nerve block

A
  1. Palmar/plantar 2/3’s of the foot
    Structures:
  2. Entire sole, navicular structures, distal interphalangeal joint, distal DDFT, distal sesamoidean ligaments
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17
Q

What doesn’t the palmar/plantar digital nerve block

A

Front of fetlock, gets caudal 75% of heel

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18
Q

What is the most common site of lameness

A

Heel

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19
Q

What does the abaxial sesamoid nerve block

A

Foot, P2, proximal interphalangeal joint, distopalmar/plantar aspect of proximal phalanx (P1), distal portions of SDFT and DDFT, distal sesamoidean ligaments and distal annular ligament

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20
Q

What doesn’t the abaxial sesamoid nerve block get

A

Proximal, front of P1 or pastern joint

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21
Q

What is desensitized in the low 4 point/low palmar nerve block

A

Metacarpo/ tarsophalangeal joint and structures distal, distal aspect of suspensory branches

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22
Q

what 4 nerves are you hitting with the 4 point/low palmar nerve block

A
  1. Medial palmar metacarpal nerve
  2. Lateral palmar metacarpal nerve
  3. Medial palmar nerve
  4. Lateral palmar nerve
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23
Q

What does the high 4 point/high palmar nerve block

A
  1. Medial and lateral palmar nerves- DDFT and SDFT
  2. Medial and lateral palmar metacarpal nerves- MC2, MC4, proximal suspensory ligament/origin
  3. All 4 get inferior check ligament
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24
Q

Why would you perform joint injections

A
  1. Tx arthritis
  2. Joint fluid sample to diagnose sepsis
  3. Joint lavage to diagnose communication with wound/laceration
  4. Joint lavage to tx sepsis
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25
What is desensitized in the distal interphalangeal joint block
1. Joint 2. Navicular bursa
26
What is desensitized in the metacarpo/ tarsophalangeal joint block
Joint, fetlock
27
What bones make up the carpus
Proximal row: radial, intermediate and ulnar Distal: 2-4
28
What are the 3 joints in the carpus
1. Radiocarpal 2. Middle/inter carpal joint 3. Carpometocarpal
29
What two joints in the carpus communicate with each other
Middle/intercarpal and the carpomemetcarpal
30
Carpus- label 1-9
1. Intermediate carpal bone 2. Ulnar carpal bone 3. 4th carpal bone 4. Radial carpal bone 5. 3rd carpal bone 6. 2nd carpal bone 7. Radiocarpal joint 8. Middle/intercarpal joint 9. Carpometacarpal joint
31
Carpus- label 1-9
1. Accessory bone (lateral) 2. 4th carpal bone 3. 4th metacarpal bone 4. Intermediate carpal bone 5. Ulnar carpal bone 6. Third carpal bone 7. Radiocarpal joint 8. Middle/intercarpal joint 9. Carpometacarpal joint
32
Carpus label 1-4
1. Radial carpal bone 2. 3rd carpal bone 3. Accessory carpal bone 4. Second carpal bone *medial view
33
What is desensitized in the Radiocarpal joint injection block
Radiocarpal joint ONLY- does not communicate with other joints
34
What is desensitized in the middle/intercarpal joint block
1. Middle/intercarpal joint 2. Carpometacarpal joint **both are blocked because these two joints communicate
35
What suspends P3
Epidermal and dermal laminae
36
What is the purpose of the laminae/equine foot during locomotion
Shock absorption
37
Which lamina in the foot is attached to the hoof wall
Epidermal laminae
38
Which lamina is attached to P3
Dermal laminae
39
Label 1-6
1. Extensor tendon 2. Coronary band 3. Laminae 4. DDFT 5. Lateral cartilage 6. Heel bulb
40
What is laminitis
Inflammation/ degeneration of the laminae
41
What are the two types of laminitis
1. Rotation of P3 (more common) 2. Sinking of P3 within the hoof capsule
42
What causes rotation of P3 in laminitis
Laminae on the dorsal midline of the toe die
43
What causes the sinking of P3 within the hoof capsule in laminitis
Laminae die circumferentially
44
What is the most common cause of acute lameness
Laminitis
45
Which X-ray is normal and which shows laminitis and how do you know?
Left: normal Right: laminitis Right photo P3 is detached from laminae resulting in sharper angle and the lines from hoof wall and P3 intersect, in normal patients they would be parallel
46
What is the most common cause of chronic forelimb lameness
Navicular disease
47
What is navicular disease
Chronic degeneration of the navicular bone
48
Navicular disease involves what 4 things
1. Loss of medullary architecture with subsequent synovial invagination (lollipops on X-ray) 2. Bone sclerosis with damage to fibrocartilage on flexor surface 3. Traumatic fibrillation of DDFT 4. Entesiophyte formation
49
Identify 1-3
1. Navicular one 2. DDFT 3. Navicular bursa
50
what is wrong here and which is normal vs abnormal
Navicular disease, top=normal, bottom= navicular disease
51
What is wrong here, which is normal vs abnormal and how do you know
left: normal Right: abnormal Loss of medullary architecture and increase synovial invaginations- loop like lollipops and damaged flexor surface Intact flexor surface should be smooth so DDFT can slide over
52
what is wrong here and what is indicated by 1-2
Navicular disease 1. Enthesiphyte 2. Synovial invagination (lollipop)
53
What is wrong here and what is indicated by 1-2
navicular disease 1. Edema of navicular bone 2. Normal joint fluid
54
T or F: penetrating wounds of the foot are always considered life threatening
True
55
What structure might be damaged by the nail
DDFT
56
What structures can be affected by penetrating wounds of the foot (7)
1. Ungual/collateral cartilage 2. Digital flexor tendon sheath 3. DDFT 4. Navicular bursa 5. Navicular bone 6. Distal interphalangeal joint 7. P3
57
Out of the 7 structures that can get damaged via penetrating wounds of the foot, what 3 are of big concern due to the presence of synovial fluid and why does that increase the concern
1. Digital flexor tendon sheath 2. Navicular bursa 3. Distal interphalangeal joint Concern because perfect medium for bacteria
58
What trajectory of the penetrating wound is typically worse and why (what structure does it pass through externally)
Through the frog because increase likelihood of hitting DDFT and navicular
59
What is desmitis
Inflammation of the ligament
60
How long does it take tendinitis/tendon injuries to heal
6 months
61
How long does it take for desmitis/ligament injuries to heal
8 months
62
Identify 1-3
1. Suspensory ligament 2. Sesamoid bones 3. Distal sesamoidean ligament
63
The following is an ultrasound of equine distal forelimb, identify 1-4. Ultrasound is taken from caudal aspect
1. SDF 2. DDF 3. check ligament 4. Suspensory ligament
64
the following is an ultrasound of distal equine forelimb taken from caudal aspect, what is the problem. Label top and bottom structures
Problem: superficial digital flexor tendinitis- hematoma in the tendon Top: SDFT Bottom: DDFT
65
The following MRI was taken, what is the problem and which is normal vs abnormal. Also identify #1
Problem: deep digital flexor tendinitis Left: normal Right: DDF tendinitis 1. DDFT
66
The following MRI was taken of the distal limb, what is the problem and which image is normal vs abnormal Also identify 1-4
1. Cannon bone 2. Suspensory ligament 3. DDFT 4. SDFT Left: normal Right:Problem: suspensory ligament desmitis/tear
67
The following is an MRI of suspensory ligament desmitis, identify 1-2 and what structures are being compressed by the suspensory ligament
1. Suspensory ligament 2. Vein, artery and nerve Vein, artery and nerve are being compressed by suspensory ligament
68
The following is an ultrasound of suspensory ligament desmitis, identify 1-5
1. SDFT 2. DDFT 3. Check ligament 4. Tear of suspensory ligament 5. Suspensory ligament
69
The following images are a result of laceration to the distal limb, identify what structures are torn in 1-3
1. SDFT 2. SFDT and DDFT 3. SFDT, DDFT, and superficial ligament
70
Patient presents to you with a dropped fetlock, what structure is lacerated in the distal limb
SDFT
71
Patient presents to you with a dropped fetlock and their toe flipped up, what structures are lacerated in the distal limb
SFDT and DDFT *DDFT inserts on p3
72
What structure does DDFT insert on
P3
73
A patient presents to you with entire plantar surface of limb on the ground, they are walking on their ankle, what structures are torn
SDFT, DDFT, SL
74
What are the 6 common sites of joint injections in the hindlimb
1. Tarsometatarsal 2. Distal intertarsal joint 3. Tibiotarsal joint 4. Femoropatellar joint 5. Medial femorotibial joint 6. Lateral femorotibial joint
75
What 9 bones make up the tarsus
1. Distal tibia 2. Calcaneus 3. Sustentaculum tali 4. Talus (medial and lateral trochlea) 5. Central tarsal bone 6. 3rd tarsal bone 7. 4th tarsal bone 8. Fused 1st and 2nd tarsal bones 9. Proximal 2-4 metatarsal bones
76
tarsus- identify 1-8
1. Tibia 2. Talus 3. 4th tarsal bone 4. Fourth metatarsal bone 5. Central tarsal bone 6. 3rd tarsal bone 7. Second metatarsal bone 8. Third metatarsal bone
77
Identify 1-9 on the tarsus
1. Tibia 2. Talus 3. 3rd tarsal bone 4. Third metacarpal bone 5. Calcaneous bone 6. Central tarsal bone 7. First and 2nd fused tarsal bones 8. 4th metatarsal bone 9. Second metatarsal bone
78
What are the 4 joints of the tarsus
1. Tibiotarsal 2. Proximal intertarsal 3. Distal intertarsal 4. Tarsometatarsal
79
What two joints in the tarsus communicate
Tibiotarsal and proximal intertarsal
80
Identify the red, green, blue and purple joint spaces
1. Tibiotarsal (tarocrural) 2. Proximal intertarsal 3. Distal intertarsal 4. Tarsometatarsal
81
identify 1-11
1. Calcanean tuber 2. Sustentaculum tali 3. Metatarsal II and IV 4. Central tarsal bone 5. 4th tarsal bone 6. Medial trochlear ridge 7. 3rd tarsal bone 8. Fused 1st and 2nd tarsals 9. Lateral trochlear ridge 10. Metatarsal III 11. Chestnut
82
What is desensitized in Tarsometatarsal joint injection
The joint
83
What is desensitized int he distal intertarsal joint injection
The joint
84
What is desensitized in the Tibiotarsal/tarsocrural joint
1. Tibiotarsal joint 2. Proximal intertarsal joint **these two communicate
85
What bones make up the stifle
1. Patella 2. Distal femur (medial and trochlear ridges) 3. Tibia
86
What 5 soft tissue structures make up the stifle
1. Medial patellar ligament 2. Middle patellar ligament 3. Lateral patellar ligament 4. Medial collateral ligament 5. Lateral collateral ligament
87
What 3 joints make up the stifle
1. Femoropatellar 2. Medial femorotibial 3. Lateral femorotibial
88
Identify 1-6
1. Femur 2. Medial trochlear ridge 3, medial patellar ligament 4. Patella 5. Lateral patellar ligament 6. Lateral femorotibial ligament
89
Identify 1-4
1. Medial femorotibial ligament 2. Medial trochlear ridge 3. Medial patellar ligament 4. Middle patellar ligament
90
What is desensitized in the Femoropatellar joint injection
1. Femoropatellar joint 2. Medial femorotibial joint (communicates with Femoropatellar in 65% of horses) 3. Lateral femorotibial joint
91
What is desensitized in the medial femorotibial joint injection
1. Femoropatellar joint 2. Medial femorotibial joint (communicates in 65% of horses)
92
What is desensitized in the lateral femorotibial joint injection
Lateral femorotibial joint
93
What has to be done to diagnose degenerative joint disease/arthritis
Radiographs
94
What is the most common site of DJD in horses
1. Distal intertarsal joint 2. Tarsometatarsal joints
95
What radiographic abnormalities are seen in DJD
1. Osteophytes 2. Enthesiophytes 3. Joint space thinning 4. Subchondral bone sclerosis (more opaque) 5. Periosteal proliferation 6. Subchondral bone lysis 7. Anklyosis (joint fusion)
96
What is the difference between an osteophyte and an enthesiophyte
Osteophyte is an extra bone produced at edge of joint Enthesiophytes is soft tissue
97
Identify 1-6
1. Tibia 2. Tibiotarsal joint 3. Proximal intertarsal joint 4. Distal intertarsal joint 5. Tarsometatarsal joint 6. Cannon bone
98
What is the problem here and at what joint in the tarsus
Distal tarsal joint osteoarthritis
99
Identify what structures are torn in the hind limb from left to right
Left: Normal Middle: gastrocnemius Right: Superficial digital flexor and gastrocnemius
100
When inserting a nasogastric tube, what surface do you want to be on, dorsal or ventral
Ventral
101
What structures are most likely to bleed when inserting a nasogastric tube
Ethmoid turbinates
102
At what section of the neck is it best to do a jugular vein puncture and why
Upper neck, jugular vein and common carotid artery are farthest apart
103
How many paranasal sinuses does a horse have
6
104
What are the 6 paranasal sinuses
1. Frontal 2. Maxillary- rostral and caudal compartment 3. Sphenopalantine 4. Dorsal conchal 5. Middle conchal 6. Ventral concha
105
What are the 2 clinically relevant paranasal sinuses
Frontal and maxillary
106
What do the following images indicate, patient presents with a nose bleed
Frontal sinus- ethmoid hematoma
107
What are some symptoms of an ethmoid hematoma
1. Mild, intermittent unilateral epistaxis 2. Smooth, glistening greenish surface
108
What divides the rostral and caudal compartments of the maxillary sinuses
Osseous septa
109
What roots communicate with the maxillary sinus in the rostral compartment
109, 209
110
What roots communicate with the maxillary sinus in the caudal compartment
110/210, 111/211
111
What do tooth root infections cause
Secondary sinusitis
112
What is the guttural pouch an extension of
Eustachian tubes
113
What does the guttural pouch connect
Pharynx to the middle ear
114
What is the capacity (mL) o the guttural pouch
472 +/- 12mL
115
What are the 5 theorized functions of the guttural pouch
1. Pressure equilibration across tympanic membrane 2. Warming of inhaled air 3. Resonating chamber for vocalization 4. Floatation device 5. Brain cooling
116
Identify 1-3
1. Eustachian tube 2. Pharyngeal opening of Eustachian tube 3. Guttural pouch
117
The guttural pouch is divided into medial and lateral compartments by __
Stylohyoid bind
118
Which guttural pouch compartment has greater capacity, medial or lateral
Medial
119
What is indicated in red
guttural pouch
120
The guttural pouch communicates with the pharynx through the ____ of the Eustachian tube
Nasopharyngeal orifice
121
Clinical signs of disease in the guttural pouch are referable to injury of specific ___ and ___
Nerves and arteries
122
Identify 1-4
1. Guttural pouch 2, blood vessels 3. Cranial nerves- IX 4. Stylohyoid bone
123
What artery lies on the wall of the lateral compartment of the guttural pouch
External carotid artery
124
What structures are contained in the fold of mucous membrane along the caudal wall of the medial compartment of the guttural pouch (4)
1. Internal carotid artery 2. CN IX 2. CN X 3. CN XI 4. CN XII
125
Patient presents with dysphasia, you suspect damage to the guttural pouch, what nerves are damaged
CN IX, CN XII
126
Patient presents with facial paralysis, you suspect damage to the guttural pouch, what nerve is damage
CN X
127
Identify 1-9
1. Lateral compartment 2. External carotid artery 3. Stylohyoid bone 4. Stylopharyngeus muscle 5. CN IX 6. CN XII 7. CN X 8. Internal carotid artery 9. Medial compartment
128
What is guttural pouch mycosis
Fungal infection of guttural pouch with aspergillus spp.
129
T or F: guttural pouch mycosis is a unilateral disease
True
130
What is the problem
guttural pouch mycosis
131
T or F: guttural pouch mycosis is severe, often fatal bilateral epistaxis
True
132
Identify 1-6
1. Oropharynx 2. Hard palate 3. Soft palate 4. Oral cavity 5. Tongue 6. Trachea
133
Identify 1-5
1. Laryngopharynx 2. Esophageal entrance 3. Vestibule 4. Glottis 5. Infraglottic cavity
134
Identify 1-9
1. Articulations with Stylohyoid 2. Epiglottic cartilages 3. Ceratohyoid 4. Lingual process of basihyoid 5. Thyrohyoid 6. Thyroid cartilage 7. Artyenoid cartilage 8. Cricoid cartilage 9. Tracheal cartilages
135
Identify 1-6
1. Aryepiglottic fold 2. Vocal folds 3. Soft palate 4. Artyenoid 5. Laryngeal saccule 6. Epiglottis
136
What is laryngeal hemiplegia
Laryngeal paralysis (one side)
137
Patient presents with laryngeal hemiplegia and upon endoscopic view the you notice it is abducted (away from midline), what structures are damaged
1. Cricoartyenoideus dorsalis 2. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
138
What is wrong
Laryngeal hemiplegia
139
What nerve block is this
Palmar/plantar digital nerve block (aka heel block)
140
What nerve block is this
Abaxial sesamoid nerve bloc
141
What nerve block is this
Low 4 point/low palmar nerve block
142
What nerve block is this
High 4 point/high palmar nerve block
143
What joint is this in
distal interphalangeal joint
144
What joint is this in
Metacarpo/ tarsophalangeal joint
145
What joint is this in- red circle
radiocarpal
146
What joint is this in
Middle/intercarpal joint
147
What joint is this in
Tarsometatarsal
148
What joint is this in
Distal intertarsal joint
149
What joint is this in
Tibiotarsal/tarsocrural joint
150
What joint is this in
Femoropatellar
151
What joint is this in
Medial femorotibial joint
152
What joint is this in
Lateral femorotibial joint
153
Identify 1-4 (medial view)
1. Medial palmar nerve 2. Medial digital nerve 3. Medial palmar nerve and vessels 4. Medial palmar metacarpal nerve
154
From palmar to dorsal order: artery, nerve, and vein
Palmar: nerve—> artery—> vein (most dorsal)
155
medial view, SDFT removed, label 1-3
1. DDFT 2. Median palmar nerve, artery, vein 3. Median digital nerve, artery, vein
156
lateral view, label 1
1. Lateral palmar nerve
157
Label 1-3
1. Radiocarpal joint 2. Middle carpal joint 3, Carpometacarpal joint
158
Identify 1-4
1. Distal phalanx/P3, coffin bone 2. Proximal phalanx/P1long pastern bone 3. Middle phalanx/P2/short pastern bone 4. Navicular bone
159
identify 1-3
1. DDFT 2. Navicular bursa 3. Navicular bone
160
Identify 1-2
1. Proximal sesamoid bones 2. Navicular bone
161
identify 1-7
1. SDFT 2. DDFT 3. Check ligament 4. Suspensory ligament 5. Metacarpophalngeal joint (fetlock) 6. Proximal interphalangeal joint (pastern) 7. Distal interphalangeal joint (coffin joint)
162
Identify 1-8
1. MC III- cannon bone 2. MC II or IV- splint bones 3. Carpal bones 2-4 (2 medial, 4 lateral) 4. Radial carpal bone 5. Intermediate carpal bone 6. Ulnar carpal bone 7. Accessory carpal bone 8. Radius

Clinical Anatomy (16 decks)

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