Exam 1 CoursePoint Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse is assessing a client for the presence of asynchronous contraction in the heart, what should the nurse do?

A

auscultate for spilt S1 at the base and apex of the heart

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2
Q

what are the risk factors for cardiac disease?

A

smoking, sedentary lifestyle, poor diet, cholesterol, low in fruits and vegetables, stress, and excessive alcohol consumption

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3
Q

Client reports fatigue that seems to get worse in the evening, what would explain this?

A

decreased cardiac output

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4
Q

Before the nurse begins the physical examination of a client with construct heart failure, the client reports having to get up at night to void frequently. What action should the nurse take?

A

inspect for dependent edema

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5
Q

A client has a painful ulcerative lesion near the medial mallory’s with accompanying hyperpigmentation. What etiology is this?

A

Venous insufficiency

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6
Q

Where do neuropathic ulcers often occur?

A

over bony prominences with surrounding calluses

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7
Q

which enlarged node should the nurse suspect that the client has a blockage within the right lymphatic duct?

A

right cervical node

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8
Q

What are the major functions of the lymphatic system?

A

defend the body against microorganisms, absorb fat from the small intestine into the bloodstream, drain excess fluid and plasma proteins from bodily tissues and return them to the venous system

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9
Q

client is guarding their left leg, which a swollen and reddened. the nurse should identify the signs and symptoms of what complication of hospitalization?

A

venous thromboembolism

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10
Q

nurse detects warm skin and brown pigmentation around an adult client’s ankles. nurse suspects the client is experiencing what?

A

venous insufficiency

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11
Q

Rust colored sputum is associated with what conditions? (2)

A

Tuberculosis or Pneumococcal Pneumonia

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12
Q

the clavicle extend from the acromion of the scapula to the part of the sternum termed the ________.

A

manubriun

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13
Q

what is bronchitis characterized by?

A

excess mucus production and productive cough

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14
Q

Unequal chest expansion can be due to what conditions? (4)

A

pneumonia, atelectasis, trauma, pneumothorax

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15
Q

client reports sharp stabbing pain that worsens with deep breathing and coughing. cardiac cause to this pain is ruled out. what respiratory condition is consistent with this description?

A

pleurisy (pleuritis)

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16
Q

the nurse auscultates very loud, high pitched lung sounds that are equal in length over a client’s anterior chest. which area did the nurse most likely hear these sounds?

A

trachea

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17
Q

What term is used to describe the degrees of vascular resistance and ventricular contraction?

A

afterload

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18
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

the amount of blood pumped from the heart with each contraction

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19
Q

The pressure against which the heart muscle has to eject blood during contraction is ______.

A

afterload

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20
Q

what is preload?

A

the degree of stretch of the heart muscle up to a critical length before contraction

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21
Q

the greater the preload, the ____ the _____ volume.

A

preload; stoke

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22
Q

the increase afterload, results in the ______ of the ______ volume

A

decrease; stroke

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23
Q

Laterally displaced apical impulse is a sign of _______.

A

volume overload

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24
Q

What is responsible for for the inspiration splitting of S2?

A

semilunar valves

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25
Semilunar valves consists of what two valves?
Aortic and Pulmonic valves
26
What does smoking do the heart?
increased the hearts workload and contributes to atherosclerosis
27
which intercostal would u find the aortic valve?
right, second intercostal space
28
which intercostal space would you find the pulmonic valve?
left, second intercostal space
29
which intercostal space would you find the mitral valve?
left, fifth intercostal space
30
what is it called when a client has palpable rushing vibrations in the area of the pulmonic valve?
thrills
31
What can a person do to reduce risk of PVD?
regalar daily exercise, diet high fruits and vegetables, reduce cholesterol, reduce alcohol consumption, no smoking, reduce intake of sodium
32
The diagnosis of superficial phlebitis increases the client’s risk for which vascular disorder?
DVT
33
What is the most common type of hyperthyroidism?
graves’ disease
34
what headaches are related to vascular?
migraine, tension (muscle contraction), traction, or inflammatory causes
35
which sex is more prone to migraines?
female
36
Migraine headaches commonly have a _______ association.
familial
37
What are the characteristics of a sinus headache?
deep, constant, throbbing pain — pressure like pain in a specific area of the face (behind the eyes); face is tender to the touch
38
What are the characteristics of a cluster headache?
stabbing pain; may be accompanied by tearing eyelid drooping, reddened eye, or runny nose
39
What characteristics of a tension headache?
full, tight, diffuse
40
What are the characteristics of a migraine headache?
accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to noise or light
41
The nurse assessed a client’s submental lymph nodes, where would you palpate these lymph nodes?
in the midline, few centimeters behind the tip of the mandible
42
What risk factors should the nurse include in a discussion on the occurrence of neck cancer?
male sex, tobacco use, age older than 50 years old
43
What is an early symptom associated with laryngeal cancer?
hoarseness
44
What is Tinea Versicolor?
a common fungal infection of the skin that causes discolored patches
45
What are Multiple Nevi?
moles
46
What is Tinea Corporis?
a fungal infection of the skin that causes circular, itchy, and scaly rashes
47
What is Impetigo?
Bullae that rupture and ooze serous fluid forming a honey-colored crust
48
Can measles be discovered through an integumentary assessment?
yes
49
What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a client with hypothyroidism?
dry and rough
50
What is Trigeminal neuralgia?
a chronic pain disorder that affects the trigeminal nerve, the main sensory nerve in the face
51
What is a goiter?
enlargement of the thyroid gland
52
What are some of the symptoms of hypermetabolism from hyperthyroidism?
tachycardia, diarrhea, anxiety
53
What are the signs and symptoms of Cushing's syndrome?
increased facial hair, thin extremities, "moon" face (puffy, round face), increased fat on the upper back
54
How should the nurse instruct the client to position their head to best facilitate a thyroid exam?
flex head at the side that's being examined
55
An 82-year-old female client presents with neck pain, decreased strength and sensation of the upper extremities. The nurse identifies that this could be related to what?
Arthritic changes of the cervical spine
56
What is Scotoma?
an area of partial or complete blindness in the visual field
57
What is a Tonometry?
test to measure the intraocular pressure
58
When testing near vision by near gaze and distant gaze, what is a normal pupillary response?
constrict near gaze, dilate distant gaze
59
What foods reduce the risk for cataracts?
eggs, kale, oranges
60
What test would the nurse perform to test for strabismus?
corneal light reflex
61
Name for inward turning of the eyelid
entropion
62
The optic nerves from each eyeball cross at the ________.
optic chiasma
63
Name the test for Vertigo
Romberg
64
Why does the nurse put the tuning fork on the bone behind the ear
It identifies a problem with the normal pathways for sound to travel to your inner ear
65
What is a tophus?
hard nodule filled with uric acid crystals
66
What test is done to evaluate hearing loss: conductive vs sensorineural
rinne test or webers test
67
Right tympanic membrane, red and bulging with no light reflex, these are signs of ________.
acute otitis media
68
Term refers to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging
Presbycusis
69
When planning care for a client with an inner ear infection, the nurse will need to include interventions for which of the following potential problems?
loss of balance
70
What is the difference between weber's test and rinne's test?
weber: tuning fork at forehead rinne: tuning fork at mastoid process
71