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TEST3-5 Flashcards

1
Q

Question ID #644: All of the following are categorized as operant methods for reducing or eliminating undesirable behaviors except:

Select one:
A.	extinction.
B.	response cost.
C.	negative reinforcement.
D.	differential reinforcement.
A

C

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2
Q

Question ID #37756: Without rehearsal, information is held in short-term memory for a brief period of time. According to interference theory this is due to which of the following?

Select one:
A.	a limited capacity
B.	insufficient consolidation
C.	inadequate memory cues
D.	the decay of memory traces over time
A

a. CORRECT With regard to short-term memory, interference refers to the displacement of items in memory by more recently perceived information and is attributable to the limited capacity of short-term memory. Note that this type of interference is sometimes referred to as “interference through displacement.”

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3
Q

Question ID #19362: As reported by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), the largest number of reported cases of chlamydia and gonorrhea is for:

Select one:
A.	males ages 15 to 19.
B.	males ages 20 to 24.
C.	females ages 15 to 19.
D.	females ages 20 to 24.
A

c. CORRECT The largest number of reported cases of these two sexually transmitted diseases is for females ages 15 to 19, followed by females ages 20 to 24. The CDC notes that the higher rates for females (versus males) may be due to several factors, including biological differences that place females at greater risk for sexually transmitted diseases and the fact that females are more likely to seek medical testing.

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4
Q

Question ID #19360: The availability heuristic is the tendency to estimate the frequency or likelihood of an event on the basis of:

Select one:
A. the resemblance of the event to a “typical” case.
B. information about the event that is most readily retrieved from memory.
C. the ability to mentally simulate the occurrence of the event.
D. the magnitude of the “starting point.”

A

B

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5
Q

Question ID #1643: Research conducted in the 1930s found that ablation of the anterior temporal lobes in male rhesus monkeys produced a variety of symptoms including hypersexuality, placidity, oral tendencies, and psychic blindness. This condition is known as:

Select one:
A.	Kluver-Bucy syndrome.
B.	Gerstmann's syndrome.
C.	Gerschwind syndrome.
D.	Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
A

A

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6
Q

Question ID #610: Opioid peptides that block the release of substance P and thereby reduce pain are referred to as:

Select one:
A.	hypnotics.
B.	endorphins.
C.	pheromones.
D.	catecholamines.
A

B

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7
Q

Question ID #10920: Sedation (drowsiness) is most likely to be a side effect of which of the following antidepressants?

Select one:
A.	Prozac
B.	Wellbutrin
C.	Zoloft
D.	Pamelor
A

a. Incorrect Prozac (fluoxetine) is an SSRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation.
b. Incorrect Wellbutrin (bupropion) is an NDRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation.
c. Incorrect Zoloft (sertraline) is an SSRI and is less likely than Pamelor to produce sedation.
d. CORRECT Pamelor (nortriptyline) is a tricyclic antidepressant and, of the antidepressants listed in the answers, is most likely to produce sedation.

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8
Q

Question ID #17412: A therapist who has adopted an etic perspective:

Select one:
A. believes that mental disorders may be manifested differently by people from different cultural groups.
B. believes that mental disorders are manifested in similar ways by all people, regardless of their cultural group.
C. adopts a psychodynamic model to describe the causes of mental disorders.
D. adopts a behavioral model to describe the causes of mental disorders.

A

B

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9
Q

Question ID #1417: According to Sherif’s social judgment theory, a person’s “latitude of acceptance” is greatest when:

Select one:
A. the person has high ego-involvement with the target issue.
B. the person has low ego-involvement with the target issue.
C. the person has high enjoyment of critical thinking.
D. the person has low enjoyment of critical thinking.

A

B

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10
Q

Question ID #1555: Traditional American Indian social organization and decision-making is best described as:

Select one:
A.	linear.
B.	bilateral.
C.	nuclear.
D.	collateral.
A

D

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11
Q

Question ID #8036: Left-right confusion is most likely to be caused by a lesion in the:

Select one:
A.	corpus callosum.
B.	basal forebrain.
C.	left parietal region.
D.	right occipital region.
A

c. CORRECT Left-right confusion is ordinarily caused by lesions in the left angular gyrus, which is located near the boundary between the parietal and temporal lobes.

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12
Q

Question ID #1839: A measure of test anxiety is administered to a sample of 50 psychologists who are studying for the licensing exam, and a split-half reliability coefficient of .80 is calculated from their scores. The test is then administered to another group of 50 psychologists who are more heterogeneous with regard to level of test anxiety. The split-half reliability coefficient for the second group is most likely to be:

Select one:
A.	between .77 and .83.
B.	between .74 and .86.
C.	larger than .80.
D.	less than .80.
A

c. CORRECT The greater the variability (range) of scores, the higher the reliability coefficient. In the situation described in the question, the second sample was more heterogeneous with regard to test anxiety, which means their distribution of scores would have wider variability.

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13
Q

Question ID #38885: For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder, the onset of symptoms must be prior to
years of age.

Select one:
A.	6
B.	10
C.	12
D.	18
A

B

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14
Q

Question ID #1756: Irvin Yalom (1985) described the group therapist’s role primarily as which of the following?

Select one:
A.	a "blank screen"
B.	a neutral observer
C.	a coach
D.	a participant/model
A

D

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15
Q

Question ID #25: Recent research has shown that single- session Psychological Debriefing (PD):

Select one:
A. is as effective as, or in some cases more effective than, multiple-session PD for preventing PTSD.
B. is as effective as multiple-session PD for preventing PTSD only when the session is sufficiently long to elicit a cathartic reaction.
C. is effective for preventing PTSD only when it is administered within 24 hours following exposure to the traumatic event.
D. is not effective for preventing PTSD and may actually exacerbate PTSD symptoms.

A

D

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16
Q

Question ID #17420: Which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in both long-term potentiation and the “excitotoxcity” that is believed to underlie several neurodegenerative disorders?

Select one:
A.	serotonin
B.	acetylcholine
C.	norepinephrine
D.	glutamate
A

d. CORRECT Glutamate acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain and spinal cord. It’s known to play a role in learning and memory, including long-term potentiation (LTP) which is a brain mechanism that’s believed to be responsible for the formation of long-term memories. There’s also evidence that excessive glutamate receptor activity (“excitotoxicity”) contributes to stroke-related brain damage, Huntington’s disease, Alzheimer’s disease, and other neurodegenerative disorders.

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17
Q

Question ID #413: Fiedler’s LPC theory of leadership proposes that:

Select one:
A. leaders can alter their leadership style to fit the demands of the situation.
B. the most effective leaders are person- (versus task-) oriented.
C. to be most effective, a leader should match his/her leadership style to the characteristics of the employee.
D. to be most effective, a leader’s personality should match the demands of the situation.

A

D

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18
Q

Question ID #882: A teenage girl who has a scar on her forehead feels like people are always looking at her and talking about her scar. This is an example of which of the following?

Select one:
A.	psychological reactance
B.	imaginary audience
C.	identity foreclosure
D.	personal fable
A

B

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19
Q

Question ID #19255: You would use which of the following to estimate what a predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient would be if the predictor and/or criterion had a reliability coefficient of 1.0?

Select one:
A.	Spearman-Brown prophecy formula
B.	correction for attenuation formula
C.	coefficient of concordance
D.	Kuder-Richardson Formula 20
A

B

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20
Q

Question ID #10360: Lewinsohn’s (1974) behavioral model attributes depression to:

Select one:
A. a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement.
B. a lack of appropriate stimulus discrimination.
C. self-indoctrination.
D. negative self-attributions.

A

A

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21
Q

Question ID #1460: A friend asks you how you liked the concert you went to last Saturday night. As you try to recall the concert, you realize that your memory is being affected by other concerts you have attended in the past. In other words, your memory of last Saturday’s concert is being affected by:

Select one:
A.	your implicit memory of concerts.
B.	a lack of encoding specificity.
C.	positive memory transfer.
D.	your schema for concerts.
A

D

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22
Q

Question ID #19335: As defined by Aaron Beck, involves drawing a specific conclusion about an experience in the absence of supporting evidence for that conclusion.

Select one:
A.	selective abstraction
B.	emotional reasoning
C.	personalization
D.	arbitrary inference
A

D

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23
Q

Question ID #608: Erik Erikson coined the term:

Select one:
A.	adolescent storm and stress.
B.	adolescent identity crisis.
C.	midlife crisis.
D.	sandwich generation.
A

B

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24
Q

Question ID #19334: Use of which of the following provided Broadbent (1958) with support for his filter theory of attention?

Select one:
A.	dismantling strategy
B.	Stroop test
C.	dichotic listening task
D.	speeded-target monitoring task
A

C

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25
Q

Question ID #17330: Because research has found low to moderate inter-rater reliability for the diagnosis of
, there is some controversy among experts regarding its validity.

Select one:
A.	Specific Phobia
B.	Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C.	Panic Disorder
D.	Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
A

B

26
Q

Question ID #1158: During the course of data analysis, a researcher more often double-checks results that seem to conflict with her hypothesis than results that confirm it. This is an example of:

Select one:
A.	the experimenter expectancy effect.
B.	demand characteristics.
C.	the Pygmalion effect.
D.	the correspondence bias.
A

A

27
Q

Question ID #39860: Project MATCH compared motivational enhancement therapy (MET), cognitive-behavioral coping skills therapy (CBT), and twelve-step facilitation (TSF) as treatments for alcoholism and found that:

Select one:
A. MET, CBT, and TSF had similar effects on drinking.
B. the effects of CBT on drinking were significantly greater than the effects of MET or TSF.
C. the effects of MET on drinking were significantly greater than the effects of CBT or TSF.
D. CBT and MET had significant effects on drinking only when combined with TSF.

A

A

28
Q

Question ID #1542: A treatment for depression that is based on Rehm’s self-control theory is most likely to include:

Select one:
A. having the client keep a record of automatic thoughts.
B. having the client keep a record of positive experiences.
C. helping the client replace irresponsible behaviors with responsible ones.
D. using functional behavioral analysis to help the client identify the antecedents and consequences associated with maladaptive behaviors.

A

B

29
Q

Question ID #1743: A depressive attributional style is characterized by attributions that emphasize:

Select one:
A. external, stable, and global factors.
B. external, unstable, and specific factors.
C. internal, stable, and global factors.
D. internal, unstable, and specific factors.

A

C

30
Q

Question ID #1785: Overall, the best conclusion that can be drawn about clinical and actuarial predictions is that:

Select one:
A. clinical predictions are about equally as accurate as actuarial predictions.
B. clinical predictions are usually more accurate than actuarial predictions.
C. clinical predictions are as accurate as actuarial predictions only when the clinician has adequate experience and training.
D. actuarial predictions are often more accurate than clinical predictions.

A

D

31
Q

Question ID #1609: According to , a person’s career concept can be described as linear, expert, spiral, or transitory.

Select one:
A.	Super
B.	Holland
C.	Brousseau and Driver
D.	Tiedeman and O'Hara
A

C

32
Q

Question ID #711: To establish a behavior that an individual does not naturally emit, you would use which of the following?

Select one:
A.	intermittent reinforcement
B.	shaping
C.	response generalization
D.	priming
A

B
One of the difficulties with operant conditioning is that it is necessary to wait until the organism emits a response so that the consequence of the response (reinforcement or punishment) can be manipulated. To overcome this problem, the desired behavior can be “shaped”.

33
Q

Question ID #792: The owner of a company has decided that, to determine how well employees are performing, employees will be watched while performing their jobs for a predetermined period of time. Based on the relevant research, you predict that the employees’ performance during the period of observation will:

Select one:
A. be inhibited if the task is easy.
B. be inhibited if the task is complex.
C. be enhanced whether the task is easy or complex.
D. be inhibited whether the task is easy or complex.

A

B

34
Q

Question ID #17534: A four-year old who hates strings beans gets upset when his mother cuts them into small pieces because he thinks that he now has to eat more beans. A Piagetian would describe this as an example of which of the following?

Select one:
A.	object concept
B.	transduction
C.	irreversibility
D.	decentration
A

C

35
Q

Question ID #890: According to Helms (1990), the ability of Whites to develop a healthy racial identity is most closely related to:

Select one:
A.	identification with a particular White culture (e.g., Irish, Swedish, French).
B.	stage of ego-identity development.
C.	level of self-monitoring.
D.	the extent of racism in the society.
A

D

36
Q

Question ID #17533: A 15-month-old child points to a milk carton on the table and says “milk,” which means, “I want some milk.” Later, when he spills milk on his shirt, he starts crying and says “milk” which means, “I spilled my milk and I’m all wet.” This illustrates which of the following?

Select one:
A.	telegraphic speech
B.	holophrastic speech
C.	underextension
D.	overextension
A

B

a. Incorrect Telegraphic speech involves stringing two or more words together to make a sentence (e.g., “want milk”).
b. CORRECT From one to two years of age, children use single words to express whole phrases and sentences. This is referred to as holophrastic speech.

37
Q

Question ID #359: Systematic desensitization was originally designed by Wolpe as an application of which of the following?

Select one:
A.	aversive counterconditioning
B.	reciprocal inhibition
C.	habituation
D.	operant extinction
A

B

38
Q

Question ID #18533: You receive a phone call from Hermann H., age 28, who says he is “totally miserable” because of the recent breakup with his girlfriend and that he would like to begin therapy with you. During the first session with Hermann, you find out that his political views are completely repugnant to you, and you feel that you would not enjoy working with him. As an ethical psychologist, you should:

Select one:
A. consult with another psychologist during the course of treatment to make sure your feelings don’t interfere with your objectivity.
B. discuss the difference in political views with Hermann only if they become relevant to the psychotherapy process.
C. see Hermann in therapy until his current crisis is over and then make a referral if necessary.
D. provide Hermann with appropriate referrals.

A

D

39
Q

Question ID #8969: Research on “motor imagination” indicates that which area of the brain is most likely to be active when a person is imagining that he/she is engaging in a motor activity?

Select one:
A.	posterior occipital lobe
B.	mammillary bodies
C.	supplementary motor area
D.	ascending reticular activating system
A

C

40
Q

Question ID #12915: An individual at Level 8 on the Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning Revised:

Select one:
A. is nonresponsive to sounds or light and appears to be in a state of deep sleep.
B. is confused, agitated, and incoherent, may exhibit bizarre behavior, and is unable to care for him/herself.
C. is alert and oriented and can remember and integrate remote and recent events but may have some impairments in judgment, planning, and abstract reasoning.
D. is functioning at an intellectual level that is superior for his/her age, education, and demographic background.

A

C

41
Q

Question ID #1466: Hypomania is associated with alterations in functioning that often include:

Select one:
A. a marked increase in both efficiency and creativity.
B. a marked decrease in both efficiency and creativity.
C. a marked increase in efficiency but a marked decrease in creativity.
D. a marked increase in creativity but a marked decrease in efficiency.

A

A

42
Q

Question ID #10223: Which of the following sections of the APA’s Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct provide(s) “aspirational goals to guide psychologists toward the highest ideals of psychology”?

Select one:
A.	Introduction and Preamble
B.	Preamble only
C.	Preamble and General Principles
D.	Ethical Standards
A

C

43
Q

Question ID #17763: A therapist instructs a client who suffers from insomnia to polish his hardwood floors for at least two hours whenever he wakes up during the night. Apparently this therapist is familiar with the work of:

Select one:
A.	Luigi Boscolo.
B.	Milton Erickson.
C.	Salvador Minuchin.
D.	Marquis de Sade.
A

a. Incorrect Luigi Boscolo is affiliated with the Milan systemic school of family therapy, which is not associated with the use of ordeals.
b. CORRECT For the exam, you should have paradoxical techniques and ordeals associated with Milton Erickson and Jay Haley (who was strongly influenced by Erickson).
c. Incorrect The use of ordeals is more associated with Erickson and Haley than with Minuchin.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

44
Q

Question ID #14323: According to Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) Theory of Work Adjustment, job tenure is related to an employee’s:

Select one:
A.	satisfaction and satisfactoriness.
B.	motivation and ability.
C.	organizational commitment.
D.	career concept.
A

A

45
Q

Question ID #508: When the Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 produces a coefficient of .98, this means that:

Select one:
A. the items in the test are homogeneous.
B. the trait being measured by the test is stable over time.
C. the measuring instruments are equivalent.
D. the test measures what it was designed to measure.

A

A

46
Q

Question ID #1851: A patient taking a benzodiazepine develops several undesirable symptoms including insomnia, nightmares, hallucinations, and rage reactions. These symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following?

Select one:
A.	overdose
B.	anticholinergic effects
C.	paradoxical agitation
D.	rebound anxiety
A

C

47
Q

Question ID #37763: Children between the ages of approximately years are in the phallic stage of psychosexual development according to Freud and in the initiative vs. guilt stage of psychosocial development according to Erikson.

Select one:
A.	1 to 3
B.	3 to 6
C.	6 to 12
D.	12 to 15
A

a. Incorrect Children between the ages of 1 and 3 years are in the second stage of psychosexual development and psychosocial development. Freud referred to the second stage as the anal stage and Erikson referred to the conflict associated with this stage as autonomy vs. shame.
b. CORRECT Children between the ages of 3 and 6 are in the third stage of psychosexual development and psychosocial development. Freud referred to the third stage as the phallic stage and Erikson identified the conflict of this stage as involving initiative vs. guilt.
c. Incorrect Children between the ages of 6 and 12 years are in the fourth stage of psychosexual development and psychosocial development. Freud named this the latency stage and Erikson described the conflict of this stage as involving industry vs. inferiority.
d. Incorrect Freud’s final (fifth) stage of psychosexual development is the genital stage and is characteristic of adolescence. Erikson described the major conflict of adolescence as involving identity vs. identity (role) confusion.

48
Q

Question ID #599: Tactile agnosia is most likely due to damage to the:

Select one:
A.	frontal lobe.
B.	parietal lobe.
C.	occipital lobe.
D.	temporal lobe.
A

B

49
Q

Question ID #1148: A school psychologist wants to determine if there is a significant difference in reading readiness scores between male and female students in the school’s preschool program. She obtains scores on a standardized reading readiness test for 17 girls and 13 boys. Which statistical test will be most appropriate for determining if there is a significant difference between the scores obtained by boys and girls?

Select one:
A.	two-way ANOVA
B.	Student's t-test
C.	Kolmogorov test
D.	chi-square test for contingency tables
A

B

50
Q

Question ID #1910: Recent research suggests that, in terms of predicting job performance, “g” (general cognitive ability):

Select one:
A. is useful only for managerial and other professional jobs.
B. is useful only for predicting performance in traditionally “male” jobs.
C. is not as accurate as specific ability tests for many different types of jobs.
D. is predictive of performance across a wide variety of jobs.

A

D

51
Q

Question ID #704: The changes in cognitive flexibility, memory, and everyday behavior (e.g., loss of spontaneity and lack of initiative) that are characteristic of Parkinson’s Disease lend support to the hypothesis that this disorder involves subcortical systems that influence certain areas in the:

Select one:
A.	frontal lobes.
B.	temporal lobes.
C.	occipital lobes.
D.	parietal lobes.
A

A

52
Q

Question ID #340: When deciding on an intervention plan for a client with Agoraphobia, it is important to keep in mind that which of the following seems to be the key element in treating this disorder?

Select one:
A.	counterconditioning
B.	progressive relaxation
C.	in vivo exposure
D.	cognitive restructuring
A

C

53
Q

Question ID #17419: A person taking an SSRI in conjunction with an MAOI may develop , which is characterized by agitation, confusion, tremor, unsteady gait, diarrhea, sweating, and chills.

Select one:
A.	a hypertensive crisis
B.	a cholinergic crisis
C.	serotonin syndrome
D.	sympathomimetic syndrome
A

C

54
Q

Question ID #1385: From a psychoanalytic perspective, a phobia is:

Select one:
A.	a fear of death or "non-being."
B.	an externalization of a forbidden impulse.
C.	a projection of a "disowned self."
D.	a projection of shame and guilt.
A

B

55
Q

Question ID #1630: Sherif’s (1965) social judgment theory implies that, before trying to persuade someone to your point of view, you should consider his/her:

Select one:
A.	categories of judgment.
B.	locus of control.
C.	category-based expectancies.
D.	level of self-monitoring.
A

A

56
Q

Question ID #12932: According to Piaget, the ability to think abstractly is first evident at about years of age.

Select one:
A.	6
B.	8
C.	11
D.	15
A

C

57
Q

Question ID #1450: When taking the Stroop test, an examinee may have trouble correctly naming the color of ink that a word is printed in because:

Select one:
A. the word is projected to his/her right visual field only.
B. the word is projected to his/her left visual field only.
C. the word names a color that differs from the color of the ink.
D. the word is a non-pronounceable “nonsense syllable.”

A

C

58
Q 
Question ID #8043: The endoplasmic reticulum is involved in: Select one:
A.	processing incoming visual stimuli.
B.	processing incoming auditory stimuli.
C.	transporting proteins and fats.
D.	storing neurotransmitters.
A

C

59
Q

Question ID #657: Dr. Strait is invited to a holiday party at a fellow psychologist’s house. While there, he notices that one of the guests is a current therapy client of the other psychologist. Dr. Strait’s best course of action would be to:

Select one:
A. leave the party in protest.
B. contact the ethics committee as soon as possible.
C. discuss the issue with the psychologist immediately.
D. discuss the issue with the psychologist at a later time.

A

D

60
Q

Question ID #14355: Cognitive dissonance theory and
share in common the assumption that an uncomfortable experience or sensation is the primary cause of attitude change.

Select one:
A.	the sleeper effect
B.	attitude inoculation
C.	balance theory
D.	the elaboration likelihood model
A

C

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