Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Dementia due to Head Trauma
    a. is usually progressive in cases of moderate to severe trauma.
    b. is usually progressive only in cases of repeated head trauma.
    c. unlike other forms of Dementia, does not usually involve disturbances in executive functions.
    d. unlike other forms of Dementia, is associated more with deficits in executive functions than with memory impairment.
A

B

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2
Q
  1. According to Lenore Walker, which of the following best describes the dynamic that keeps battered women “hooked” into their relationship with the batterer?
    a. Due to having grown up in an abusive family, the victim believes that battering is a normal part of relationships.
    b. The costs of the abuse and the benefits of remaining in the relationship are about equal.
    c. The woman fears that the abuse will become even more severe if she tries to leave the relationship.
    d. The woman lacks knowledge about the resources available to help her leave the relationship.
A

B

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3
Q
  1. The Larry P. v. Riles case is important because it:
    a. defined the relationship between standard intellectual assessments and placement in Mental Retardation classes.
    b. was the first time a court addressed bias in job selection in private industry.
    c. relates to how much information must be revealed to research participants.
    d. limited certain restraint of trade clauses in the APA Ethics Code, such as using patient testimonials.
A

A

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4
Q
  1. The major threat to internal validity of a time-series quasi-experiment would be
    a. maturation
    b. selection.
    c. regression.
    d. history.
A

D

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5
Q
  1. A cross dresser who only gets aroused when wearing women’s clothing would be diagnosed with:
    a. Transvestic fetishism
    b. Exhibitionism
    c. Transvestism
    d. Gender identity disorder
A

A

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6
Q
  1. According to Piaget, when a child accommodates new information by forming a new schema or modifying an existing one, this results in
    a. decentration.
    b. equilibration.
    c. assimilation.
    d. symbolic representation.
A

B

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7
Q
  1. Children with Generalized Anxiety Disorder most frequently worry about:
    a. being away from home or close relatives
    b. being embarrassed in public
    c. performance in school or sporting events
    d. having an illness
A

C

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8
Q
  1. The most effective behavioral technique to reduce a school-aged child’s temper tantrums is:
    a. modeling
    b. extinction
    c. positive reinforcement
    d. negative reinforcement
A

B

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9
Q
  1. A patient suffers damage to the spinal cord severe enough to cause numbness and tingling. However, the spinal cord is not severed. The patient is most likely experiencing:
    a. paresis.
    b. hemiplegia.
    c. quadriplegia.
    d. paraplegia.
A

A

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10
Q
  1. Working Memory is an expansion of the WISC-III Freedom from Distractibility factor. It is comprised of which of the following scales?
    a. Coding, symbol search, digit span
    b. Arithmetic and digit-span
    c. Perceptual organization, comprehension, similarities
    d. Digit-span, picture arrangement, coding
A

B

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11
Q
  1. When undertaking token economies with seriously disturbed individuals in mental institutions, one of the major problems with the program’s efficacy has to do with
    a. generalization of behaviors.
    b. choice of reinforcers.
    c. exchange ratio.
    d. reinforcement value.
A

A

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12
Q
  1. One of the criteria for the diagnosis of autism is:
    a. Difficulty with phonemes
    b. Difficulty with morphemes
    c. Reversal of pronouns
    d. Reversal of sentences
A

C

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13
Q
  1. An intervention targeting Bronfenbrenner’s microsystem will focus on
    a. family members.
    b. family members and/or classmates.
    c. school and church.
    d. parents’ work and friends.
A

B

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14
Q
  1. All of the following statements regarding item response theory are true, except
    a. it cannot be applied in the attempt to develop culture-fair tests.
    b. it’s a useful theory in the development of computer programs designed to create tests tailored to the individual’s level of
    ability.
    c. one of its assumptions is that test items measure a “latent trait.”
    d. it usually has little practical significance unless one is working with very large samples.
A

A

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15
Q
  1. The difference between professional ethics and professional values is best stated by which of the following?
    a. If a psychologist is ethical, there should be no difference between ethics and values.
    b. Ethics are standards for practice set by the profession, while values refer to judgments of right and wrong.
    c. Ethics can be stated more specifically than values.
    d. Values specifically define appropriate professional conduct, while ethics are a more general code of proper professional
    conduct.
A

B

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16
Q
  1. There is evidence that the effectiveness of systematic desensitization for reducing anxiety is actually due to repeated exposure to the feared stimulus, which leads to extinction of the anxiety response. However, systematic desensitization was originally developed as an application of
    a. negative reinforcement.
    b. counterconditioning.
    c. stimulus discrimination.
    d. avoidance conditioning.
A

B

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17
Q
  1. A primary reinforcer is the same as:
    a. A conditioned reinforcer
    b. The first reinforcer used
    c. Pseudoconditioning
    d. An unconditioned reinforcer
A

D

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18
Q
  1. Huntington’s Disease is most associated with decreased amounts of:
    a. dopamine
    b. epinephrine
    c. GABA
    d. norepinephrine
A

C

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following models of leadership provides a “decision tree” to help a leader determine whether an autocratic, consultative, or consensual decision-making approach is best given the nature of the work situation?
    a. Fiedler’s contingency model
    b. Hersey and Blanchard’s situational model
    c. Vroom and Yetton’s normative model
    d. House’s path-goal model
A

C

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20
Q
  1. In the context of expectancy theory, valence refers to:
    a. the willingness of a worker to exert effort.
    b. the strength of the worker’s needs.
    c. the desirability of the job itself.
    d. the desirability of the consequences of performance.
A

D

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21
Q
  1. A man is able to achieve erections during sleep, but, has difficulty achieving or maintaining erections during sexual activities. The most appropriate diagnosis would be:
    a. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder
    b. Male Erectile Disorder
    c. Sexual Aversion Disorder
    d. Sexual Dysfunction Not Otherwise Specified
A

B

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22
Q
  1. Severe maternal malnutrition during the third trimester is correlated with a number of intellectual, social, and motor deficits in children. Which of the following statements regarding the physiological correlates of these deficits is most true?
    a. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is most likely to result in incomplete development of the autonomic nervous
    system.
    b. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester seems to have its most severe negative impact on the developing brain.
    c. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is most likely to cause physical disabilities that prevent the child from
    developing at a normal rate.
    d. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is not likely to have a significant physiological effect on the developing fetus;
    observed deficits in these children are probably due to social and environmental causes.
A

B

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23
Q
  1. Beck’s cognitive therapy includes all of the following characteristics except:
    a. it is referred to as “collaborative empiricism.”
    b. it is structured and goal-oriented.
    c. relapse prevention is a focus throughout.
    d. it is based on an elaboration likelihood model.
A

D

24
Q
  1. You belong to a managed-care panel and a client with a 12-session limit was referred to you. Without calling to cancel, she does not show up for her fourth session. How would you bill for the missed session?
    a. bill the insurance company
    b. bill the client according to office policies
    c. bill the client for the co-payment and the insurance company for the no-show
    d. you cannot bill either the client or insurance company
A

B

25
Q
  1. The part of the brain that is compromised in Parkinson’s Disease is the
    a. basal ganglia.
    b. substantia nigra.
    c. hypothalamus.
    d. frontal lobe.
A

B

26
Q
  1. The tendency to rate all using the low end of the rating scale is referred to as:
    a. floor effect
    b. contrast effect
    c. central tendency bias
    d. severity error
A

D

27
Q
  1. According to DSM-IV, patients who meet some but not all of the criteria for a particular diagnosis can still be assigned that diagnosis. This reflects the fact that:
    a. DSM-IV relies on a dimensional rather than a categorical approach to diagnosis.
    b. DSM-IV relies on a categorical rather than a dimensional approach to diagnosis.
    c. DSM-IV combines aspects of categorical and dimensional diagnosis.
    d. DSM-IV’s approach to diagnostic classification is not valid.
A

B

28
Q
  1. A week before a controversial episode of a television sitcom is to be shown, a prominent Christian fundamentalist group calls for a sponsor boycott of the show and urges people not to watch it. The group’s actions are highly publicized and the group’s leader appears on a different talk show every day for the week before the show debuts to discuss the reasons why people shouldn’t watch the show. The show’s episode turns out to be the most watched episode in its history. This situation illustrates the phenomenon of
    a. psychological reactance.
    b. cognitive dissonance.
    c. overjustification.
    d. overcompensation.
A

A

29
Q
  1. Latane called this a social disease. It occurred when high-level employees were assessed on a combined effort. It turned out they produced less than when they were working individually. It’s called:
    a. Social loafing
    b. Group think
    c. Social polarization
    d. Social facilitation
A

A

30
Q
  1. Delinquency in adolescence is most associated with:
    a. low income families and low IQ score.
    b. a mother who works outside the home and an unemployed father.
    c. weak parental supervision and parental rejection.
    d. harsh physical punishment and unreasonable rules.
A

C

31
Q
  1. To reduce a child’s aggressive behavior, the best approach is to:
    a. punish the aggression consistently and harshly.
    b. use differential reinforcement of alternative behaviors.
    c. identify the consequences of the behavior and alternatives to it.
    d. have the child vent his or her aggressive feelings by hitting a pillow.
A

C

32
Q
  1. The recurrence of hallucinations long after intoxication is most likely to result from the use of:
    a. Mescaline
    b. PCP
    c. Methamphetamine
    d. Cocaine
A

A

33
Q
  1. Consuming foods containing tyramine while taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor would most likely result in:
    a. depression
    b. hypotension
    c. hypertension
    d. no adverse reactions
A

C

34
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true about members of self-directed work teams?
    a. Each member of a self-directed team has unique, specialized works skills to contribute to the group product.
    b. Members plan the group’s work processes and set the group’s work goals.
    c. Members may be authorized to hire their own replacements.
    d. Members of self-directed work teams tend to be absent more than members of traditional work groups.
A

A

35
Q
  1. The theory that proposes convergent and divergent thinking as dimensions of intelligence is associated with:
    a. Galton
    b. Thurstone
    c. Guilford
    d. Cattell
A

C

36
Q
  1. Journal reviewers who show strong bias against manuscripts that report results contrary to their theoretical perspective are demonstrating:
    a. self-serving bias
    b. confirmatory bias
    c. fundamental attribution bias
    d. self verification theory
A

B

37
Q
  1. Stimulus A is paired with stimulus B. Stimulus B is then paired with stimulus C until stimulus C elicits the same response that was elicited by stimulus A. This is an example of:
    a. chaining
    b. shaping
    c. secondary reinforcement
    d. higher-order conditioning
A

D

38
Q
  1. Holland’s approach to vocational guidance is based on the assumption that:
    a. interests motivate occupational choice
    b. behavior is a function of personality-environment congruence
    c. job satisfaction and performance are related to a match between aptitude and job requirements
    d. interests change in a predictable way over the course of the lifespan
A

B

39
Q
  1. In most species of animals the differences between males and females in body size and shape is referred to as:
    a. androgyny
    b. sexual bifurcation
    c. gender dichotomy
    d. sexual dimorphism
A

D

40
Q
  1. The symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder can be alleviated through cognitive-behavioral treatments and medication interventions that reduce activity in the
    a. reticular activating system.
    b. inferior colliculus.
    c. caudate nucleus.
    d. locus coeruleus.
A

C

41
Q
  1. A pianist comes to your office for therapy after having sustained a head injury in a recent car accident. He has lost sensation in the fingers of his left hand and feels he “must be going crazy” because this is such a strange occurrence. Before you pull out the DSM-IV, you refer him to a neurologist because you suspect the head injury may have caused damage to the
    a. precentral gyrus.
    b. postcentral gyrus.
    c. lateral fissure.
    d. central sulcus.
A

B

42
Q
  1. Approximately 50% of children with Autism fail to speak or develop language skills. Those that do speak are most likely to show
    a. pronoun reversal.
    b. phoneme omissions.
    c. phonological errors.
    d. syllable reversal.
A

A

43
Q
  1. The technique which allows a researcher to identify the underlying (latent) factors that relate to a set of measured variables and the nature of the causal relationships between those factors is:
    a. structural equation modeling (SEM)
    b. cluster analysis
    c. Q-technique factor analysis
    d. survival analysis
A

A

44
Q
  1. ___________________ may result in a job performance measure having low validity, even though it is reliable.
    a. differential validity
    b. criterion contamination
    c. criterion deficiency
    d. researcher deficiency
A

C

45
Q
  1. If a job selection test has lower validity for Hispanics as compared to White or African-Americans, you could say that ethnicity is acting as a:
    a. confounding variable
    b. criterion contaminator
    c. discriminant variable
    d. moderator variable
A

D

46
Q
  1. The suicide rate for African-American adolescent males over the past few decades has been:
    a. higher than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has recently been an increase in the rates for both groups.
    b. lower than the rate for white adolescents males, but there has been an increase in the rates for both groups.
    c. higher than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has recently been a decrease in the rates for both groups.
    d. lower than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has been a decrease in the rates for both groups.
A

B

47
Q
  1. A patient uses similar phonemes or words instead of the specific words required. What impairment does the patient have?
    a. apraxia
    b. dysarthria
    c. paraphasias
    d. dysprosody
A

C

48
Q
  1. The basic assumption of Howard Gardner’s theory of intelligence is reflected best in which of the following statements
    a. Intelligence is best defined in terms of the ability to deal with abstract concepts.
    b. Intelligence assessment requires the use of simple quantified measures such as paper-and-pencil tests.
    c. In assessing intelligence, learning to be an efficient processor of information is more important than genetic factors.
    d. In assessing intelligence, the society in which a person lives evaluates how intelligent a person is thought to be.
A

D

49
Q
  1. National surveys comparing rural and urban areas rates of mental disorders indicate:
    a. prevalence rates are not statistically different
    b. prevalence rates are significantly higher in rural areas for most mental disorders
    c. prevalence rates are significantly higher in urban areas for most mental disorders
    d. prevalence rates are statistically different with some disorders more common in rural or urban areas
A

A

50
Q
  1. The best example of a secondary prevention program is
    a. a rehabilitation program.
    b. crisis intervention.
    c. a community education program.
    d. Head Start.
A

B

51
Q
  1. Patterson’s coercive family interactive model would predict
    a. parents who “bribe” their children to act appropriately will meet with limited success.
    b. hostile aggressive children change a parent’s disciplinary technique.
    c. children initially learn aggressive behaviors from their parents.
    d. children often learn aggressive behavior at school and then this generalizes.
A

C

52
Q
  1. In addition to tolerance and withdrawal, which of the following is a criterion for the diagnosis “Substance Dependence?”
    a. daily use of the substance
    b. the substance is taken in larger amounts or over a longer period of time than was intended
    c. frequent cravings to use the substance
    d. recurrent substance-related legal problems
A

B

53
Q
  1. Componential, experiential, and practical are the three aspects of which intelligence model?
    a. Gardner
    b. Cattell and Horn
    c. Sternberg
    d. Perkins
A

C

54
Q
  1. A seizure that begins with uncontrollable twitching of a small part of the body and gradually spreads throughout one side or the entire body is referred to as:
    a. partial
    b. petit mal
    c. tonic-clonic
    d. generalized
A

A

55
Q
  1. Which of the following structures develops last?
    a. cerebellum
    b. frontal lobe
    c. occipital lobe
    d. temporal lobe
A

B