TEST1&2 Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Question ID #17545: Byrne’s (1971) law of attraction proposes that people prefer spending time with others who are similar to them in terms of attitudes, and he links this preference to which of the following?

Select one:
A.	reinforcement
B.	cognitive schemas
C.	social comparison theory
D.	self-monitoring

Question 2

Q

Question ID #17354: As described by Piaget, a tertiary circular reaction occurs when an infant:

Select one:
A. repeats an interesting or enjoyable action that involves his/her own body.
B. deliberately varies an action to discover or observe the consequences of that action.
C. attempts to reproduce a pleasurable action that involves another person or an object.
D. combines cognitive schemes into more complex action sequences.

Answer

A

a. Incorrect This answer describes primary circular actions (substage 2).
b. CORRECT This answer accurately describes a tertiary circular reaction which can be viewed as “miniature experiments” that involve engaging in specific actions to observe their consequences (substage 5).
c. Incorrect This answer describes secondary circular actions (substage 3).
d. Incorrect This answer describes coordinated secondary circular reactions (substage 4).

Question 3

Q

Question ID #38686: The DSM-5 requires which of the following for a diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder?

Select one:
A. an onset of symptoms prior to three years of age
B. an onset of symptoms during the early developmental period
C. apparent normal development for at least six months followed by a loss of previously acquired skills
D. apparent normal development for at least two years followed by a loss of previously acquired skills

Question 4

Q

Question ID #36774: Research investigating the usefulness of the serial position effect for detecting malingering provides some evidence that, in comparison to patients with traumatic brain injury, volunteers instructed to malinger (i.e., to feign brain injury) are:

Select one:
A. less likely to exhibit a primacy effect.
B. less likely to exhibit a recency effect.
C. less likely to exhibit a primacy and a recency effect.
D. more likely to exhibit a primacy and a recency effect.

Answer

A

a. CORRECT Some studies have found that malingerers are less likely than patients with TBI to exhibit a primacy effect (i.e., are less likely to recall words from the beginning of the word list) but are equally likely to exhibit a recency effect (i.e., are equally likely to recall words from the end of the list).

Question 5

Q

Question ID #42: A researcher would use the Solomon four- group design to:

Select one:
A.	reduce practice effects.
B.	eliminate demand characteristics.
C.	evaluate the effects of pretesting.
D.	determine if there are any selection biases.

Question 6

Q

Question ID #799: In the context of the Rorschach test, form quality indicates:

Select one:
A. what aspect of the inkblot determined the response.
B. the degree of congruence between the response and reality.
C. the extent to which the response is based on an unusual or common detail.
D. the extent to which form is well integrated with other determinants.

Question 7

Q

Question ID #1432: A person with seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is most likely to exhibit which of the following symptoms?

Select one:

a. overeating and weight gain
b. loss of appetite without weight loss
c. insomnia
d. a craving for salty foods

Answer

A

a. CORRECT - People with SAD usually experience hypersomnia, increased appetite and weight gain, and a craving for carbohydrates.

Question 8

Q

Question ID #8063: Kandel and Schwartz (1982) studied habituation in Aplysia, an invertebrate marine animal, in order to obtain information on:

Select one:
A. neuronal processes underlying memory.
B. environmental factors that impact sensory memory.
C. neuronal processes underlying sexual behavior.
D. environmental factors that affect goal-directed behavior.

Question 9

Q

Question ID #15039: The three overlapping stages of Meichenbaum and Jaremko’s (1982) stress inoculation training are:

Select one:
A. formulation, problem focus, and termination.
B. self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.
C. cognitive modeling, overt instruction, and covert instruction.
D. conceptualization, skills acquisition, and application.

Answer

A

a. Incorrect These are not the three stages of stress inoculation training.
b. Incorrect These are the three targets of Rehm’s self-control therapy.
c. Incorrect These are steps in Meichenbaum’s self-instructional training.
d. CORRECT Unfortunately, the names given to the three stages vary somewhat in the literature, so you need to be flexible when looking for the correct answer to a question on this technique. The first stage of stress inoculation training is ordinarily referred to as the conceptualization, education, or cognitive phase; the second stage as the skills application or training phase or the skills acquisition and rehearsal phase; and the third phase as the application or application and follow-through phase.

Question 10

Q

Question ID #14347: Linehan’s (1993) dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) for borderline personality disorder is based on the assumption that this disorder is due to:

Select one:
A.	a boundary disturbance.
B.	learned helplessness.
C.	emotion dysregulation.
D.	pathologic internalized object relations.

Question 11

Q

Question ID #1050: To reduce the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia, which of the following would be most effective?

Select one:
A. a drug that decreases dopamine levels
B. a drug that increases norepinephrine levels
C. a drug that decreases GABA levels
D. a drug that increases serotonin levels

Question 12

Q

Question ID #14325: An assumption underlying process consultation is that:

Select one:
A. attitude change precedes behavior change.
B. behavior change precedes attitude change.
C. motivation is a proximal and primary cause of performance.
D. motivation and performance have a reciprocal relationship.

Question 13

Q

Question ID #137: A common migraine:

Select one:
A. begins with an aura and is usually accompanied by nausea.
B. is constant and non-throbbing and may be exacerbated by bright lights.
C. does not begin with an aura and may be exacerbated by bending over or lifting.
D. is sharp and unilateral and is usually accompanied by autonomic symptoms.

Answer

A

Migraine headaches are classified as common or classic.

a. Incorrect Classic migraines begin with an aura.
b. Incorrect Migraines involve throbbing pain.
c. CORRECT A number of things can exacerbate the pain of a migraine including lifting or bending over. In contrast to classic migraines, common migraines do not begin with an aura.
d. Incorrect This sounds more like a cluster headache than a migraine headache.

Question 14

Q

Question ID #1639: As described by Sue and Sue (1999), “playing it cool” and “Uncle Tom Syndrome” are:

Select one:
A. signs of an internal locus of control.
B. survival mechanisms.
C. characteristics of the immersion-emersion stage of racial/cultural identity development.
D. signs of functional (versus cultural) paranoia.

Question 15

Q

Question ID #1597: An insurance company is conducting a peer review and requests that you provide it with information about a current client whose fee is being paid by the company. In this situation, you are best advised to:

Select one:
A. provide the company with the requested information only if the client is willing for you to do so.
B. provide the company with only that information you believe to be pertinent to the review.
C. provide the company with relevant information after ensuring that it is aware of the need to maintain confidentiality.
D. provide the company with the requested information because the client waived confidentiality when he/she signed the insurance form.

Answer

A

c. CORRECT When a client’s therapy fee has been paid by an insurance company, it is likely that the client has already signed a waiver on his/her insurance form. In addition, therapists are expected to cooperate with peer reviews. Therefore, this is the best response. A therapist would be required to provide information to the insurance company as requested, but the therapist should release only relevant information and should take steps to ensure that confidentiality will be safeguarded.

Question 16

Q

Question ID #16871: As described by Piaget, the ability of a child to see someone else perform a behavior and subsequently perform that behavior him/herself depends on the development of which of the following abilities?

Select one:
A.	mental representation
B.	assimilation
C.	transductive reasoning
D.	centration

Question 17

Q

Question ID #38672: Based on the initial evaluation of a 15- year-old boy, a clinician believes the nature and number of his symptoms suggest a DSM-5 diagnosis of Attention- Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder, predominantly inattentive presentation. Before assigning the diagnosis, the clinician will want to confirm that some symptoms were present before the boy was years of age and that he exhibits them in at least settings.

Select one:
A. 7; 2
B. 12; 2
C. 6; 3
D. 10; 3

Question 18

Q

Question ID #1782: In the context of managed health care, “gatekeeper” refers to the:

Select one:
A.	peer review board.
B.	HMO.
C.	clinical supervisor.
D.	primary care physician.

Answer

A

D
Managed care reduces health costs in several ways including the use of a “gatekeeper” who makes referrals to specialists.

Question 19

Q

Question ID #119483: Joshua is dissatisfied with the amount of his bonus and he believes his other co-workers received more than he did. This greatly angers him. Joshua is concerned with what type of justice?

Select one:
A.	Compensatory
B.	Procedural
C.	Corrective
D.	Distributive

Question 20

Q

Question ID #680: In their study of outpatient mental health services in Los Angeles County, Sue et al. (1991) found that, while clients from all groups showed improvement at the end of therapy, had the best outcomes.

Select one:
A.	African Americans
B.	Anglo Americans
C.	Asian Americans
D.	Hispanic Americans

Answer

A

D
Sue et al. found that Hispanic Americans had the best outcomes, followed by Anglos, Asian Americans, and, lastly, African Americans.

Question 21

Q

Question ID #8050: According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, emergence of the ability to create mental representations of reality occurs between the ages of:

Select one:
A.	4 to 8 months.
B.	8 to 12 months.
C.	12 to 18 months.
D.	18 to 24 months.

Answer

A

a. Incorrect From 4 to 8 months of age, the child is in the secondary circular reactions substage of the sensorimotor stage.
b. Incorrect From 8 to 12 months, the child is in the coordinated secondary circular reactions substage.
c. Incorrect From 12 to 18 months, the child is in the tertiary circular reactions substage.
d. CORRECT From 18 to 24 months, the child is in the mental representation substage, which is characterized by the development of the ability to form internal representations of objects and events. (Note that some recent research suggests that deferred imitation and problem solving - which depend on mental representation - occur at an earlier age than Piaget proposed.)

Question 22

Q

Question ID #768: The best conclusion that can be drawn from research on the effects of examiner race on the cognitive test performance of African American children is that:

Select one:
A. White examiners have significant adverse effects on the test performance of these children.
B. White examiners often have positive effects on the test performance of these children.
C. White examiners may have a positive, a negative, or no effect on the test performance of these children.
D. White examiners have a negative effect on the test performance of these children only when the examiners are unable to adopt a “colorblind” perspective.

Question 23

Q

Question ID #1606: A seizure affects movement and sensation, usually on one side of the body, without a loss of consciousness.

Select one:
A.	petit mal
B.	atonic
C.	clonic
D.	simple partial

Question 24

Q

Question ID #19140: Interoceptive exposure involves: Select one:
A. exposure in imagination to objects or situations that evoke anxiety.
B. exposure to bodily sensations associated with anxiety reactions.
C. prolonged continuous exposure to a feared stimulus in vivo.
D. graded (graduated) exposure to a feared stimulus first in imagination, then in vivo.

Question 25

Q

Question ID #1532: In mediation:

Select one:
A. the mediator considers the preferences of all involved parties but his/her decision or problem solution is binding.
B. the mediator makes a formal recommendation following a review of the facts, but the recommendation may or may not be accepted by the involved parties.
C. the mediator facilitates the flow of information between the involved parties and helps them progress toward an acceptable compromise.
D. the mediator provides the “final vote” that is needed to break a deadlock between the involved parties.

Answer

A

a. Incorrect This sounds more like arbitration.
b. Incorrect This sounds a more like fact-finding than mediation.
c. CORRECT In mediation, a neutral third party (the mediator) uses various tactics to facilitate voluntary agreement between disputants. Mediators can make recommendations, but they have no formal power and cannot impose their solution or decision.
d. Incorrect This does not describe the role of a mediator.

Question 26

Q

Question ID #16903: The probability of making a Type I error is equal to:

Select one:
A.	alpha.
B.	1 minus alpha.
C.	beta.
D.	1 minus beta.

Question 27

Q

Question ID #1316: The most prominent risk factor for drug abuse in adolescence is:

Select one:
A.	parent and family member drug use.
B.	availability of drugs.
C.	prior use of gateway drugs.
D.	depression.

Question 28

Q

Question ID #17531: When the sole of an infant’s foot is stroked, her big toe bends back toward the top of her foot and her other toes fan out. This is referred to as the reflex.

Select one:
A.	root
B.	palmar
C.	Moro
D.	Babinski

Question 29

Q

Question ID #419: In their research on terrorist groups, McCauley and Segal (1987) found that, when people come together because of a shared grievance, their views often become increasingly extreme as they continue to interact in isolation from possible moderating influences. This finding supports which of the following?

Select one:
A.	deindividuation
B.	social trap
C.	group polarization
D.	group contagion

Question 30

Q

Question ID #226: To assess the reliability of a characteristic that fluctuates in severity or intensity over time, you would be best advised to use which of the following?

Select one:
A.	coefficient of equivalence
B.	coefficient of stability
C.	coefficient of determination
D.	coefficient of internal consistency

Question 31

Q

Question ID #1436: In the book, A Theory of Multicultural Counseling and Therapy, Sue, Ivey, and Pedersen (1996) describe three multicultural counseling competencies. These are:

Select one:
A. ability, knowledge, and sensitivity.
B. flexibility, sensitivity, and awareness.
C. awareness, knowledge, and skills.
D. self-awareness, expertise, and strategies.

Question 32

Q

Question ID #19313: In the context of Porter and Lawler’s (1968) expectancy theory, refers to the belief that meeting job performance goals will lead to certain outcomes.

Select one:
A.	valence
B.	instrumentality
C.	vigor
D.	expectancy

Question 33

Q

Question ID #1649: Incentive/reward theory implies that which of the following is most important for ensuring worker motivation?

Select one:
A. clearly tying rewards and punishments to effective performance
B. making jobs interesting, attractive, and satisfying
C. explicitly linking individual goals to organizational goals
D. allowing workers to identify their preferred benefits

Question 34

Q

Question ID #17426: Hewig et al. (2008) compared the gaze patterns of heterosexual men and women as they looked at pictures of members of the opposite sex and found that:

Select one:
A. females and males both gazed at the face of a member of the opposite sex for the longest period of time.
B. females gazed at the face of a male for the longest period of time, while males gazed at the breasts of a female for the longest period of time.
C. females gazed at the hip/buttocks region of a male for the longest period of time, while males gazed at the face of a female for the longest period of time.
D. females and males both gazed at the hip/buttocks region of a member of the opposite sex for the longest period of time.

Question 35

Q

Question ID #1305: A social psychologist tells his male and female subjects the following story about Jack and Jane: On Saturday, Jack fixes his car’s transmission and Jane sews. Both complete their tasks successfully. On Sunday, Jack decorates his apartment and Jane cuts down a tree in her front yard.
Again, both complete their tasks successfully. Which of the following statements best describes the likely results of this research?

Select one:
A. Males and females will attribute Jack’s success in fixing the transmission and Jane’s success in sewing to ability, but will attribute Jack’s success in decorating and Jane’s success in cutting down a tree to luck.
B. Males will attribute Jack’s success on both tasks and Jane’s success in sewing to ability, but females will attribute Jack’s success in fixing the transmission and Jane’s success in sewing to ability and Jack’s success in decorating and Jane’s success in cutting down a tree to luck.
C. Males and females will both attribute Jack’s success in both tasks to ability and Jane’s success in both tasks to luck.
D. Males and females will both attribute Jack’s success in both tasks and Jane’s success in sewing to ability, but will attribute Jane’s success in cutting down a tree to luck.

Question 36

Q

Question ID #1221: Manuel is a 21-year old college student who moved to the United States from Mexico with his family when he was four years old. Manuel has many Anglo friends at school and usually dates Anglo women, but, at home, he speaks Spanish and participates in the cultural traditions practiced by his family. When asked about his ethnic identity, Manuel says, “I’m American and Hispanic, but I guess I consider myself mostly Hispanic.” Manuel is best described as:

Select one:
A.	fused.
B.	separated.
C.	assimilated.
D.	bicultural.

Question 37

Q

Question ID #1772: Except under certain conditions, psychologists are ethically obligated to maintain a client’s confidentiality. Potential limitations on confidentiality should be:

Select one:
A. discussed at the onset of the professional relationship.
B. discussed at the onset of the professional relationship and when feasible thereafter as needed.
C. discussed and documented in writing as soon as feasible.
D. discussed when the psychologist deems it to be appropriate.

Question 38

Q

Question ID #1989: The Americans with Disabilities Act: Select one:
A. does not address the issue of drug testing.
B. permits drug testing only after a job offer has been made.
C. permits drug testing before or after a job offer has been made.
D. prohibits drug testing until after a job applicant has been hired and there is reason to suspect drug use.

Question 39

Q

Question ID #1428: Dr. D. Centt is conducting a study to investigate the effectiveness of a brief behavioral treatment for reducing self-mutilation in young women. The treatment involves 20 hourly sessions that will be administered once a week for 20 weeks. Dr. Centt randomly assigns 40 women with a history of self-mutilation to either the treatment group or the
no-treatment control group. After women in the treatment group have completed only six sessions, he finds that the treatment has nearly eliminated their self-mutilating behaviors. In contrast, nearly all of the women in the control group report multiple incidents of self-mutilation since the study began. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Centt’s best course of action would be to:

Select one:
A. continue the study as long as the women in the control group signed informed consents at the onset of their participation.
B. continue the study but offer the treatment to the women in the control group at the end of the study.
C. discontinue the study and offer the treatment to the women in the control group immediately.
D. try to get the results of the study published as soon as possible so that the effectiveness of the treatment is recognized.

Answer

A

C
Kimmel concludes that, when the effectiveness of an intervention is unknown, it is acceptable to include a “no- treatment control group” in a research study. However, as soon as the treatment is shown to be effective (especially when it is effective for a serious disorder or problem), the treatment should be made immediately available to individuals in the control group.

Question 40

Q

Question ID #1835: A colleague at the mental health clinic where you are employed tells you that one of his clients has admitted to sexually abusing his daughter. The colleague says he is not going to report the abuse since it was mild in nature and the client has expressed remorse, promised not to do it again, and is willing to continue therapy. In addition, he feels that reporting the abuse would be detrimental to the community since the client is a widely-known, well-respected person. You should:

Select one:
A. attempt to discuss the matter further with the colleague and encourage him to make a report to the appropriate child abuse reporting authority.
B. file a complaint against the colleague with APA or the state licensing board.
C. contact the appropriate child abuse reporting authority and provide them with information about the abuse and with the colleague’s name.
D. contact the appropriate child abuse reporting authority and provide them with information about the abuse but refuse to give them the colleague’s name if they request it.

Answer

A

c. CORRECT Swenson notes that “Any required reporter who knows that another required reporter has not reported must report the evidence of abuse as well as identify the nonreporter” (p. 413).

Question 41

Q

Question ID #8090: The three components of a needs assessment are:

Select one:
A. microsystem, macrosystem, and exosystem.
B. unfreezing, changing, refreezing.
C. worker satisfaction, worker performance, and organizational effectiveness.
D. organization analysis, task analysis, and person analysis.

Question 42

Q

Question ID #37772: Herzberg’s two-factor theory classifies job security, pay and benefits, relationships with co-workers, working conditions, and company policies as:

Select one:
A.	quality factors.
B.	quantity factors.
C.	motivator factors.
D.	hygiene factors.

Question 43

Q

Question ID #445: A 2-1/2 year old whines until his mother picks him up. In this situation, the mother’s behavior is being controlled by which of the following?

Select one:
A.	positive reinforcement
B.	negative reinforcement
C.	positive punishment
D.	negative punishment

Question 44

Q

Question ID #1396: It would be acceptable to include client testimonials in an advertisement or brochure for your services as long as:

Select one:
A. the testimonials are not from current therapy clients.
B. the testimonials have not been directly solicited by you from current or past clients.
C. the testimonials are not from current clients or others who are susceptible to exploitation.
D. the testimonials have not been solicited from current clients or from others who are vulnerable to undue influence.

Question 45

Q

Question ID #1721: In a research study, a one-year old is placed on the shallow side of a visual cliff, while the baby’s mother stands on the deep side. On alternate trials, the mother is instructed to smile at her infant or to show a fearful face. The baby’s different responses to his/her mother’s facial expressions will be reflective of:

Select one:
A.	attachment.
B.	empathy.
C.	impulsivity.
D.	temperament

Question 46

Q

Question ID #763: African-American adolescents who exhibit a “blended bicultural” behavioral pattern:

Select one:
A. are situated midway between ethnic and American culture and consider themselves part of neither.
B. acknowledge their American heritage but are more strongly influenced by their ethnic background.
C. do not distinguish between ethnic and American cultures.
D. view themselves as having integrated American and ethnic identities.

Question 47

Q

Question ID #624: Studies looking at the impact of gender on reactions to crowding have found that:

Select one:
A. women cope with crowding better than men do in both laboratory and residential settings.
B. men cope with crowding better than women do in both laboratory and residential settings.
C. women cope with crowding better than men do in laboratory settings but men cope with crowding better in residential settings.
D. men cope with crowding better than women do in laboratory settings but women cope with crowding better in residential settings.

Question 48

Q

Question ID #1044: Children’s understanding of race as a physical, social, and biological category is usually first evident by years of age.

Select one:
A.	4
B.	6
C.	10
D.	13

Question 49

Q

Question ID #984: Multiple regression analysis has several advantages over the analysis of variance including all of the following except:

Select one:
A. it eliminates the need for a two-stage analysis involving a global significance test that is followed, when appropriate, by “fine grain” significance tests.
B. it is not limited to categorical (or categorized continuous) variables.
C. it enables the researcher to determine if entering additional independent variables affects the dependent variable beyond the effects found for previously entered variables.
D. it allows the researcher to estimate the effects of the independent variables on the dependent variable with the effects of measurement error removed.

Question 50

Q

Question ID #38684: Your new client, a college freshman, says she sometimes has an “out of body” experience in which she is watching what she is doing from outside herself. She describes a recent experience in which she was in her dorm room writing a paper when she realized she couldn’t feel her fingers on the computer keyboard or her feet on the floor and then suddenly felt like she was watching herself from the ceiling. The client says that these episodes make her feel like she’s “going crazy” and are interfering with her ability to attend class and complete course assignments. The client’s symptoms are most suggestive of a DSM-5 diagnosis of:

Select one:
A.	Delusional Disorder
B.	Dissociative Fugue
C.	Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder
D.	Depersonalization Disorder

Question 51

Q

Question ID #1123: The rational-economic model of decision- making views decision-makers as attempting to make:

Select one:
A.	satisficing decisions.
B.	bounded decisions.
C.	representative decisions.
D.	optimal decisions.

Question 52

Q

Question ID #1105: A child in the preoperational stage of development:

Select one:
A. carefully follows the rules when playing a game.
B. views death as a “bogeyman” that can be outwitted.
C. thinks objects “disappear” when they have been hidden from view.
D. treats objects as symbols of things (e.g., dolls as babies).

Question 53

Q

Question ID #12911: Which of the following would NOT be useful for alleviating the psychotic symptoms associated with schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder?

Select one:
A.	risperidone (Risperdal)
B.	olanzapine (Zyprexa)
C.	chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
D.	carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Question 54

Q

Question ID #1684: John Conger (1956) offered the tension- reduction model of alcohol consumption as an explanation for:

Select one:
A.	satiation.
B.	habituation.
C.	addiction.
D.	tolerance.

Answer

A

c. CORRECT Conger’s theory proposes that drinking is reinforced by its tension reduction properties (i.e., drinking recurs because it removes anxiety and stress) and that this effect eventually leads to addiction.

Question 55

Q

Question ID #471: When using equity theory to evaluate an employee’s motivation, you would be most interested in which of the following?

Select one:
A. the employee’s level of intrinsic motivation
B. the employee’s self-efficacy beliefs
C. the employee’s perceptions regarding the pay and benefits received by workers performing similar work duties as the employee
D. the employee’s perceptions regarding the likelihood that successful performance will be rewarded with desirable outcomes

Question 56

Q

Question ID #38: A parent is concerned about her 6-year old son’s thumb sucking. After reading several articles on behavioral techniques for eliminating self-reinforcing behaviors, she decides to spend an hour a day with her son using a strategy recommended in one of the articles. It involves setting a timer for 5 minutes and, during a one-hour period, giving her son a quarter for each 5-minute period that he does not suck his thumb but instead plays with the toys she has made available for him. The mother is using which of the following strategies?

Select one:
A.	differential reinforcement
B.	time-out
C.	overcorrection
D.	shaping

Question 57

Q

Question ID #38898: Alcohol Withdrawal is characterized by:

Select one:

a. dysphoric mood, vivid dreams, insomnia or hypersomnia, and increased appetite.
b. hand tremor, insomnia, hallucinations, and seizures.
c. incoordination, nystagmus, impaired memory, and mood lability.
d. dysphoric mood, pupillary dilation, insomnia, and fever.

Question 58

Q

Question ID #17367: Anomia is a likely outcome of damage to which of the following areas of the brain?

Select one:
A.	somatosensory cortex
B.	mammillary bodies
C.	Wernickes area
D.	Papezs circuit

Answer

A

c. CORRECT Wernicke’s area is a major language area in the brain, and damage causes deficits in language comprehension and production, including an inability to name familiar objects and people.

Question 59

Q

Question ID #330: A listener is LEAST likely to change her attitude as the result of a communicator’s message if:

Select one:
A. the listener accidentally overhears the message.
B. the listener has prior knowledge about the content of the message.
C. the communicator is arguing against his or her own best interests.
D. there is a moderate discrepancy between the listener’s initial position and the communicator’s position.

Question 60

Q

Question ID #36743: During the postpartum period, approximately of women experience postpartum depression.

Select one:
A. 1 to 2%
B. 10 to 15%
C. 25 to 30%
D. 45 to 50%

Question 61

Q

Question ID #1538: To reduce a five-year old’s nighttime fear of the dark, the most effective treatment would be:

Select one:
A. coping self-statements and positive imagery.
B. in vivo exposure with response prevention.
C. stress inoculation.
D. covert sensitization.

Question 62

Q

Question ID #38677: Which of the following suggests that a DSM-5 diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa is more appropriate than a diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa?

Select one:
A. the presence of episodes of binging and purging
B. a disturbance in body image
C. menstrual irregularities
D. persistent restriction of energy intake

Question 63

Q

Question ID #452: Which of the following approaches was used to derive the “Big Five” personality traits?

Select one:
A.	theoretical
B.	empirical criterion keying
C.	lexical
D.	multitrait-multimethod matrix

Question 64

Q

Question ID #835: To construct the 68% confidence interval for an examinee’s obtained test score, you would need the examinee’s score and:

Select one:
A.	the test's mean.
B.	the range of test scores.
C.	the standard error of measurement.
D.	the standard error of estimate.

Answer 15

A

Answer B is correct. Stage 3 is the first stage in Kohlberg’s conventional level of moral development. It is referred to as the “Good Boy/Good Girl” stage and is characterized by a strong belief in the Golden Rule. Children in this stage are cognitively able to put themselves in the place of others and, therefore, consider the feelings of others when making moral judgments. Consequently, this approach would be most effective with a child who is in this stage.

a. Incorrect - This approach would probably be most effective for a child with pre-conventional morality.
c. Incorrect - Law and authority determine “right” and “wrong” for children in post-conventional morality.
d. Incorrect - Although this approach may be beneficial, it is not addressed by Kohlberg’s theory.

Answer 16

A

D
Most individual therapies - e.g., Freudian psychoanalysis, Jung’s analytical psychology, Adler’s individual psychology, and Rogerian therapy - reflect a Lockean approach, which emphasizes linear cause-effect relationships, value-free science, and a deterministic and reductionistic perspective.

Answer 17

A

c. CORRECT The symptoms presented in this answer describe fibromyalgia rather than multiple sclerosis (MS). MS is caused by demyelination of nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord and is believed to be due to an abnormal immune system response. Its primary symptoms include impairments in sensory and motor functioning (e.g., paresthesias, shooting pain in the back and limbs, problems with balance, and muscle weakness); deficits in memory, reasoning, and concentration; sexual dysfunction; and vision abnormalities.

Answer 18

A

Question ID #1917: Nonsexist therapy, in comparison to feminist therapy, places greater emphasis on:

Select one:
A.	the impact of sex roles and sexism.
B.	modification of personal behavior.
C.	treating men and women the same.
D.	the egalitarian nature of the therapeutic relationship..

Answer 19

A

d. CORRECT The shoe is the conditioned stimulus and is paired with electric shock or other stimulus that naturally produces an unpleasant reaction so that, eventually, the shoe also produces the unpleasant reaction. The electric shock or other stimulus that naturally produces an unpleasant reaction is the unconditioned stimulus (US).

Answer 20

A

A
The DSM-5 categorizes the indicators of problematic substance use in terms of the four categories listed in this answer. Impaired control refers to the tendency of the individual to use more of the substance than intended, inability to cut down on substance use, craving for the substance, and tendency to spend a great deal of time obtaining, using, or recovering from the effects of the substance. Social impairment refers to difficulties with social, occupational, and/or recreational activities due to the substance use. Risky use refers to use of the substance in situations that are potentially physically hazardous or despite knowing that physical or psychological problems may be exacerbated by substance use. Pharmacological criteria are tolerance and withdrawal.

Answer 21

A

B
Beck’s cognitive triad predicts that people with depression have negative thoughts about themselves, the future, and the world.

Answer 22

A

a. Incorrect Norm-referenced scores (e.g., standard scores, percentile ranks) tell you how well an examinee is doing compared to other examinees.
b. CORRECT Criterion-referenced scores tell you how well an examinee did in absolute terms (e.g., how many questions he/she answered correctly) and, therefore, would be most useful for the purpose described in the question.
c. Incorrect Standard scores are a type of norm referenced score.
d. Incorrect Ipsative scores indicate the relative strengths of the different characteristics measured by a test for the individual and would be less useful than criterion-referenced scores for the purpose described in the question.

Answer 23

A

a. Incorrect Overcorrection is involves a combination of restitution (having the individual “fix” the negative consequences of his/her behavior) and positive practice (having the individual practice alternative behaviors).
b. Incorrect Chaining is used to establish complex behavior chains.
c. Incorrect When using the Premack Principle, a high frequency behavior is used as a reinforcer for a low frequency behavior.
d. CORRECT Differential reinforcement involves reinforcing desirable behavior while ignoring undesirable behavior. Although the husband’s reaction to his wife isn’t exactly the same as the differential reinforcement procedure, this answer best describes what he is doing since it combines positive reinforcement and extinction.

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