PT4 Flashcards

1
Q
Question ID #117: When shown the word "hot" a patient says "cold" and when shown the word "rock" the patient says "stone." These errors are most suggestive of: 
Select one: 
A. surface dyslexia.  
B. deep dyslexia. 
C. pure alexia. 
D. literal alexia.
A

B

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2
Q
Question ID #39858: Stead et al.'s (2012) review of the literature found that \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the most effective form of nicotine replacement therapy for treating cigarette smoking. 
Select one: 
A. nicotine gum  
B. nicotine nasal spray 
C. nicotine tablet/lozenge 
D. nicotine patch
A

B

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3
Q

Question ID #14349: For a person with Social Anxiety Disorder, panic attacks are:
Select one:
A. the result of interoceptive conditioning.
B. cued by specific social situations.
C. infrequent and nearly always unexpected.
D. indicative of a co-diagnosis of Panic Disorder.

A

B

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4
Q

Question ID #1824: For people with Specific Phobia, blood-injection-injury type:
Select one:
A. relaxation techniques are the treatment-of-choice.
B. relaxation techniques have good short-term but poor long-term effects.
C. relaxation techniques are most effective when they include in vivo exposure to feared stimuli.
D. relaxation techniques are normally contraindicated.

A

D

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5
Q

Question ID #38668: Annabelle, age 32, is brought to a clinician by her sister who says she thinks Annabelle is in a cult. She states that Annabelle used to be a very fun-loving, intellectually curious, and affectionate individual, but since she became affiliated with this group over two years ago, she “doesn’t seem to be the same person.” The clinician notices that Annabelle is very quiet, doesn’t make eye contact, and appears “zoned out.” When her sister reaches out to touch her, Annabelle flinches as if in pain. Annabelle states that she’s a “new person” now and can “see reality for what it really is.” Based on this information, the most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for Annabelle is:
Select one:
A. Other Specified Dissociative Disorder
B. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
C. Schizoid Personality Disorder
D. Major Depressive Disorder

A

A

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6
Q
Question ID #10318: A psychologist develops a theory of alcohol abuse that describes it as the result of a combination of a genetic predisposition toward alcoholism and exposure to certain environmental factors. The psychologist's theory is best described as an example of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ model. 
Select one: 
A. psychogenic  
B. sociogenic 
C. diathesis-stress 
D. SORC
A

C

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7
Q

Question ID #38699: Following her divorce nine months ago, Melody, age 29, developed intermittent abdominal pain and frequent morning headaches. She’s concerned that these symptoms mean that she has cancer or other life threatening illness, and constant worry about her health has made it difficult for her to care for her children, spend time with her friends, and concentrate at work. Assuming that a physical exam has ruled out a physical cause for her symptoms, the most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for Melody is:
Select one:
A. Somatoform Disorder NOS
B. Conversion Disorder with mixed symptoms
C. Pain Disorder
D. Somatic Symptom Disorder with predominant pain

A

D

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8
Q
Question ID #8006: A person with Dissociative Amnesia is unable to recall anything that happened to her during the first few hours after she was physically assaulted. As defined in the DSM, this is referred to as: 
Select one: 
A. localized amnesia. 
B. selective amnesia.  
C. anterograde amnesia. 
D. retrograde amnesia.
A

A

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9
Q

Question ID #38691: As described in the DSM-5, level of severity of Alcohol Use Disorder and other Substance Use Disorders is based on:
Select one:
A. degree of functional impairment.
B. number of symptoms.
C. the presence of tolerance and/or withdrawal.
D. the degree of distress caused by use of the substance.

A

B

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10
Q
Question ID #35: Studies examining the risk factors for recidivism among juvenile offenders has identified which of the following as being the BEST predictor of re-offending? 
Select one: 
A. IQ 
B. socioeconomic status  
C. age at first offense 
D. history of maltreatment/abuse
A

C

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11
Q
Question ID #8952: Which of the following is characterized by intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors that involve touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person. 
Select one: 
A. fetishism 
B. frotteurism  
C. exhibitionism 
D. trichotillomania
A

B

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12
Q

Question ID #17528: Research investigating the effectiveness of neurofeedback as a treatment for ADHD has generally found which of the following?
Select one:
A. It is not an effective approach for most individuals with this disorder.
B. It is an effective approach and exerts its strongest impact on symptoms of inattention and impulsivity.
C. It is an effective approach and exerts its strongest impact on symptoms of hyperactivity.
D. It is an effective approach only when used in conjunction with a central nervous system stimulant.

A

B

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13
Q

Question ID #304: According to Sue and Zane (1987), in terms of ensuring good treatment outcomes, the most important factor in culturally sensitive therapy is:
Select one:
A. demonstrating cultural knowledge.
B. using culture-specific techniques.
C. using techniques that establish credibility.
D. being authentic and empathic.

A

C

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14
Q
Question ID #94: Cross's (1991, 2001) Black Racial Identity Development Model includes four stages, the last of which is: 
Select one: 
A. autonomy.  
B. internalization. 
C. incorporation. 
D. integrative awareness.
A

B

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15
Q

Question ID #308: During your first session with a Japanese client, you decide that your primary goals are to normalize the client’s problems and instill a sense of hope. According to Sue and Zane (1987), these goals are:
Select one:
A. examples of “gift-giving.”
B. ways of establishing ascribed credibility.
C. ways of fostering “amae.”
D. manifestations of “cultural expressiveness.”

A

A

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16
Q
Question ID #1368: A person-centered (Rogerian) therapist would most likely respond to a client's transference by: 
Select one: 
A. interpreting it. 
B. challenging it. 
C. disregarding it. 
D. reflecting it.
A

C

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17
Q

Question ID #119474: What are the three approaches to healthcare?
Select one:
A. The Group Model, Open Model, and Regency Model.
B. The Stanford Model, Dual Model, and House Model.
C. The Open Model, Bismarck Model, and Balanced Model.
D. The Private Model, Beveridge Model, and Bismarck Model.

A

D

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18
Q
Question ID #12921: Carl Jung identified which of the following as the source of psychic energy? 
Select one: 
A. libido 
B. archetypes 
C. persona 
D. personal unconscious
A

A

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19
Q

Question ID #1667: D. W. Sue (1978) describes “worldview” in terms of two independent dimensions – locus of control and locus of responsibility. From this perspective, an Anglo-American therapist with an internal local of control and internal locus of responsibility is most likely to experience problems when working with an African American client who has an:
Select one:
A. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility.
B. external locus of control and external locus of responsibility.
C. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility.
D. internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility.

A

C

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20
Q

Question ID #17334: Savin-Williams and Diamond (2000) investigated the sexual identity trajectories among sexual minority youth and found that:
Select one:
A. adolescent females had an earlier onset of all milestones.
B. adolescent males had an earlier onset of all milestones.
C. adolescent females had an earlier onset of all milestones except first same-sex attraction.
D. adolescent males had an earlier onset of all milestone except first disclosure of sexual orientation to another person.

A

D

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21
Q
Question ID #902: Ridley (1984) addressed the distrust that often exists between African American clients and their therapists and proposed that the therapist's ethnicity is the MOST important factor for: 
Select one: 
A. a confluent paranoiac. 
B. a cultural paranoiac.  
C. a nonparanoiac. 
D. a dissonant paranoic.
A

A

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22
Q
Question ID #17515: Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) used meta-analysis to combine the results of 475 psychotherapy outcome studies published between 1941 and 1976 and obtained a mean effect size of \_\_\_, which indicated that the average therapy client was "better off" than about 80% percent of individuals who needed therapy but did not receive it. 
Select one: 
A. 0.4 
B. 0.55 
C. 0.85  
D. 0.98
A

C

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23
Q

Question ID #1042: Which of the following illustrates “diagnostic overshadowing”?
Select one:
A. A therapist lists an inaccurate diagnosis on an insurance form because she knows the insurance company will be unwilling to pay for therapy for the correct diagnosis.
B. A therapist does not recognize a co-existing clinical disorder in an intellectually disabled patient because of the salience of the intellectual disability.
C. A therapist misdiagnoses a patient because the salience of an atypical symptom causes her to overlook the patient’s other symptoms.
D. A therapist’s own cultural beliefs and values impede her ability to recognize how cultural differences impact diagnosis and treatment.

A

B

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24
Q

Question ID #1957: A clinical psychologist routinely administers personality tests to her clients to assist in diagnosis. She also uses the test data in her ongoing research project. This is:
Select one:
A. ethical as long as the identity of the clients is not made available to the research project.
B. ethical as long as the research is exempt from an informed consent.
C. unethical unless she gets each client’s consent to participate in the research study.
D. unethical since this represents a multiple relationship.

A

C

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25
Q

Question ID #578: You suspect a colleague of violating ethical guidelines. To be consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code, you should:
Select one:
A. report the colleague to the local Ethics Committee immediately.
B. report the colleague to the local Ethics Committee only if the ethical violation is a serious one.
C. attempt to handle the situation informally by discussing the violation with the colleague and file a report only if he is uncooperative.
D. either handle the situation informally or file a report, depending on which course of action you believe is most appropriate.

A

D

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26
Q

Question ID #1883: A psychologist is working in the employee assistance program (EAP) of a large corporation. She is approached by a supervisor who referred an employee to the EAP several weeks ago when the employee was having problems at home that began interfering with her job performance. The employer now wants to know if the employee has been receiving counseling from the psychologist and, if so, how the sessions are going. In fact, the employee has seen the psychologist four times and has another session scheduled for the next week. The psychologist should:
Select one:
A. inform the supervisor that she has seen the employee but provide no information about the employee’s treatment.
B. inform the supervisor that she has seen the employee and provide a summary of the employees progress with regard to the reason for the referral.
C. remind the supervisor of the need to maintain confidentiality and provide him with no information about the employee.
D. tell the supervisor that she will have to get permission from the employee before providing the supervisor with any information about the employees progress.

A

C

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27
Q

Question ID #1585: A school psychologist is contacted by the father of one of the school’s students. He informs the psychologist that the family is moving to another state and requests that she provide him with a copy of his child’s records. The psychologist should:
Select one:
A. provide a copy of the records to the father as requested because he has a legal right to them.
B. provide a copy of the records to the father in a sealed envelope that is marked “confidential” and instruct him to give it to the school psychologist at the new school.
C. request the name and address of the new school and forward the records to the school psychologist once the family has moved.
D. refuse to release a copy of the records because they are the property of the school.

A

C

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28
Q

Question ID #1996: Which of the following best describes the requirements of the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Associations with regard to obtaining informed consent from research participants?
Select one:
A. An informed consent is always required unless the study will involve deception and the deception meets ethical guidelines.
B. An informed consent is not required as long as participants will be debriefed at the end of the study.
C. An informed consent may not be required when the study is unlikely to cause harm or is exempted by legal or institutional regulations.
D. An informed consent is always required.

A

C

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29
Q

Question ID #1932: When a psychologist’s work with clients will be supervised:
Select one:
A. the client must be told about this arrangement.
B. the client must be told about this arrangement and be given the supervisor’s name.
C. the client must be told about this arrangement only if his/her identity cannot be disguised in discussions with the supervisor.
D. the client must be told about this arrangement and, when the supervisor has legal responsibility for the case, must also be given the supervisor’s name.

A

D

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30
Q

Question ID #36770: An expert witness is recognized by the court to be qualified to offer opinions on a specific issue. To qualify as an expert witness, a psychologist must:
Select one:
A. have a valid professional license.
B. have a relevant doctoral degree from an accredited school.
C. have appropriate education, training, and experience.
D. be certified as a forensic psychologist by the ABPP.

A

C

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31
Q

Question ID #1711: A psychologist wants to assess a client with a test that has not yet been validated for the client’s ethnic group. To be consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code, the psychologist:
Select one:
A. should explain the limitations of the test results to the client.
B. should assess the client only if the test results are “imminently needed.”
C. should assess the client only if the assessment has been approved by the insurance company.
D. should not assess the client using the test under any circumstances.

A

A

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32
Q

Question ID #16915: Of the cases processed by the APA’s Ethics Committee as the result of revocation of a psychologist’s license by a state licensing board, the most common complaint processed by the committee is which of the following?
Select one:
A. loss of licensure in another jurisdiction
B. sexual misconduct
C. breach of confidentiality
D. issues related to competence

A

B

33
Q

Question ID #1387: With regard to sexual harassment, the APA’sEthical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct:
Select one:
A. prohibits denying employment, tenure, or promotion to an individual because he/she has filed a sexual harassment charge.
B. prohibits denying employment, tenure, or promotion to an individual because he/she has filed or is the subject of a sexual harassment charge.
C. prohibits denying employment, tenure, or promotion to an individual because he/she has filed or is the subject of a sexual harassment charge or has been found guilty of sexual harassment.
D. none of the above.

A

B

34
Q

Question ID #1351: Research investigating the relationship between unemployment and mental health has generally found that:
Select one:
A. the rates of depression and other neurotic disorders are substantially higher among the unemployed than the employed.
B. the rates of depression and other neurotic disorders are about the same among the unemployed and the employed.
C. mental health problems are likely to occur only when symptoms were evident prior to unemployment.
D. paradoxically, about 20 to 25% of unemployed individuals report an improvement in mental health after job loss.

A

A

35
Q
Question ID #488: In evaluating the criterion-related validity of a selection test, you discover that race/ethnicity is a moderator variable. Consequently, you will be interested in determining if the test has: 
Select one: 
A. adequate internal validity.  
B. adequate reliability. 
C. differential validity. 
D. convergent validity.
A

C

36
Q
Question ID #1703: A dance teacher notices that one of her students performs better when his classmates are present than when he practices alone. This is an example of: 
Select one: 
A. participant modeling. 
B. social facilitation.  
C. deindividuation. 
D. social comparison.
A

B

37
Q

Question ID #244: A needs assessment ordinarily consists of three components. These are:
Select one:
A. evaluative, formative, and summative analysis.
B. job, person, and organizational analysis.
C. unfreezing, changing, and refreezing.
D. knowledge, skills, and abilities.

A

B

38
Q

Question ID #14324: Research conducted by Mayo and his colleagues at the Hawthorne plant of the Western Electric Company in the mid-1920s led to identification of the “Hawthorne effect” which attributed observed increases in worker productivity to which of the following?
Select one:
A. changes in the physical characteristics of the work environment
B. a change in the reward structure that more directly linked performance to pay
C. the direct result of evaluation apprehension
D. the special attention the workers received as research participants

A

D

39
Q
Question ID #726: Which of the following theories would predict that job enrichment would have a detrimental effect on job performance? 
Select one: 
A. two-factor  
B. activation 
C. equity 
D. scientific management
A

D

40
Q

Question ID #880: A task-oriented leader is most effective when the work situation is characterized either by good leader-member relations, a structured task, and strong leader power or by moderately poor leader-member relations, an unstructured task, and weak leader power. This is predicted by which of the following?
Select one:
A. Fiedler’s contingency theory
B. Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model
C. House’s path-goal theory
D. Vroom, Yetton, and Jago’s normative model

A

A

41
Q

Question ID #832: As described by Beck, automatic thoughts involve:
Select one:
A. interpreting experiences in patterned or automatic ways.
B. enduring schemas that have been repeatedly reinforced.
C. shoulds, “musts,” and “oughts.”
D. episodic memories.

A

A

42
Q
Question ID #36768: Subjects in a research study are asked to read the following list of words: pin, sewing, thread, sharp, haystack, injection, point, pain. They are then asked to recall as many words from the list as possible, and many subjects recall the word "needle" even though it is not one of the words in the list. This illustrates which of the following? 
Select one: 
A. false memory induction  
B. imagination inflation 
C. Deese-Roediger-McDermott paradigm 
D. Loftus misinformation effect
A

C

43
Q

Question ID #711: To establish a behavior that an individual does not naturally emit, you would use which of the following?

Select one:
A.intermittent reinforcement
B.shaping 
C.response generalization
D.priming
A

B

44
Q

Question ID #19335: As defined by Aaron Beck, involves drawing a specific conclusion about an experience in the absence of supporting evidence for that conclusion.

Select one:
A.selective abstraction  
B.emotional reasoning
C.personalization
D.arbitrary inference
A

D

45
Q

Question ID #1426: A parent decides to use time-out to reduce her son’s misbehavior by having him sit in the corner for ten minutes each time he misbehaves. The boy quickly learns, however, that, if he whines while in the corner, his mother shortens the length of the time-out period. In this situation, the mother’s willingness to shorten the time-out period is being controlled by:

Select one:
A.escape conditioning.
B.avoidance conditioning.  
C.positive reinforcement.
D.positive punishment.
A

A

46
Q

Question ID #1460: A friend asks you how you liked the concert you went to last Saturday night. As you try to recall the concert, you realize that your memory is being affected by other concerts you have attended in the past. In other words, your memory of last Saturday’s concert is being affected by:

Select one:
A.your implicit memory of concerts.  
B.a lack of encoding specificity.
C.positive memory transfer.
D.your schema for concerts.
A

D

47
Q

Question ID #19334: Use of which of the following provided Broadbent (1958) with support for his filter theory of attention?

Select one:
A.dismantling strategy
B.Stroop test  
C.dichotic listening task
D.speeded-target monitoring task
A

C

48
Q

Question ID #124: According to Carol Gilligan, adolescent girls need experiences that help them:

Select one:
A.plan for their future in the adult world.
B.separate successfully from their families.
C.stay connected to themselves and others.
D.explore alternative identities.

A

C

49
Q

Question ID #534: Which of the following is LEAST characteristic of infants who were exposed to cocaine in utero?

Select one:
A.They are abnormally insensitive to tactile, visual, and auditory stimulation.
B.They are excessively irritable and unresponsive to attempts to comfort.
C.They often have increased motor tone.
D.They often have a low birthweight and small head circumference.

A

A

50
Q

Question ID #1122: Sexual activity among older adults is most related to:

Select one:
A.sexual activity earlier in life.
B.attitudes toward sex and sexuality.
C.interest in sex.
D.overall life satisfaction.
A

A

51
Q

Question ID #14343: According to Carstensen’s (1999) socioemotional selectivity theory, differences in the preferences of adults for emotionally close versus novel social partners is related to:

Select one:
A.gender differences.
B.age differences.
C.differences in time perspective.
D.differences in basic personality traits.
A

C

52
Q

Question ID #39868: Research on behavioral inhibition by Kagan (1998) and others suggests that this characteristic can be exacerbated by:

Select one:
A.parental overprotectiveness.
B.parental permissiveness.
C.a lack of interactional synchrony.  
D.a chaotic home environment.
A

A

53
Q

Question ID #1808: In the case of Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka (1954), research by Kenneth and Mamie Clark was used to support the argument that:

Select one:
A.school segregation contributes to a negative self-image among African American children.
B.school segregation contributes to low school achievement among African American children.
C.academic underachievement of African American children is related to parental and cultural expectations.
D.academic underachievement of African American children is related to low teacher expectations.

A

A

54
Q

Question ID #608: Erik Erikson coined the term:

Select one:
A.adolescent storm and stress.
B.adolescent identity crisis.    
C.midlife crisis.
D.sandwich generation.
A

B

55
Q

Question ID #1439: Vygotsky’s approach to cognitive development has had the greatest influence on which of the following?

Select one:
A.the reciprocal teaching method
B.the teaching for understanding method
C.the use of computer-adaptive instruction for children with learning disabilities
D.genetic explanations for cognitive development

A

A

56
Q

Question ID #15030: Which of the following lists the correct order of the stages of grief as described by Elizabeth Kubler-Ross (1969)?

Select one:
A.anger, depression, denial, bargaining, acceptance
B.denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
C.bargaining, denial, depression, anger, acceptance
D.denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

A

D

57
Q

Question ID #8055: Reducing risk impact, reducing negative chain reactions, promoting self-esteem and self- efficacy, and providing opportunities are four techniques identified by for promoting resiliency in high-risk children.

Select one:
A.Harlow
B.Rutter
C.Patterson  
D.Bronfenbrenner
A

B

58
Q

Question ID #1807: Research on Kohlberg’s theory of moral development has found that very few people ever reach Stage 6. However, some do engage in Stage 5 reasoning and base their moral judgments on:

Select one:
A.social contracts.
B.self-chosen universally-applicable standards.   
C.rules and laws.
D.the motivation underlying an act.
A

A

59
Q

Question ID #15034: In adolescence, sibling relationships usually become:

Select one:
A.less emotionally intense and more distant.  
B.less egalitarian.
C.more competitive and conflictual.
D.more intimate and affectionate.
A

A

60
Q

Question ID #10949: Research investigating the effects of living with a stepparent on a child’s adjustment suggests that age at the time of the remarriage and gender are associated with fewer problems adjusting to a stepparent.

Select one:
younger; female
younger; male
older; female
older; male
A

B

61
Q

Question ID #36762: Four major dopamine pathways in the brain have been identified. Of these, excessive dopamine in the pathway has been linked to the positive symptoms of Schizophrenia.

Select one:
mesolimbic
mesocortical  
nigrostriatal
tuberoinfundibular
A

A

62
Q

Question ID #15050: The prodromal symptoms of a tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis include:

Select one:
A.headache, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, and sweating.
B.orthostatic hypotension, insomnia, and edema.
C.paresthesias, myoclonus, and muscle pain.
D.irritability, confusion, dizziness, and cardiac arrhythmia.

A

A

63
Q

Question ID #687: Recent research indicates that people with Parkinson’s disease have lost at least 80% of
-producing cells in the substantia nigra.

Select one:
norepinephrine
dopamine
serotonin
substance P
A

B

64
Q

Question ID #8038: The frontal lobes mediate executive functions as well as complex emotions and behaviors. A person with damage to which area of the frontal lobes is most likely to engage in disinhibited, impulsive behaviors and exhibit emotional lability, distractibility, and poor judgment and insight?

Select one:
medial frontal area
anterior cingulate area
dorsolateral prefrontal area
orbitofrontal area
A

D

65
Q

Question ID #15052: Approximately percent of left-handed people are left-hemisphere dominant for language.

Select one:
5 to 10
20 to 30  
50 to 60
90 to 95
A

C

66
Q

Question ID #39866: The extrapyramidal motor symptoms associated with Parkinson’s disease are caused primarily by an imbalance between which of the following neurotransmitters?

Select one:
dopamine and acetylcholine
epinephrine and norepinephrine
dopamine and serotonin  
norepinephrine and acetylcholine
A

A

67
Q

Question ID #37762: Classical conditioning involves the formation of an association between a conditioned stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus. The is the area of the brain that is known to be involved in forming this type of implicit memory.

Select one:
hippocampus 
cerebellum
pons
medial temporal lobes
A

B

68
Q

Question ID #907: The effectiveness of clomipramine in alleviating symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and trichotillomania suggests that these disorders are due to:

Select one:
A.oversensitivity to GABA.
an imbalance between B.acetylcholine and dopamine.
C.oversensitivity to serotonin or dopamine.
D.a lower-than-normal level of serotonin.

A

D

69
Q

Question ID #1926: The physiological phenomenon referred to as long-term potentiation takes place in the:

Select one:
spinal cord.
peripheral nervous system.
reticular activating system.
hippocampus.
A

D

70
Q

Question ID #1785: Overall, the best conclusion that can be drawn about clinical and actuarial predictions is that:

Select one:
A.clinical predictions are about equally as accurate as actuarial predictions.
B.clinical predictions are usually more accurate than actuarial predictions.
C.clinical predictions are as accurate as actuarial predictions only when the clinician has adequate experience and training.
D.actuarial predictions are often more accurate than clinical predictions.

A

D

71
Q

Question ID #348: Most interpretations of performance on the Bender-Gestalt are directed toward:

Select one:
screening for brain damage.    
assessing personality.
evaluating executive functioning.
assigning a psychiatric diagnosis.
A

A

72
Q

Question ID #1743: A depressive attributional style is characterized by attributions that emphasize:

Select one:
external, stable, and global factors.
external, unstable, and specific factors.
internal, stable, and global factors.
internal, unstable, and specific factors.

A

C

73
Q

Question ID #870: After being rejected by the college she most wanted to attend, a young woman decides that she didn’t really want to go to that college after all. This girl’s reaction is predicted by which of the following:

Select one:
equity theory.
fundamental attribution bias.
cognitive dissonance theory.  
gain/loss theory.
A

C

74
Q

Question ID #17541: According to Ajzen’s (1991) theory of planned behavior, a person’s is directly influenced by three factors - attitude toward the behavior, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control.

Select one:
behavioral consistency  
behavioral intention
locus of control
self-efficacy
A

B

75
Q

Question ID #655: In a research study investigating the possible genetic transmission of ADHD, the “proband” is:

Select one:
the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD.
a biological parent of the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD.
a non-affected biological sibling of the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD.
a member of the control group who has been matched to the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD.

A

A

76
Q

Question ID #10220: Which of the following measures of “effect size” (the magnitude of a treatment effect) indicates the amount of variability in an outcome measure accounted for by the effects of the treatment?

Select one:
eta squared
Cohen's d
alpha
F-ratio
A

A

77
Q

Question ID #957: A “communality” is best described as:

Select one:
A.the proportion of variance accounted for by a single factor in multiple variables.
B.the proportion of variance accounted for by multiple factors in a single variable.
C.the proportion of variance accounted for by multiple factors in multiple variables.
D.the total proportion of variance in a set of variables that is attributable to error.

A

B

78
Q

Question ID #17442: Cross-validation is associated with which of the following phenomena?

Select one:
utility analysis
relevance
criterion contamination
shrinkage
A

D