Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Hyaline casts can be most difficult to distinguish from which of the following?

A

Mucous Threads

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2
Q

How many fields should be examined when quantitating urinary sediment constituents?

A

10

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3
Q

Numerous WBC’s and WBC’s casts were seen microscopically which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these results?

A

Renal inflammation or infection

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4
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe a urine that has a specific gravity of >1.010?

A

Hyposthenuric

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5
Q

Which of the following tests is an early indicator of renal disease?

A

Protein

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6
Q

What is the renal plasma threshold for glucose?

A

160 to 180 mg/dL

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7
Q

Which of the following is an artifact when observed in the urine microscopic exam?

A

N/A

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the size of the cells on the microscopic examination?

A

N/A

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9
Q

Which objective must be used to determine the presence of casts in the urine sediment?

A

Search with 10x

Identify with 40x

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10
Q

Match the secondary test with what substance it is confirming you may use the answer once more than once or not at all.

SSA
Clinitest
Icotest
Acetest

A

SSA - Protein
Clinitest - Glucose
Icotest - Bilirubin
Acetest - Acetone

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11
Q

What would the color and clarity of a specimen be if numerous RBC’s were seen microscopically?

A

Clear, Pink

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12
Q

In which of the following conditions causes nondiabetic ketonuria?

A

(1) Inability to use carbs
(2) Inadequate carb intake
(3) Loss of carbs

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13
Q

Place in order, the heme catabolism pathway.

A

Heme; Biliverdin; Bilirubin; Bilirubin-albumin complex; bilirubin glucuronides (conjugated); Urobilinogens; Urobilins

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14
Q

Which of the following is the main protein is detected on the reagent strip?

A

Albumin

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15
Q

All of the following can cause a negative result for nitrites EXCEPT?

A

Pyridium?

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16
Q

Which of the following tests is performed to differentiate between porphobilinogen and urobilinogen?

A

Watson-Schwartz Test

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17
Q

What two things are we trying to differentiate between if we add acetic acid to a urine specimen?

A

Neutrophils and Renal tubular Epithelial Cells

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18
Q

The presence of a few waxy casts is considered normal?

19
Q

Which of the following best describes why ‘Glitter cells’ would be seen microscopically in urine sediment?

A

Neutrophils; dilute urine (low SG)

20
Q

Although it is not found in the highest concentration, which of the following ketones present as a result of fatty acid metabolism is detected by the Legal’s test?

A

Acetoacetate and Acetone

21
Q

If a patient’s urine chemical analysis revealed positive bilirubin and normal urobilinogen, which of the following is indicated?

A

Hepatic; Hepatitis, Cirrhosis, Genetic disorders

22
Q

If acetic acid is added to urine sediment, which of the following will occur?

A

Red cells will be lysed

23
Q

What cast is typically see in an upper urinary tract infection?

A

RBC casts and WBC casts

24
Q

If fat is found within a cell, the cell is called which of the following?

25
What is the Specific Gravity seen in a patient who suffers from chronic renal failure and why?
Likely low, the kidneys loose their ability to concentrate urine.
26
The Chemstrip scavenger pad will remove which of the following interfering substances from the urine when testing for blood?
Ascorbic Acid
27
What is the principle of the blood reagent pad based on?
Pseudoperoxidase activity of the heme moiety.
28
What is the recommended volume of urine for the microscopic examination?
12 mL
29
Which condition promotes the formation of casts in the urine?
Urinary Stasis
30
The Chemstrip scavenger pad will remove which of the following interfering substances from the urine when testing for blood?
Ascorbic Acid
31
The only element in the urine sediment that is unique to the kidney is which of the following?
N/A
32
If a urine specimen is hypotonic, the red cells on the microscopic exam may appear as which of the following?
Crenated
33
Explain why the presence of broad and waxy casts in the urine sediment indicate renal failure?
Prolonged stasis and tubular obstruction.
34
Which of the following statements regarding quality control for urine test strips is true?
Performed daily; new container; new lot
35
Bence-Jones proteins would be seen elevated in which of the following types of proteinuria?
Pre-Renal
36
Which of the follow ranges of WBC’s is the considered to be an acceptable “normal” value when reported on the microscopic examination?
N/A
37
Fanconi syndrome is associated with what type of protenuria?
Tubular (Renal) Proteinuria
38
Which of the following formed elements will show a Maltese cross with polarizing microscopy?
Cholesterol
39
Identify the epithelial cell found most often in a urine microscopic exam.
Squamous
40
Which of the following tests does not have a negative reading on the reagent strip?
Urobilinogen; SG; pH
41
Match the crystal with its description or it’s common name. You may use an answer only once.
Calcium oxalate: envelope form Cystine: Hexagonal plates Ammonium Biurate: spheres with striations; "thorny apples" Cholesterol: large, flat, rectangular plates Triple Phosphate: "coffin lid"
42
Match the reagent strip principle with what reagent test pad is testing for. You may use an answer only once.
Methyl red - pH Dichlorbenzene diazonium tetrafluoroborate - bilirubin tetramethylbenzidine(Chemstrip) - Glucose Tetrabromphenol blue - Protein 1,2,3,4-tetra-hydrobenzoqunolin-3-01- albumin
43
Uric acid crystals are often compared to what shape when observed during the microscopic examination?
Diamond/football
44
The leukocyte esterase pad will detect which of the following?
Granulocytic Leukocytes