Exam 2

Question 1

2. From Wolpe’s classical conditioning perspective, neurotic depression:
   a. is a conditioned response that can be alleviated through extinction trials in which the neutral (conditioned) stimulus is
   repeatedly presented without the depression-inducing (unconditioned) stimulus.
   b. is a response to anxiety and can, therefore, be alleviated by using systematic desensitization to eliminate the anxiety.
   c. is due to attributional biases that, through conditioning, have become associated with certain types of events and can be
   eliminated through reattribution training.
   d. results when there is an absence of response contingent reinforcement and is best treated by counterconditioning in which
   depression is paired with a variety of pleasure-producing (unconditioned) stimuli.

Answer 1

B– Even if you are unfamiliar with Wolpe’s explanation of depression, you may have been able to pick the right answer to this question as long as you have him associated with systematic desensitization. Wolpe distinguished between several types of depression. He linked neurotic depression to anxiety and considered systematic desensitization to be an effective treatment.

Question 2

8. Recently the relationship between Frank and one of his adult sons has become increasingly tense, conflicted and distant. Frank considers himself a loving and supportive father. He dismisses the problem as a temporary “phase” to avoid the situation. Frank’s attempt to explain away the problem, according to Whitbourne’s self-concept model, is an attempt to maintain his own self-concept through:
   a. identity assimilation
   b. identity accommodation
   c. identity styles
   d. rationalization

Answer 2

A– Identity process theory proposes that adjustment to aging can be conceptualized as involving the three processes of identity assimilation (maintaining self-consistency), identity accommodation (making changes in the self), and identity balance (maintaining a sense of self but changing when necessary). Despite the changes in the relationship with his son, Frank continues to think of himself as having a loving relationship in order to maintain his consistent sense of self. Research indicates only identity balance is positively related to internal state awareness, suggesting that the ability to incorporate age-related changes within an identity and at the same time maintain a consistent and positive view of the self is most conducive to successful aging. (See: Sneed, J.R. & Whitbourne, S.K. (2003). Identity Processing and Self-Consciousness in Middle and Later Adulthood. The Journals of Gerontology Series B: Psychological Sciences and Social Sciences, 58, 313-319.)

Question 3

9. A factorial design, unlike a two group design:
   a. allows more independent variables to be studied
   b. requires a larger sample
   c. shows the effect of an independent variable on the dependent variable
   d. cannot detect a curvilinear relationship between variables

Answer 3

A– In a two group design, one group is exposed to a treatment and another, control group, is not exposed or gets a different treatment. The results of both groups are tested in order to compare the effects of treatment. A factorial design is a design with more than one independent variable. In this design, the independent variables are simultaneously investigated to determine the independent and interactive influence they have on the dependent variable. The effect of each independent variable on the dependent variable (c.) is called a main effect and in a factorial design there are as many main effects as there are independent variables. An interaction effect between two or more independent variables occurs when the effect that one independent variable has on the dependent variable depends on the level of the other independent variable. At least three levels must be used to predict a curvilinear relationship (d.).

Question 4

10. A psychologist is hired as a consultant by an agency which works with homosexual men whose behavior places them at very high risk for the HIV virus. The psychologist is asked to work with groups of the agency’s clients, with the goal of decreasing high-risk activity in this population. Assuming the psychologist is familiar with the research in this area, she is most likely to take which of the following approaches?
    a. attempting to engender a group norm of disapproval for high-risk activity
    b. providing knowledge to the group about AIDS
    c. threatening the group with punishment if they don’t change their behavior
    d. taking a laissez-faire approach and letting the group learn on its own how dangerous its behavior is

Answer 4

B– Studies show that, among individuals who are at high-risk for the AIDS virus, knowledge about AIDS is a better predictor of less risk-taking behavior than perceived peer norms. Thus, choice B is the best answer. By contrast, among low-risk groups, perceived peer norms are a better predictor. So if this question was about the best strategy for low-risk groups, choice A would have been a better answer.

Question 5

15. Despite his many accomplishments and positive feedback from his supervisor, a client believes his work performance is below average because he feels like a failure. This is an example of:
    a. minimization
    b. selective abstraction
    c. emotional reasoning
    d. personalization

Answer 5

C– Emotional reasoning is one of several cognitive distortions described by Beck. It refers to a person believing that because he or she feels a negative emotion, there must be a corresponding negative external situation. Minimization (A) is seeing something as less significant than it really is. Selective abstraction (B) occurs when one focuses on a detail, taken out of context, at the expense of other information. Personalization (D) is the attribution of external events to oneself without evidence of a causal connection.

Question 6

16. Organizations that advocate individual responsibility, consensual-decision making, slow promotion, and holistic knowledge of the organization are using which of the following management philosophies:
    a. Theory J
    b. Theory A
    c. Theory Z
    d. TQM

Answer 6

C– Ouchi’s Theory Z is an organizational management philosophy that incorporates aspects from traditional American (Theory A) and Japanese (Theory J) management philosophies. The theory represents a middle ground, for example, emphasizing long-term employment versus short-term or lifelong and a moderately specialized career path instead of specialized or nonspecialized.

Question 7

20. When working in a forensic capacity, psychologists must often be careful to
    a. acknowledge the limits of their data or conclusions.
    b. take the time to study the facts of the case so they can arrive at their own conclusion regarding the guilt or innocence of the
    defendant.
    c. be present every day of the trial in case the judge requires the psychologist’s opinion at some point.
    d. present their conclusions very forcefully and with confidence, so that the public’s confidence in the field of psychology is
    reinforced.

Answer 7

A– It’s often important for forensic psychologists to acknowledge the limits of their conclusions. This is because forensic psychologists are often asked for opinions on matters (e.g., probability of future violence) that cannot be made with absolute certainty.

Question 8

30. The majority of child sex abusers when asked about their abusive behaviors:
    a. deny the abuse but eventually admit their actions and express remorse after psychotherapy
    b. admit their behavior but minimize the harmful effects on or blame the child
    c. admit their actions, express shame and embarrassment, and say they will never do it again
    d. claim they were unable to control their impulses

Answer 8

B–. A number of similar characteristics has been identified by research on child sex abusers and studies indicate that the majority of child sex abusers and other sex offenders minimize, rationalize, or justify their abusive behaviors. One such study presented at the 15th Annual Symposium of the American College of Forensic Psychology in 1999, found 57% of subjects admitted engaging in sexual behaviors with a child but minimized the behavior in some way. (See: R. Underwager and H. Wakefield. Sex offender treatment requiring admission of guilt, presented at the 15th Annual Symposium of the American College of Forensic Psychology, April 29, 1999, Santa Fe, New Mexico.)

Question 9

32. The earliest symptoms of Huntington’s Disease are usually:
    a. memory impairments
    b. mild motor disturbances (e.g., mild tremor, incoordination).
    c. affective changes (e.g., irritability or depression).
    d. confusion and disorientation.

Answer 9

C– Because the early signs of Huntington’s Disease often involve changes in affect, in the early stages, it may be erroneously diagnosed as a depression or other mental disorder.

Question 10

33. According to House’s path-goal theory, the optimal leader style:
    a. is a democratic one that allows workers to participate in setting goals and identifying ways for achieving them.
    b. is the one that emphasizes a task-oriented (versus person-oriented) approach that focuses on ways to achieve goals.
    c. varies depending on the situation but always involves helping workers achieve their goals.
    d. varies depending on the leader’s experience and personality but always focuses on ensuring that goals are consistent with
    workers’ skills and knowledge.

Answer 10

C– As its name implies, path-goal theory predicts that leaders will be most successful when they show followers the path for achieving goals. Path-goal theory is also a contingency theory, which means that it proposes that the best leadership style depends on certain characteristics of the situation.

Question 11

37. Anger management training for children has been criticized for:
    a. limited positive effects due to focusing on the individual
    b. limited positive effects due to focusing on the behavior
    c. being developmentally inappropriate due to children’s tendency to blame anger on others
    d. being developmentally inappropriate due to children’s inability to control feelings and behaviors

Answer 11

A– One criticism of anger management training for children has been that most programs, which utilize a cognitive-behavioral approach, place the emphasis on the individual’s perceptions, feelings and behaviors while ignoring the interpersonal or systemic factors. Research indicates that training program effectiveness is increased by expanding beyond the individual to include family, peer and community relationships

Question 12

42. In consultee-centered case consultation, the consultant’s role is most similar to which of the following?
    a. collaborator
    b. coach
    c. confidant
    d. supervisor

Answer 12

D– In his discussion of consultee-centered case consultation, Gerald Caplan notes that, especially when the target of the consultation is the consultee’s lack of skill, this form of consultation most resembles “technical supervision.” See G. Caplan, Principles of Preventive Psychiatry, New York, Basic Books, Inc., 1964.

Question 13

45. Components of health anxiety include disease conviction, disease fears, disease preoccupation, bodily checking and reassurance seeking, and disease-related avoidance and escape behaviors. Strong disease conviction is most associated with:
    a. Specific (“disease”) Phobia
    b. Delusional Disorder, Somatic Type
    c. Hypochondriasis
    d. Panic Disorder

Answer 13

C– Individuals with hypochondriasis have the presence of strong disease convictions, insisting that they have an undetected serious illness or disease. Often convictions result from misinterpreting normal bodily sensations and minor symptoms as serious disease warning signs. Specific “disease” phobia (a.) is a DSM-IV-TR Anxiety Disorder associated with a fear of acquiring or being exposed to a disease. It is also commonly a feature of hypochondriasis. An absence of disease conviction is a differential characteristic of the two disorders. The disease conviction for individuals with Delusional Disorder, Somatic Type (b.) reaches extremely strong, unreasonable and delusional proportions. Although during panic attacks people with panic disorder commonly worry about dying, disease conviction is not a characteristic that is strongly associated with Panic Disorder.

Question 14

50. The most commonly associated features of Tourette’s Disorder are
    a. depression and shame
    b. academic and social difficulties
    c. orthopedic and skin problems
    d. obsessions and compulsions

Answer 14

D– DSM-IV lists obsessions and compulsions as the most commonly associated features of Tourette’s Disorder. While the other features that are included in responses A, B, and C are also associated with the disorder, they are not as common.

Question 15

54. Depressive episodes that occur in a seasonal pattern most likely include:
    a. loss of weight
    b. increased sleep
    c. increased energy
    d. increased craving for protein-rich foods

Answer 15

B– Mood Disorder With Seasonal Pattern (better known as Seasonal Affective Disorder) is diagnosed when the person displays onset and remission of Major Depressive Episodes at characteristic times of the year. In most cases, onset is in fall or winter and remission is in spring. The depressive symptoms in Seasonal Affective Disorder most often include: decreased energy, increased sleep, overeating, weight gain, and a craving for carbohydrates.

Question 16

58. A woman seeks help from a psychologist in dealing with her 12-year-old daughter who has been misbehaving lately. The mother says that the daughter has not been listening to her and last week cursed at her mother. The mother reacted by slapping her daughter which left a bruise. The mother feels very remorseful about it and says that she has never done anything like that before. The psychologist should:
    a. insist that the woman attend anger management classes
    b. report the incident to a child protective services agency before the end of the session
    c. monitor the situation and report any further abuse incidents to a child protective services agency
    d. seek consultation

Answer 16

B– State laws require mandated reporters to report any reasonable suspicion of child abuse. Abuse generally includes, but is not limited to, physical injury that is inflicted upon a child by other than accidental means. The reporting laws do not provide exceptions for those who are remorseful or first-time offenders. Although the reporting laws do not require the reporter to inform the abuser of the report, or to involve him or her in making the report, it is often clinically useful to do so. Referral to anger management classes (A) might be appropriate, but the psychologist should not insist upon it and the psychologist must still meet the reporting requirements.

Question 17

59. Once exposed to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the process of converting from antibody negative to antibody positive is referred to as:
    a. retroviral-conversion
    b. seroconversion
    c. seronegative
    d. seropositive

Answer 17

B– Seroconversion describes the development of antibodies to a particular antigen, or the conversion from seronegative (HIV negative) to seropositive (HIV positive) as the result of the presence of antibodies. An individual who is infected may develop symptoms of acute HIV infection while still having a negative HIV antibody test because seroconversion often does not occur until several weeks after infection.

Question 18

62. Of the following, which would be the most important factor to keep in mind when deciding whether to prescribe tricyclic anti-depressants to a patient?
    a. the patient’s suicide risk.
    b. the patient’s history of treatment success or failure with tricyclics.
    c. whether or not the patient’s symptoms are atypical.
    d. whether or not the patient’s symptoms are primarily vegetative.

Answer 18

A– All of these factors would be important to consider in deciding whether to prescribe tricyclics to a patient. However, safety considerations generally supercede all others; thus, choice “A” is the best answer. The risk of suicide in depressed patients must always be considered by physicians when writing prescriptions – particularly for potentially dangerous drugs such as tricyclics.

Question 19

63. In implosive therapy:
    a. the client is gradually exposed, through the imagination, to a feared stimulus, one step at a time.
    b. a client is immediately exposed, through the imagination, to a feared stimulus at its maximum intensity.
    c. the client is gradually exposed, in-vivo, to a feared stimulus, one step at a time.
    d. a client is immediately exposed, in-vivo, to a feared stimulus at its maximum intensity.

Answer 19

B– Implosive therapy involves imaginal exposure to a feared stimulus. The person is immediately exposed to the stimulus at its maximum intensity. The purpose of implosive therapy is to extinguish a person’s fear; in addition, the technique incorporates psychodynamic themes thought to underlie the fear into the imagery.

Question 20

67. A patient with Parkinson’s Disease is experiencing tremors. What transmitter is probably involved?
    a. Acetylcholine
    b. Glutamate
    c. Zyprexa
    d. Dopamine

Answer 20

D– A lack of norepinephrine at brain synapses is associated with depression, while excessive dopamine and norepinephrine are both associated with schizophrenia. Dopamine also plays a role in movement, and degeneration of neurons that secrete dopamine causes the muscular rigidity found in Parkinson’s disease.

Question 21

69. Alzheimer’s Dementia often results in problems in the executive functions such as:
    a. aphasia and agnosia
    b. apraxia and disorientation
    c. planning and organizing
    d. recalling and recognizing

Answer 21

C– According to the DSM-IV-TR, a diagnosis of Dementia of the Alzheimer’s type, or any other type, requires evidence of impairment in memory, and at least one other cognitive impairment such as aphasia (language disturbance), apraxia (impaired ability to carry out motor activities), agnosia (failure to recognize objects), or disturbance in executive functioning. All the choices in this question are symptoms of dementia, however, problems with executive functions refers specifically to planning, organizing, and abstract thinking.

Question 22

77. A psychologist in a rural area is referred a 17-year-old male who has been abusing OxyContin. Although the psychologist is trained and experienced in the treatment of substance abuse, she has not received training in, nor experience with, OxyContin abuse. The psychologist should:
    a. refer the patient to a psychologist outside the area who is experienced in the treatment of OxyContin abuse
    b. agree to treat the patient after attending a workshop on the treatment of OxyContin abuse
    c. refer the patient for inpatient detoxification
    d. provide the patient with treatment and read relevant literature

Answer 22

D– Psychologists have an ethical responsibility to practice within the boundaries of their competence. However, according to APA’s Ethics Standard 2.01(d), “When psychologists are asked to provide services to individuals for whom appropriate mental health services are not available and for which psychologists have not obtained the competence necessary, psychologists with closely related prior training or experience may provide such services in order to ensure that services are not denied if they make a reasonable effort to obtain the competence required by using relevant research, training, consultation, or study.” It should not, therefore, be necessary to refer the patient to a provider out of the area. It also would not be in the patient’s best interest to postpone treatment until the psychologist can attend a workshop on the subject (B). And, although OxyContin abuse is serious and potentially fatal, it generally would not require inpatient detoxification (C) unless the abuse progressed to dependence.

Question 23

81. The head of a psychological clinic hires a consultant to help therapists deal with some particularly difficult cases at the agency. This is an example of
    a. consultee-centered administrative consultation.
    b. client-centered administrative consultation.
    c. consultee-centered case consultation.
    d. client-centered case consultation.

Answer 23

D– Client-centered case consultation involves working with the consultee (here, the therapists) to develop a plan to work more effectively with a particular client or clients (here, the clinic’s patients). By contrast, in consultee-centered case consultation, the focus is on problems in the consultee (e.g., psychological problems, lack of skill) rather than on problems in the clients. And in both client-centered and consultee-centered administrative consultation, the focus is on program-wide administrative problems, rather than on problems in individual clients or therapists.

Question 24

83. Of the “big 5” personality dimensions one would most expect a sociopathic personality to have the dimension of:
    a. Extraversion
    b. Openness
    c. Conscientiousness
    d. Sensing

Answer 24

A– Extraversion. This is one of those where the right answer is a “rule out”. The Big Five personality dimensions are extraversion, agreeableness, openness, emotional stability and conscientiousness. An antisocial personality is described as deceitful, impulsive, irritable, consistently irresponsible and with a lack or remorse. You might not always expect an antisocial person to be extroverted, but of the choices, it is what you would most expect.

Question 25

89. An adult woman comes to an outpatient clinic. She is foreign-born and has almost no skills in English. She appears depressed. If one were to attempt a standardized assessment of her level of cognitive functioning, the best test would be
    a. Stanford-Binet.
    b. Ravens Progressive Matrices.
    c. Perdue Peg Board Test.
    d. Otis-Lennon Test.

Answer 25

B– Of these, only the Ravens is an intelligence test completely non-dependent on language. It’s a non-verbal assessment of abstract reasoning and a fairly good predictor of general cognitive functioning.

Question 26

91. The item difficulty (“p”) index yields information about the difficulty of test items in terms of a(n) _________ scale of measurement.
    a. nominal
    b. ordinal
    c. interval
    d. ratio

Answer 26

B– An item difficulty index indicates the percentage of individuals who answer a particular item correctly. For example, if an item has a difficulty index of .80, it means that 80% of test-takers answered the item correctly. Although it appears that the item difficulty index is a ratio scale of measurement, according to Anastasi (1982) it is actually an ordinal scale because it does not necessarily indicate equivalent differences in difficulty.

Question 27

98. The behavioral technique known as flooding is based on the theoretical principle of
    a. reciprocal inhibition.
    b. covert desensitization.
    c. classical extinction.
    d. negative reinforcement.

Answer 27

C– In flooding, the patient is exposed to a feared stimulus. The technique is based on the principle of classical extinction, which involves repeatedly presenting a conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus. The idea is that the fear developed through classical conditioning, or a pairing of a conditioned stimulus (the feared stimulus) and an unconditioned stimulus (a stimulus that naturally causes fear). For instance, a fear of dogs might have been developed through a pairing of a dog (the conditioned stimulus) and a frightening event associated with a dog, such as a dog bite (the unconditioned stimulus). Classical extinction involves “unpairing” the conditioned and the unconditioned stimulus – for instance, repeatedly exposing the person to dogs that don’t bite.

Question 28

99. Cognitive behavior therapy, compared to operant behavior treatments, has been found to be:
    a. less effective across most diagnostic categories.
    b. superior with more intelligent clients.
    c. approximately equally effective with all types of disorders.
    d. more effective with addictive disorders.

Answer 28

C– The question is about the research showing that all types of treatments are about equal with all types of disorders. Outside of Agoraphobia, Specific Phobias (including school phobia), and sometimes some physiological problems, such as enuresis, psychological treatments tend to be about equal in their efficacy.

Question 29

101. Which of the following is a non-stimulant medication that alleviates inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms in AD/HD?
     a. methylphenidate
     b. atomoxetine
     c. pemoline
     d. dextroamphetamine

Answer 29

B– In November 2002, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved a new medication called atomoxetine (Strattera) specifically for AD/HD. This medication is neither a stimulant nor an antidepressant. It alleviates inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms of AD/HD by affecting specific aspects of the norepinephrine system. This medication is a reuptake inhibitor that acts on the neurotransmitter norepinephrine (which affects blood pressure and blood flow) in the same way that antidepressants act on the neurotransmitter seratonin, allowing the natural chemical to remain longer in the brain before being drawn back up. Because it is a non-stimulant, it may be less objectionable to some families. Nevertheless, it has similar side effects as other medications used for AD/HD. It is a prescription medication, but it is not a controlled substance like a stimulant. This allows medical professionals to give samples and to place refills on the prescriptions. It does not start working as quickly as the stimulants do. Reports suggest that the full effects are often not seen until the person has been taking atomoxetine regularly for 3 or 4 weeks. Methylphenidate (a.), i.e., Ritalin, Concerta, Metadate, pemoline (c.), i.e., Cylert (less commonly prescribed because it can cause liver damage), and dextroamphetamine (d.), i.e., Dexedrine, Dextrostat, along with amphetamines, i.e., Adderall are four main types of stimulants used for the treatment of AD/HD.

Question 30

102. Which of the following is true regarding sensory memory?
     a. It has a very limited capacity.
     b. It can hold information for up to 30 seconds.
     c. It is also referred to as primary memory.
     d. It is a representation of external stimuli.

Answer 30

D– A sensory memory is a representation of an external stimulus after the stimulus has ended. Sensory memories are believed to be unprocessed copies of the original stimuli which briefly reside in the sensory organs. Sensory memory is thought to have an unlimited capacity but a very short duration (no more than 2 or 3 seconds). “Primary memory” (C) and “secondary memory” are terms originally used by William James and these later became known as “short-term memory” and “long-term memory.”

Question 31

107. Research by Laurence Steinberg, Sanford Dornbusch and their colleagues on the relationship between parenting style and academic achievement has revealed that
     a. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to children but not adolescents.
     b. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to adolescents regardless of gender, socioeconomic status, or race.
     c. the positive impact of authoritative parenting may apply less to African-American adolescents than to European, Asian,
     and Hispanic adolescents.
     d. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to adolescents and seems to be due primarily to parents’
     encouragement of academic excellence.

Answer 31

C– Authoritative parenting has been linked to many positive outcomes for both children and adolescents including better academic performance. However, the effects of authoritative parenting seem to be moderated by race. Steinberg and his colleagues found that, even though African-American parents often adopt an authoritative style, the academic performance of their adolescents is influenced more by peers and, therefore, has less of an effect. These investigators also found that, overall, parents’ involvement in their youngster’s schooling is more important than their encouragement of academic excellence. See, for example, L. Steinberg et al., Impact of parenting practices on adolescent achievement: Authoritative parenting, school involvement, and encouragement to succeed, Child Development, 1992, 63, 1266-1281.

Question 32

109. In brief psychodynamically-oriented therapy:
     a. positive transferences are encouraged and are viewed as essential to treatment progress.
     b. positive and negative transferences are encouraged early in treatment to ensure that a transference neurosis develops.
     c. positive and negative transferences are both discouraged because of the here-and-now focus of the treatment.
     d. negative transferences are encouraged because they are more likely than positive transferences to produce useful
     information for interpretation.

Answer 32

A– Brief and long-term psychodynamic psychotherapy share a number of characteristics. A primary difference is that, in brief psychotherapy, a full-scale transference neurosis is discouraged. However, positive transference is seen as an important contributor to therapy progress.

Question 33

111. Primary memory is the same as
     a. implicit memory.
     b. short-term memory.
     c. procedural memory.
     d. episodic memory.

Answer 33

B– Primary memory is another term for short-term memory. On the other hand, the terms secondary and long-term memory are also often used interchangeably. Implicit memory (answer A) is an unconscious, nonintentional form of memory. Procedural memory (answer C) is memory of how to do certain activities, for example, driving a car, while episodic memory (answer D) is the memory of a particular episode, such as your last birthday.

Question 34

113. Which of the following is true regarding Klinefelter’s Syndrome?
     a. It occurs only in males
     b. It occurs only in females
     c. It typically results in severe to profound mental retardation
     d. Its symptoms are preventable with dietary restrictions

Answer 34

A– Klinefelter’s Syndrome only affects males and is caused by an extra X chromosome (XXY). Males with this disorder have typical masculine interests in childhood and develop a normal male identity, but they show an incomplete development of secondary sex characteristics and are often sterile. Klinefelter’s does not typically cause severe mental retardation, although most experience some degree of impairment in language and some do have mild mental retardation [R. Bock, Understanding Klinefelter Syndrome: A guide for XXY males and their families (NIH Pub. No. 93-3202), August 1993, Retrieved from http://www.genetic.org/ks/scvs/KS_NIH.htm]. Finally, while some “XXY males” do not develop the syndrome, Klinefelter’s is not believed to be preventable through diet. The symptoms of phenylketonuria (PKU), on the other hand, are preventable through a diet low in phenylalanine.

Question 35

123. For the WISC-III, which of the following would have the lowest reliability?
     a. Verbal IQ score
     b. Performance IQ score
     c. subtest scores
     d. Verbal-Performance difference score

Answer 35

D– If you take a difference between two scores, you are, obviously, using two measures. Since each is less than 100% reliable, you are going to compound the total error variance (i.e., the total unreliability). The error contained in both tests would exist in the difference score. Thus, using two measures which are less than perfectly reliable, you will end up with a score which is less reliable than either of the two you started with.

Question 36

125. The WAIS-III measures working memory with which of the following subtests?
     a. matrix reasoning
     b. block design
     c. arithmetic
     d. digit symbol-coding

Answer 36

C– The arithmetic subtest along with the digit span subtest and letter-number sequencing subtest are used as measures of the Working Memory Factor. Matrix reasoning (answer A) and block design (answer B) are part of the Perceptual Organization Factor. Digit-symbol coding (answer D) is included in the Perceptual Speed Factor.

Question 37

127. Research has found that Mexican-American children begin to accurately apply ethnic labels to themselves and others between:
     a. 3 and 4 years
     b. 5 and 9 years
     c. 7 and 12 years
     d. 10 and 15 years

Answer 37

B– Children’s ethnic perspective-taking ability (EPTA) has been evaluated and described in several stages. In the first stage, which develops between 3 and 4 years, children can begin to describe ethnicity in terms of physical traits (e.g. skin color, clothes, physical features); however, it is not until the next stage, which occurs between 5 and 9 years, can they accurately apply ethnic labels to themselves and others. In the following stage, from 7-12 years, children express a social perspective of ethnicity, including prejudice. And between 10 and 15 years they begin to immerse themselves into their ethnic group. [S.M. Quintana, V.C. Ybarra, P. Gonzalez-Doupe, & Y. DeBaessa, Cross-Cultural Evaluation of Ethnic Perspective-Taking Ability: An Exploratory Investigation With U.S. Latino and Guatemalan Ladino Children. Cultural Diversity and Ethnic Minority Psychology, 2000, 6 (4), 334-351].

Question 38

134. A class designed to teach senior citizens how to avoid financial scams, led by former con artists, would be considered:
     a. primary prevention
     b. secondary prevention
     c. tertiary prevention
     d. rehabilitative consultation

Answer 38

A– The key issue in these prevention questions is not the age of the target population, but rather, whether or not they already have the identified problem, and if so, whether it’s in an early stage (secondary prevention) or full-blown (tertiary prevention). Since the question did not indicate that these senior citizens have already been victims of financial scams, this class would be considered primary prevention. Primary prevention is aimed at preventing problems before they occur in the first place by targeting high risk groups.

Question 39

135. The ratio of Major Depressive Disorder in females to males is approximately
     a. 1:1.
     b. 2.5:1.
     c. 5:1.
     d. 1:2.

Answer 39

B– Estimates of the female to male Major Depression rate range from 2:1 to 3:1. Thus, 2.5:1 is the best answer to this question.

Question 40

139. Several demographic characteristics are associated with the risk of divorce. According to the National Survey of Family Growth (2002), divorce rates are highest for women who:
     a. have a higher level of education and marry at a younger age
     b. have a lower level of education and marry at a younger age
     c. have a higher level of education and marry at an older age
     d. have a lower level of education and marry at an older age

Answer 40

B– The likelihood of a marriage ending in divorce varies based on age at marriage, income, education, length of marriage, race and other factors distinguished in the National Survey of Family Growth. The survey data indicates that rates of divorce are highest for women who marry at a younger age, have a lower level of education, had a child when she got married, have a lower income or live in a community with low family income, or have no religious affiliation. (See: Bramlett, M.D. & Mosher, W.D. (2002) Cohabitation, Marriage, Divorce, and Remarriage in the United States. National Center for Health Statistics. Vital Health Statistics, 23(22).)

Question 41

149. You are investigating whether there is a relationship between the number of years one has been smoking cigarettes and the number of psychotherapy sessions required to quit smoking. The best statistical method to analyze the results is:
     a. chi-square
     b. Pearson r
     c. t-test for independent samples
     d. multiple regression analysis

Answer 41

B– In this case, you are attempting to assess the relationship between two variables that are measured on a continuous (interval or ratio) scale. The Pearson r allows you to do this. The Pearson r is the bivariate (i.e., for two variables) correlation coefficient used when variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale.

Question 42

159. Which of the following is achieved during the operations stages?
     a. magical thinking
     b. decentration
     c. symbolic thought
     d. object permanence

Answer 42

B– The “operations stages” refer to Piaget’s concrete operations and formal operations stages. The stages prior to the operations stages are the sensorimotor and “preoperations,” which, as its name implies, occurs before the development of operations abilities. The development of decentration and reversibility form the basis for conservation, which is the characteristic achievement of concrete operations (7 to 12 years). Object permanence (D) is achieved during the sensorimotor stage (birth to 2 years). Symbolic thought (C) develops during the preoperations stage (2 to 7 years) resulting in the development of language and pretend play. Magical thinking (A) is also characteristic of preoperational thought.

Question 43

161. During an evening interview, a client displays incoherence, disorientation, distractibility, fragmented delusions, and impaired recent memory. When the client is seen the next morning, his symptoms have remitted. The MOST likely diagnosis for this patient is:
     a. amnestic disorder
     b. delirium
     c. brief psychotic disorder
     d. substance intoxication

Answer 43

B– Even though there is no evidence of an underlying medical condition or substance use, delirium is the best response based on the information about the symptoms and their duration. Delirium involves a disturbance in consciousness with a change in cognition or the development of perceptual abnormalities. An individual exhibits a reduced awareness of his environment, shifts in attention, and distractibility, and changes in cognition can include memory loss, disorientation to time and place, and impaired language. Associated perceptual abnormalities can include illusions, hallucinations, or other misperceptions. As in this case, the symptoms of delirium usually fluctuate in the course of a day, and depending on the cause of the disorder, may remit within a few hours or persist for weeks. Response “D” may have been difficult to rule out as the symptoms could represent a substance-induced delirium; however the symptoms appear to be in excess of symptoms usually associated with “substance intoxication” or an intoxication syndrome. In contrast to brief psychotic disorder (response “C”), this client’s psychotic symptoms fluctuate, are fragmented, and occur in the context of reduced awareness of the environment, shifts in attention, and distractibility which are associated with delirium. An amnestic disorder (response “A”) is not diagnosed if memory difficulties occur in the course of delirium, or as with this client, the memory impairment is accompanied by reduced consciousness or other cognitive deficits.

Question 44

164. Client-therapist matching of ethnicity is a good predictor of
     a. treatment length.
     b. treatment outcome.
     c. both treatment length and outcome.
     d. neither treatment length nor outcome.

Answer 44

A– While the findings are not entirely clear, overall there is a greater impact on premature termination rather than outcome, due to ethnic matching. It also seems that some groups are more likely to benefit than others. When there are benefits, they are usually related more to dropout rates than to treatment effectiveness.

Question 45

169. According to the recent U.S. Department of Justice’s National Violence Against Women Study, ______________ females have the lowest lifetime rate of victimization by an intimate partner.
     a. Asian American
     b. American Indians/Alaska Natives
     c. African American
     d. White American

Answer 45

A– Investigators P. Tjaden and N. Thoennes report in Extent, nature and consequences of intimate partner violence: Findings from the National Violence Against Women Study (July 2000) that Asian/Pacific Islander women reported significantly less intimate partner violence than women of other racial backgrounds with a lifetime victimization rate of 15%. It has been suggested that traditional Asian values emphasizing close family ties and harmony may discourage Asian women from disclosing physical and emotional abuse by intimates. Therefore, the lower rates may be partially due to under-reporting. American Indians/Alaska Native women (response “B”) report the highest rates of intimate partner victimization with a lifetime rate of 37.5%. African American females (response “C”) report a rate of 29.1% and White females (response “D”), 24.8%. It is unclear how much of the difference between victimization rates among women of differing racial backgrounds may be explained by differences in willingness to report; by demographic, social, and environmental factors; and how much by actual victimization experiences.

Question 46

171. A person who doesn’t feel something they are touching probably has damage to:
     a. Parietal lobe
     b. Occipital lobe
     c. Frontal lobe
     d. Temporal lobe

Answer 46

A– The parietal lobe contains the somatosensory cortex. Its functions include the processing of touch-pressure, temperature, kinesthesia and pain.

Question 47

173. The research suggests that, to control excessive aggression in children, the best approach is:
     a. time-out and similar behavioral techniques.
     b. opportunities for catharsis.
     c. explaining the consequences of aggressive acts.
     d. social-skills training.

Answer 47

D– A number of techniques have been found useful for reducing aggression in children, but many of them (e.g., catharsis) have only short-term effects. In the long run, the best thing to do is to teach aggressive children alternative, nonaggressive, prosocial behaviors, which is a component of social-skills training.

Question 48

177. The hypnagogic state refers to:
     a. the transition state of semiconsciousness between sleeping and waking
     b. the transition state of semiconsciousness between being awake and falling asleep
     c. a condition in which someone about to fall asleep, or just upon awaking, realizes that s/he is unable to move, or speak, or
     cry out
     d. a condition in which there is a sudden loss of partial or complete muscle tone during excitement or arousal

Answer 48

B– The hypnagogic state is that state between being awake and falling asleep. The hypnopompic state (a.) is between sleeping and waking. Various sensory experiences such as auditory, visual, kinesthetic and tactile hallucinations are experienced by some during these states. Sleep paralysis is a condition in which someone, about to drop off to sleep, or just upon waking from sleep realizes that s/he is unable to move, or speak, or cry out (c.). Like the previous two states, this may last from a few seconds to several minutes. Sleep paralysis with hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations is commonly reported as an experience of a “sensed” presence accompanied by fear. Sleep paralysis most often has an adolescent onset and is often thought to be associated with narcolepsy. Narcolepsy is a condition in which people are overcome with irresistible sleep attacks that occur unpredictably. Another distinguishing feature of the condition is cataplexy, a sudden loss of partial or complete muscle tone during excitement or arousal (d.) Although conscious during a cataplectic episode, individuals may experience hallucinations during prolonged attacks and subsequently fall asleep.

Question 49

178. Coding Personality Disorders on a separate axis, according to the DSM-IV-TR, is due to:
     a. the need to reduce the possibility of being overlooked
     b. the need to reduce the possibility of prioritization over an Axis I disorder
     c. having a differing etiology than Axis I disorders
     d. having less daily functioning interference than Axis I disorders

Answer 49

A– In the DSM-IV-TR’s description of Axis II, Personality Disorders and Mental Retardation are classified on a separate axis as they “might otherwise be overlooked when attention is directed to the usually more florid Axis I disorders” and does not suggest “pathogenesis or range of appropriate treatment is fundamentally different from that for the disorders coded on Axis I.”

Question 50

180. The best prognostic indicator for individuals with Autistic Disorder is:
     a. severity of stereotyped behaviors
     b. early language ability
     c. level of impairment in social interaction
     d. presence of symptoms prior to 3 years of age

Answer 50

B– The long-term outcome for autism is variable, however, only a small percentage of individuals with the disorder go on as adults to live and work independently. According to DSM-IV-TR, the best prognostic indicators have been found to be early language skills and overall intellectual level. Choice D can be eliminated because a diagnosis requires symptoms to be present prior to 3 years of age.

Question 51

184. Computer-adaptive testing will yield
     a. more accurate results for high scorers on a test.
     b. more accurate results for low scorers on a test.
     c. more accurate results for examinees who score in the middle range of a test.
     d. equally accurate results across all range of scores on a test.

Answer 51

D– In computerized adaptive testing, the examinee’s previous responses are used to tailor the test to his or her ability. As a result, inaccuracy of scores is reduced across ability levels.

Question 52

185. All of the following are true regarding the relationship between aging and memory, except
     a. observed age-related cognitive and memory declines are believed to be due to artifacts of intelligence tests and experience,
     rather than physiological changes.
     b. the main locus of observed age-related decline in memory is in long-term memory rather than short-term or sensory
     memory.
     c. on tests such as the WAIS-III, the least age-related decline is observed on subtests measuring stored knowledge.
     d. age-related declines on complex psychomotor tasks are greater than they are on simple psychomotor tasks.

Answer 52

A– Few, if any, experts believe that age-related declines in cognition and especially memory are solely related to artifacts of experience or testing. These declines have been observed again and again across different cultures and different tests. Certainly, experience and test error can account for some degree of observed decline, but the generally accepted conclusion is that these declines are real and reflect true neuropsychological changes. Choices B, C, and D are true statements about age-related decline in cognition and memory.

Question 53

186. The best explanation for group members’ reluctance to provide negative feedback to one another is:
     a. minority influence
     b. group think
     c. Yalom’s principle
     d. the mum effect

Answer 53

D– Rosen and Tesser (1970) conducted research on message transmission in different groups of people to determine how individuals respond to relaying a message that may be displeasing. They proposed there is emotional stress placed on the messenger, predicated on a fear of being infected with the emotional distress of the recipient or of having to assume an emotional state congruent with the bad news, and for this reason there may be a decrease in the transmittance of bad news. Their findings, which have been subsequently supported by others, indicated that bad news is transmitted less frequently than good news. MUM refers to the tendency to keep ‘Mum about Undesirable Messages’ (See: Rosen, S. & Tesser, A. (1970). On reluctance to communicate undesirable information: The MUM effect. Sociometry. 33, 253 - 263.) Minority influence (a.) refers to attempts by a minority to alter of attitudes and beliefs on part of the majority typically involving a break with the accepted norms and conventions; inspiring majority resistance; and creating a cognitive conflict for the majority. The effectiveness of minority influence depends on the extent that it exhibits behavioral consistency, persistence and internal coherence as well as congruency with the prevailing Zeitgeist, that is with values, norms and goals salient for the majority. Groupthink (b.) is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group, which prevents full consideration of alternative decisions, to the point where the decisions reached may become irrational. Factors which contribute to groupthink include high cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader.

Question 54

188. The concept of “identical elements” is most applicable to:
     a. personnel selection
     b. employee training
     c. job analysis
     d. Equity Theory

Answer 54

B–“Identical elements” is a concept based on the work of learning theorists Thorndike and Woodworth in 1901. It refers to the notion that training is best transferred over to situations which are similar to, or which have “identical elements” with, the training environment. Research has confirmed that identical elements improves transfer of training for both verbal and motor tasks.

Question 55

190. In their discussion of mental health services for Latino clients, Rogler et al. (1987) describe three ways to increase the cultural sensitivity of therapy for members of this group. These methods include all of the following except:
     a. incorporating elements of Latino culture into therapy.
     b. increasing the accessibility of mental health services for Latino clients.
     c. selecting standard treatments that best fit Latino culture.
     d. obtaining cultural sensitivity training.

Answer 55

D– Although all of the actions described in the responses could be called “culturally sensitive,” only the first three were described by Rogler and his colleagues, which makes answer D the correct response. [L. H. Rogler et al., What do culturally sensitive mental health services mean? The case of Hispanics. American Psychologist, 1987, 42(6), 656-570.]

Question 56

192. In comparison studies of younger and older adults, it has been found that depression in older adults is least likely to result in
     a. difficulties with memory problems.
     b. anxiety feelings.
     c. feelings of hopelessness.
     d. expressed sadness.

Answer 56

D– Older adults are less likely than younger adults to express feelings of depression or sadness. They are more willing to express feelings of hopelessness (answer C) and anxiety (answer B). They are also more apt to have memory problems (answer A). (APA Working Group on the Older Adult, What practitioners should know about working with older clients, Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 1998, 29(5), 413-427).

Question 57

196. Which one of the following is least likely to attenuate a measure of correlation?
     a. restricted range
     b. homoscedasticity
     c. curvilinear relationship
     d. the use of unreliable measures

Answer 57

B– Homoscedasticity refers to even scatter around the regression line. Homoscedasticity is actually a good thing. It wouldn’t attenuate the correlation at all. The other three choices list factors that would attenuate the correlation coefficient.

Question 58

199. Research on subordinates’ satisfaction with their leader at work has found that the strongest determinant is:
     a. the leader’s level of consideration.
     b. the leader’s use of a participative decision-making style.
     c. the leader’s provision of equitable rewards.
     d. the leader’s personality characteristics.

Answer 58

A– If you’re familiar with the research on leadership, you might be aware that factor analyses of leadership qualities has, over the years, consistently identified two basic factors – task orientation (instrumentality) and consideration. Knowing this would have helped you pick the right answer. Also, consideration is a better choice because it is a more general answer and could be conceived of as encompassing the characteristics listed in the other responses.