Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MLS 415 Urinalysis & B.F. > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Hyaline casts can be most difficult to distinguish from which of the following?

A

Mucous Threads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many fields should be examined when quantitating urinary sediment constituents?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Numerous WBC’s and WBC’s casts were seen microscopically which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these results?

A

Renal inflammation or infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe a urine that has a specific gravity of >1.010?

A

Hyposthenuric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following tests is an early indicator of renal disease?

A

Protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the renal plasma threshold for glucose?

A

160 to 180 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is an artifact when observed in the urine microscopic exam?

A

N/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the size of the cells on the microscopic examination?

A

N/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which objective must be used to determine the presence of casts in the urine sediment?

A

Search with 10x

Identify with 40x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Match the secondary test with what substance it is confirming you may use the answer once more than once or not at all.

SSA
Clinitest
Icotest
Acetest

A

SSA - Protein
Clinitest - Glucose
Icotest - Bilirubin
Acetest - Acetone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What would the color and clarity of a specimen be if numerous RBC’s were seen microscopically?

A

Clear, Pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In which of the following conditions causes nondiabetic ketonuria?

A

(1) Inability to use carbs
(2) Inadequate carb intake
(3) Loss of carbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Place in order, the heme catabolism pathway.

A

Heme; Biliverdin; Bilirubin; Bilirubin-albumin complex; bilirubin glucuronides (conjugated); Urobilinogens; Urobilins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is the main protein is detected on the reagent strip?

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

All of the following can cause a negative result for nitrites EXCEPT?

A

Pyridium?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following tests is performed to differentiate between porphobilinogen and urobilinogen?

A

Watson-Schwartz Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What two things are we trying to differentiate between if we add acetic acid to a urine specimen?

A

Neutrophils and Renal tubular Epithelial Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The presence of a few waxy casts is considered normal?

A

False

19
Q

Which of the following best describes why ‘Glitter cells’ would be seen microscopically in urine sediment?

A

Neutrophils; dilute urine (low SG)

20
Q

Although it is not found in the highest concentration, which of the following ketones present as a result of fatty acid metabolism is detected by the Legal’s test?

A

Acetoacetate and Acetone

21
Q

If a patient’s urine chemical analysis revealed positive bilirubin and normal urobilinogen, which of the following is indicated?

A

Hepatic; Hepatitis, Cirrhosis, Genetic disorders

22
Q

If acetic acid is added to urine sediment, which of the following will occur?

A

Red cells will be lysed

23
Q

What cast is typically see in an upper urinary tract infection?

A

RBC casts and WBC casts

24
Q

If fat is found within a cell, the cell is called which of the following?

A

N/A

25
Q

What is the Specific Gravity seen in a patient who suffers from chronic renal failure and why?

A

Likely low, the kidneys loose their ability to concentrate urine.

26
Q

The Chemstrip scavenger pad will remove which of the following interfering substances from the urine when testing for blood?

A

Ascorbic Acid

27
Q

What is the principle of the blood reagent pad based on?

A

Pseudoperoxidase activity of the heme moiety.

28
Q

What is the recommended volume of urine for the microscopic examination?

A

12 mL

29
Q

Which condition promotes the formation of casts in the urine?

A

Urinary Stasis

30
Q

The Chemstrip scavenger pad will remove which of the following interfering substances from the urine when testing for blood?

A

Ascorbic Acid

31
Q

The only element in the urine sediment that is unique to the kidney is which of the following?

A

N/A

32
Q

If a urine specimen is hypotonic, the red cells on the microscopic exam may appear as which of the following?

A

Crenated

33
Q

Explain why the presence of broad and waxy casts in the urine sediment indicate renal failure?

A

Prolonged stasis and tubular obstruction.

34
Q

Which of the following statements regarding quality control for urine test strips is true?

A

Performed daily; new container; new lot

35
Q

Bence-Jones proteins would be seen elevated in which of the following types of proteinuria?

A

Pre-Renal

36
Q

Which of the follow ranges of WBC’s is the considered to be an acceptable “normal” value when reported on the microscopic examination?

A

N/A

37
Q

Fanconi syndrome is associated with what type of protenuria?

A

Tubular (Renal) Proteinuria

38
Q

Which of the following formed elements will show a Maltese cross with polarizing microscopy?

A

Cholesterol

39
Q

Identify the epithelial cell found most often in a urine microscopic exam.

A

Squamous

40
Q

Which of the following tests does not have a negative reading on the reagent strip?

A

Urobilinogen; SG; pH

41
Q

Match the crystal with its description or it’s common name. You may use an answer only once.

A

Calcium oxalate: envelope form
Cystine: Hexagonal plates
Ammonium Biurate: spheres with striations; “thorny apples”
Cholesterol: large, flat, rectangular plates
Triple Phosphate: “coffin lid”

42
Q

Match the reagent strip principle with what reagent test pad is testing for. You may use an answer only once.

A

Methyl red - pH
Dichlorbenzene diazonium tetrafluoroborate - bilirubin
tetramethylbenzidine(Chemstrip) - Glucose
Tetrabromphenol blue - Protein
1,2,3,4-tetra-hydrobenzoqunolin-3-01- albumin

43
Q

Uric acid crystals are often compared to what shape when observed during the microscopic examination?

A

Diamond/football

44
Q

The leukocyte esterase pad will detect which of the following?

A

Granulocytic Leukocytes

MLS 415 Urinalysis & B.F. (37 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions