Final Flashcards
1
Q
_____ the national certification organization for R.T.s
A
ARRT
2
Q
what is ARRT
A
the national certification organization for R.T.s
3
Q
_____ provided additional support for venipuncture in our scope of practice
A
ACR
4
Q
____ state licensing agency for R.T.s
A
RHB
5
Q
What is the CDPH -RHB
what does it do
A
Californial Department of Public Health- Radiologic Health Branch
It is the state licensing for RT
6
Q
Define medical negligence
A
Failure do something that an ordinary person would do in a certain situation
7
Q
What does HIPAA stand for
A
Health Insurance of Portability and Accountability act of 1996
8
Q
Why is the standard of care used for
A
to measure the competence of an individual
9
Q
How much does HIPAA compliance cost
A
$66 billion
10
Q
What does ASRT stand for
and what does it do?
A
American Society of Radiologic Technologist
Professional organization for RTs
-It writes the scope of practice
11
Q
What are the three important standards/documents the ASRT writes for our profession?
A
- Scope of practice
- Ethical standards
- Practice standards
12
Q
What are the responsibilities of the CDPH-RHB?
A
- Provides RT license to legally work in California,
- Enforces laws and regulation
13
Q
What does JRCERT stand for?
What does it do ?
A
Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology
- writes educational standards to radiology schools?
14
Q
Who writes educational standards to radiology schools?
A
JRCERT
Joint Review Committee on Education and Radiologic Technology
15
Q
Define scope of practice
A
Series of guidelines set forth what professionals should or should not do.
16
Q
Which one of the 4 HIPAA primary objectives are we most concerned with?
A
4: Guarantee security & privacy of health information
17
Q
Define liability
A
State of being susceptible, easily affected
18
Q
____ is the term for the State of being susceptible, easily affected
A
Liability
19
Q
Define pharmacology
A
Study of drugs in living things
20
Q
___ is the study of drugs in living things
A
pharmacology
21
Q
Define legend drugs
A
Medications that require prescriptions
22
Q
Medications that require prescriptions are known as_____
A
Legend drugs
23
Q
What are the items a valid prescription must contain?
A
*7 components:
- Pt. name
- Drug name
- Dosage
- Dosage form
- Route of administration
- Date of order
- Prescriber signature
24
Q
Out of the 5 scheduled controlled substance classifications, which ones are illegal
A
Scheduled C-1
25
List the drug reference tools?
1. Physician Drug Reference (PDR)
2. American Hospital formulary service Drug information
3. Drugs in pregnancy & lactation
4. Facts & Comparisons
5. Handbook on injectable drug
6. Drug interaction facts / Hanstens drug interactions
26
What is the DEA?
What does it do?
Drug enforcement agency
It enforced controlled substance laws and regulations
27
____ is a legal medical record belonging to the hospital
Patients Chart
28
What are we responsible for when charting?
* Radiologic procedures
* Informed consents
* Patient hx
* Pt. assessment
* Medications given
29
What is a brand name?
List some examples:
This name is given to the drug by the particular manufacturer
1. Tylenol
2. Motrin
30
Is contrast a legend drug?
Yes , because it requires a prescription
31
What are limitations of verbal orders?
* They do not constitute a valid prescription
* must be signed by prescriber or else it is not valid
*
32
____ controlled substance category are legal for prescription but have the highest potential for abuse
*list an example
Schedule C-II drugs
*Morphine
33
A double lock and key is required for which scheduled controlled substance?
Schedule C II and above
34
All drugs are regulated by the FDA except?
Herbal and dietary supplements
35
Name the drug reference that is helpful in determining whether a drug-drug interaction may occur when combination therapy is used
Drug Interaction Facts and Hansten’s Drug Interactions
36
____ reference tool is Recommended in any practice that deals with pregnant patients or women who breastfeed
Drugs in pregancy and lactation
37
What is Drugs in pregnancy and lactation reference tool
used with pregnant patients or woman who breastfeed
38
What is the chemical name for Gastroview
Diatrizoate Meglumine
and
Diatrizoate Sodium
39
Define pharmacokinetics
The process of how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated from the body
40
The process of how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated from the body
pharmacokinetics
41
What factors affect absorption?
1. Surface area
2. Blood flow
3. Dosage form
4. Concentration of drug
5. Lipophulicity f drug
42
Which organ is primarily responsible for metabolism?
the liver
43
What occurs when drug metabolism is delayed?
Cumulative drug doses can lead to overdose effects
44
What are enteric coated tables
* Tablets designed to pass through gastric area and release active ingredients into small intestine
* prevents gastric upset
45
Define metabolism
Chemically changes a drug into a metabolite that can be excreted from the body
46
____ Chemically changes a drug into a metabolite that can be excreted from the body
metabolism
AKA: biotransformation
47
What is the term for the area of pharmacology that deals with drug administration?
Biopharmaceutics
48
Biopharmaceutics
area of pharmacology that deals with drug administration?
49
Define vehicle
a substance into which a drug is compounded for initial delivery into the body.
50
a substance into which a drug is compounded for initial delivery into the body.
vehicle
51
What are the dosage forms available for drugs `
Solid
Liquid
Gas
or any combo of 2 of them
52
____ consists of thin coating of material other than sugar; serves the same function as a sugar but is less expensive to manufacture
Film-coated tablets
53
What is a film coated tablet
thin coating of material other than sugar;
serves the same function as a sugar but is less expensive to manufacture
54
____ is drugs given by injection
List examples
Parenteral drug administration
*requires a drug prescription
1. Subcutaneous
2. Intradermal
3. Intramuscular
4. IV
55
The body has 2 barriers to distribution , what are they
1. Blood brain barrier
| 2. Placental barrier
56
Name 2 properties that affect drug absorption in the body
1. Surface area
| 2. Blood flow to site
57
Define pharmacodynamics
The study of how the effects of a drug are manifested
58
The study of how the effects of a drug are manifested
pharmacodynamics
59
____ enhances the response
agonist
60
Define half-life
time required for current serum drug concentration to decline by 50% (1/2)
61
time required for current serum drug concentration to decline by 50% (1/2)
half-life
62
Define synergism
when two drugs act together to give a pharmacologic response that is greater than the additive response expected
63
when two drugs act together to give a pharmacologic response that is greater than the additive response expected
synergism
64
Define efficacy
degree to which a drug is able to produce the desired effect
65
degree to which a drug is able to produce the desired effect
efficacy
66
Define allergy reaction
an immune-mediated response by the body against the drug
67
What do antagonists do?
inhibits or supress the body’s natural response to stimulation
68
an immune-mediated response by the body against the drug
allergy reaction
69
when do drug enzyme interaction occur
a drug resembles the substrate to which a enzyme usually attaches
70
Nonspecific drug interactions
Interactions that does not meet the criteria of Drug enzyme interaction or Drug receptor interaction
71
Define potency
the relative concentration required to produce the effect
72
the relative concentration required to produce the effect
potency
73
Therapeutic index consists of what two ratios
Lethal dose
| & effective dose
74
Side effects vs. adverse effects
side effect is a predictable action on body systems other than the action intended where as adverse effects are ANY unwanted effects
75
True or false: you can over dose on water?
True
76
____ Occurs when two or more drugs act in unison to produce additive agonist, synergistic, or antagonist responses
Drug-drug interactions
77
_____ are lipid lowering medications
Statins
78
What drug classification to water pills fall under
diuretics
79
What does Fentanyl do?
It is a narcotic that decreases pain perception
80
What symptoms do antipsychotic medications treat
1. Delusions
2. Mania
3. Bipolar affective disorder
81
Chemotherapy agents are toxic to cells in what stage?
growing stage
82
Metformin and Glucophage- what drug classification are they?
Antiodiabetic medicaiton
83
Aspirin is what drug classification?
Antiplatelet medications
84
Name one antihypertensive medication
Lisinopril
85
Name a diuretic medication
hydrochlorathazide
86
Name a thrombolytic medication
Alteplase
87
Name an antihistamine medication
benadryl
88
Name 2 antiseizure (anticonvulsant) medications
Clonazapam
and
Diazepam
89
Name one antibiotic medication
Penicillin
90
Do antiviral medications kill the virus?
No they do not
91
Name an antifungul medication
Clotrimazole
92
Clotrimazole is an example of which drug classification
Antifungal
93
What does ROCM stand for?
Radioopaque contrast media
94
Define osmosis
movement of water across a semipermeable membrane
95
Intravascular ROCM have ____ lipid solubility
poor
96
Aqueous solutions, what are they and when do we use them?
They are enteral ROCM
Used for GI or cardiac shadow exams when barium sulfate is contraidicated
97
Name the three types of paramagnetic contrast
1. Iron
2. Manganese
3. Gadolinium
98
Define osmolarity
of miliosmolers per liter of solution
* Concentration of molecules per volume
99
What are ferumoxides?
Compounds that contain iron particles
* iron from paramagnetic)
100
Name 2 low-contrast tissues that we used ROCM to visualize on x-ray
Kidneys
| GI tract
101
High kV vs. low kV techniques, which are used for certain anatomy?
* Low kV techniques (<80 kVp) for vasculature and GU tract
| * High kV techniques (>90 kVp) for GI tract, to see structures and walls
102
Define osmolality
of miliosmoler per kg. of water
103
_____ is highly osmotic
ROCM
104
Name the manganese compound (brand name is ok) paramagnetic contrast
Gadolinium ( Omniscan)
105
Serum iodine concentration must be ____ to show vascular lumen
280-370 mg/mL
106
what is the only low osmolality ionic ROCM in book
Hexabrix
107
Drug effects can be :
1. ___
2. ___
3. ____
1. Therapeutic
2. Diagnostic
3. Adverse
108
IV ROCM must be injected at a rate ____than blood flow
higher
109
Vasovagal reactions are caused by which nerve?
vagus
110
Define anaphylaxis
immediately life-threatening, systemic hypersensitivity reaction
111
What is the name of the contrast that can cause fecaliths?
Barium Sulfate
112
Define mast cells
Connective tissue cells that contain the chemical histamine
113
Define oliguric
Oliguric- urine output less than or equal to 400 mL/day
114
What are the reactions of hyperosmolar ROCM
causes osmotic shifts that activate chemoreceptors and baroreceptors, which can cause a vasovagal reaction
115
High osmolality ROCM can cause the blood to ____, low osmolality ROCM does not appear to have this effect
Thin
116
Half-normal saline is ____%
0.45 %
117
What does ARF stand for?
Acute renal failure
118
What is Combivir?
it is a chemoprophylaxis medication that must be administered within 24 hrs of contact if exposed to HIV
119
Define claustrophobia
Psychological condition that consists of irrational fear, leading to avoidance
120
What is the difference between general anesthia and conscious sedation
A higher dose is required for general anesthesia than for conscious sedation.
Therefor general anesthesia requires a mechanical ventilator because a high dose can cause a patient to stop breathing
121
What is Flumazenil?
it is the reversal drug for antianxiety drugs
122
What is the most widely used benzodiazepine for conscious sedation?
midazolam
123
What is naloxone (what is it used for)?
it is the reversal drug for opiates
124
Define conscious sedation
it is Drug-induced relaxation allowing patient to tolerate unpleasant procedures
125
Define anxiety
Unpleasant state of inner turmoil, often accompanied by nervous behavior
126
Unpleasant state of inner turmoil, tension, often accompanied by nervous behavior forwarning danger
anxiety
127
Name 2 types of emergency life-saving equipment found in a crash cart
1. IV equipment
| 2. Oygen & pulse oximeter
128
what does GABA stand for
Gamm aminobutyric acid
129
What are the three drugs that fall under barbiturates?
thiopental
methohexital
phenobarbital
130
_____ Have conscious sedation action that is longer acting than barbiturates
benzodiazepine
131
Name one of the three main opiate analgesics used to decrease pain perception
Morphine
Fentynal
Merpedine
132
Name one adverse effect of opiates
Constipation
133
Fentanyl is what kind of medication?
Opiate
