Final coaching questions Flashcards by Sabrina Halili

Contractions in the heart are controlled via a well-regulated electrical signaling cascade
that originates in pacemaker cells in the
a. Sinus Node
b. Sinoatrial Node
c. AV Node
d. A and b

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Which of the following describe the tricuspid valve?
a. prevents backflow of blood from the RV to the RA during ventricular systole
b. prevents backflow of blood from the RV to the RA ventricle during ventricular diastole
c. prevents backflow of blood from the RA to the RV during ventricular systole
d. prevents backflow of blood from the RA to the RV during ventricular diastole

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It occurs at the beginning of ventricular systole
a. S1
b. S2
c. S3
d. S4

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All of the following describes the period of rapid filling of the ventricles, Except
a. The semilunar valves are closed, the AV valves are opened
b. The turbulent flow of blood into the ventricles produces a third heart sound
c. Continuous ventricular filling occurs during the middle one third of diastole
d. The ventricles relax, but ventricular volume does not change

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During exercise, the heart rate can increase to 190 bpm, and the stroke volume can
increase to 115 mL. Consequently, cardiac output is
a. 20L/min
b. 22L/min
c. 30L/min
d. 33L/min

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If the cardiac output is 7.2L/min and the heart rate is 80 bpm, then the stroke volume
is
a. 70 ml
b. 100 ml
c. 90 ml
d. 80 ml

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All of the following are true regarding ECG, Except
a. Depolarization of the atria produces the P wave
b. Depolarization of the ventricles produces the QRS complexes
c. Repolarization of the atria occurs during QRS complexes
d. Repolarization of the ventricles produces the T wave
e. NOTA

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All of the following are Modifiable Risk Factors for CAD, EXCEPT
a. Tobacco Smoking
b. Response to stress
c. Physical Inactivity
d. Cholesterol

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Bluish discoloration of the skin and nailbeds of fingers and toes along with palms. This
term is called_____.
a. Liver disease
b. Cyanosis
c. Hypothyroidism carotenemia
d. Hypothyroidism

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A patient with left sided CHF II, is referred for physical therapy. During, exercises, the
patient can be expected to exhibit______________.
a. Anorexia, nausea with abdominal pain and distention
b. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness
c. Severe, uncomfortable chest pain with shortness of breath
d. Weight gain with dependent edema

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Phase 1 Level 1, except
a. Evaluation and patient education
b. Arms supported for every meal
c. Bed exercises
d. 1-1.5 mets
e. NOTA

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All of the following describes the heart EXCEPT
a. a mass of tissue that extends from the sternum to the vertebral column between the two
lungs
b. Its more pointed apex is directed toward the left hip
c. It is bordered inferiorly by the stomach
d. posteriorly by the vertebral column and ribs
e. laterally by the pleural cavity (which contains the lungs).

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Patient B (without risk factors) is 70yo. The computed training heart rate (bpm), using Age-
adjusted predicted maximum heart rate formula would be__________

a. 90-112
b. 90
c. 150
d. 150-290

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The Aorta leaves the heart via the______
a. Right Auricle
b. Left Ventricle
c. Right Ventricle
d. Left Auricle

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The Conducting Portion structures are well adapted for the movement, cleaning, warming,
and humidification of air. All of the following are part of the conducting zone except:
a. Terminal bronchioles
b. bronchioles
c. Larynx
d. Alveolar sac

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What fissure/s can be found in the right lung?
a. Horizontal Fissure
b. Oblique Fissure
c. Both a and b
d. NOTA

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A part of the respiratory center in the pons that continually sends inhibitory nerve
impulses to the inspiratory area, limiting inhalation and facilitating exhalation
a. Pneumotaxic Area
b. Apneustic Area
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

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auscultation site for bronchial
a. trachea
b. over manubrium, between the clavicles or between the scapulae
c. over large airways near sternum and between the scapulae
d. over peripheral lung tissue

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All of the following describes the primary muscle of inspiration, EXCEPT
I. Innervated by the phrenic nerve ( C3- C5)
II. When a person breathes in, the central portion of this muscle descends
III. The primary muscle is diaphragm
IV. When a person breathes in, it elevates and depress the ribs during respiration
V. Innervated by the phrenic nerve ( C5- C6)
a. I, II, III
b. IV, V
c. II, V
d. II, IV, V

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Which of the following describes the continuous breath sounds?
a. most prominent during inspiration
b. caused by vibrations of air passing through the narrowed airways
c. present in CHF Atelectasis
d. caused by the sound of gas bubbling through secretions

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All of the following conditions contributes to ipsilateral shifting except
a. Pneumonectomy
b. Lobectomy
c. Hemothorax
d. NOTA

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Which of the following best describes the Diaphragmatic Breathing Exercises?
a. This breathing pattern often is adopted spontaneously by patients with COPD to deal
with episode of dyspnea
b. This breathing pattern is for chest breathers
c. This breathing pattern prevents airway collapse
d. This breathing pattern is also known as the frog breathing

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Which of the following describe the Tidal Volume?
I. This volume is the amount of air left in the lungs after max expiration
II. This is normal inspiration followed by a normal expiration
III. Normal volume is 500 mL
IV. Normal volume is 1,500mL
a. I,II,III
b. I,IV
c. II,III
d. II,IV

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Caused by repeated damage to bronchial walls. The resultant destruction and bronchial dilation
reduce bronchial wall movement so that secretions cannot be removed effectively from the
lungs.

a. Bronchiectasis
b. Emphysema
c. Asthma
d. Chronic Bronchitis

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25. ph= 7.31 pC02= 50 hc03=31 given the following values the patient has: a. partially compensated respiratory acidosis b. partially compensated respiratory alkalosis c. uncompensated respiratory acidosis d. uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

1. THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OF THE PELVIS: I. SUPPORTING AND TRANSFERING OF THE HAT TO THE FEMUR IN STANDING IS ONE OF THE KINESIOLOGICAL FUNCTIONS OF THE PELVIS. II. IT IS MADE UP OF A RIGHT AND LEFT INNOMINATE BONES WHICH ARE JOINED TO THE SACRUM POSTERIORLY III. THE ILIUM, ISCHIUM AND PUBIS JOIN TOGETHER TO CONTRIBUTE TO THE FORMATION OF THE ACETABULUM. IV. THE BODY CF THE ILIUM CONTRIBUTES APPROXIMATELY 20% TO THE FORMATION OF THE ACETABULUM A. ALL OF THESE B. I, II, III C. I AND III D. II AND IV E. ONLY IV

2. THE FRONTAL PLANE ANGULATION OR THE NECK-SHAFT ANGLE OF THE FEMUR TYPICALLY SEEN IN ADULTS AT 125 DEGREES. AN EXCESSIVE ANGLE OF INCLINATION BEYOND 130 DEGREES IS CALLED COXA VALGA THIS RESULTS TO THESE CONSEQUENCES, EXCEPT: A. DISLOCATION OR SUBLUXATION B. THE LIMB MAY APPEAR LONGER C. REDUCTION OF THE MOMENT ARM LENGTH OF THE HIP ABDUCTOR MUSCLES CONTRIBUTING TO HIP ABDUCTOR WEAKNESS D. INCREASED LEVERAGE OF THE MUSCLES THAT ATTACH TO THE GREATER TROCHANTER E. NONE OF THESE

3. CONDITIONS RELATED TO AN INCREASE IN FEMORAL ANTEVERSION. I. INCREASE IN HIP MEDIAL ROTATION II. INCREASE IN HIP LATERAL ROTATION III. IN - TOEING IV LIMITATION OF HIP LATERAL ROTATION V. OUT-TOEING A. ALL OF THESE B. I, II, III C. I, III AND V D. II, IV AND V E. I, III AND IV

4. THE HIP JOINT OR ACETABULOFEMORAL ARTICULATION IS А DIARTHRODIAL TRIAXIAL JOINT WITH THREE DEGREES OF FREEDOM; THE CLOSE – PACKED POSITION OF THE HIP DOES NOT INCLUDE: A. EXTENSION B. ABDUCTION C. MEDIAL ROTATION D. INTERNAL ROTATION E. NONE OF THESE

5. STRONG LIGAMENTS REINFORCE THE HIP JOINT CAPSULE ON ALL SIDES AND ARE NAMED ACCORDING TO THEIR ATTACHMENT SITES. WHICH OF THESE LIGAMENTS IS/ARE LAX WHEN THE HIP IS FLEXED? A. ILIOFEMORAL LIGAMENT B. PUBOFEMORAL LIGAMENT C. ISCHIOFEMORAL LIGAMENT D. ALL OF THESE E. NONE OF THESE

6. THE ILIOPSOAS IS THE STRONGEST AND MOST CONSISTENT HIP FLEXOR. FUNCTIONS OF THIS MUSCLE INCLUDE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING? A. TILTS THE PELVIS ANTERIORLY AND FLEXES THE PELVIS ON THE FEMUR B. TILTS THE PELVIS POSTERIORLY AND FLEXES THE PELVIS ON THE FEMUR C. TILTS THE PELVIS ANTERIORLY AND EXTENDS THE PELVIS ON THE FEMUR D. TILTS THE PELVIS POSTERIORLY AND EXTENDS THE PELVIS ON THE FEMUR

7. THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE ABOUT THE GLUTEUS MAXIMUS, EXCEPT: A. IT WORKS AS A FORCE COUPLE WITH THE ABDOMINAL MUSCLES TO POSTERIORLY TILT THE PELVIS ON THE FEMUR AND FLATTEN THE LUMBAR SPINE, DECREASING LUMBAR LORDOSIS B. IT WORKS WITH THE THREE HAMSTRING MUSCLES TO EXTEND THE HIP C. IT IS THE MOST POWERFUL HIP EXTENSOR, REGARDLESS OF KNEE POSITION D. IN THE PRONE POSITION WITH THE KNEE IN FLEXION, STRONG ACTION IS REQUIRED OF THE GLUTEUS MAXIMUS TO MOVE THE HIP INTO EXTENSION E. NONE OF THESE

8. ACTIONS OF THE GLUTEUS MEDIUS INCLUDE: I. HIP FLEXION II. HIP ABDUCTION III. HIP MEDIAL ROTATION IV. HIP EXTENSION A. ALL OF THESE B. I, II, III C. I AND III D. II AND IV E. ONLY IV

THE FEMORAL TRIANGLE IS A TRIANGULAR DEPRESSED AREA SITUATEDD IN THE UPPER PART OF THE MEDIAL ASPECT OF THE THIGH JUST BELOW THE INGUINAL LIGAMENT. WHICH IS FALSE ABOUT THIS TRIANGLE? A. THE MEDIAL BOUNDARY IS FORMED B Y THE ADDUCTOR LONGUS B. THE SUPERIOR BOUNDARY IS FORMED BY THE INGUINAL LIGAMENT C. THE LATERAL BOUNDARY IS FORMED BY THE SARTORIUS MUSCLE D. THE FLOOR IS FORMED FROM MEDIAL TO LATERAL BY THE ILIOPSOAS, PECTINEUS, AND THE ADDUCTOR LONGUS E. IT CONTAINS THE FEMORAL NERVE, FEMORAL ARTERY, FEMORAL VEIN AND THE DEEP INGUINAL LYMPH NODES

10. THE KNEE IS A COMPLEX JOINT WITH THREE BONES, TWO DEGREES OF FREEDOM OF MOTION AND THREE ARTICULATING SURFACES. ALTHOUGH IT IS THE LARGEST JOINT IN THE BODY, IT IS AMONG THE MORE FREQUENTLY INJURED JOINTS WITHIN ATHLETIC AND INDUSTRIAL ENVIRONMENT. A. FIRST STATEMENT IS CORRECT, SECOND STATEMENT IS INCORRECT B. FIRST STATEMENT IS INCORRECT, SECOND STATEMENT IS CORRECT C. BOTH STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT D. BOTH STATEMENTS ARE INCORRECT

C. BOTH STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT

11. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A FUNCTION OF THE PATELLA? A. CONTRIBUTE TO OVERALL STABILITY OF THE KNEE B. INCREASE THE TORQUE OF THE KNEE EXTENSORS C. PROVIDE A SMOOTH GLIDING MECHANISM FOR THE QUADRICEPS MUSCLES AND TENDON D. CENTRALIZE THE FORCES OF THE FOUR QUADRICEPS MUSCLES INTO ONE CONCERTED DIRECTION OF PULL E. TO INCREASE COMPRESSION AND FRICTION FORCES DURING ACTIVITIES SUCH AS DEEP KNEE BENDS

12. THE MENISCI ARE ATTACHED TO THE TIBIA TO DEEPEN THE JOINT’S SOCKET, IMPROVING THE JOINT’S CONGRUENCY. WHICH OF THESE ATTACHMENTS TO THE MENISCI IS INCORRECT? A. DEEP FIBERS OF THE MCL ATTACH TO THE MEDIAL MENISCUS B. THE TENDON OF THE SEMIMEMBRANOSUS MUSCLE SENDS FIBERS TO THE POSTERIOR EDGE OF THE MEDIAL MENISCUS C. THE MENISCOFEMORAL LIGAMENT EXTENDS FORM THE MEDIAL MENISCUS TO THE INSIDE OF THE MEDIAL CONDYLE NEAR THE POSTERIOR CRUCIATE LIGAMENT D. THE POPLITEUS MUSCLE SENDS FIBERS TO THE POSTERIOR EDGE OF THE LATERAL MENISCUS E. EACH MENISCUS IS ANCHORED ALONG ITS LATERAL RIM TO THE TIBIA AND JOINT CAPSULE BY A LOOSE CORONARY LIGAMENT

13. TRUE ABOUT THE COLLATERAL LIGAMENTS OF THE KNEE: A. THEY PROVIDE STABILITY IN AN ANTERO-POSTERIOR DIRECTION B. THEY ARE INTRACAPSULAR AND TAUT IN FULL KNEE EXTENSION C. THE MEDIAL COLLATERAL LIGAMENT IS THE PRIMARY STRUCTURE PROTECTING THE KNEE FROM VALGUS FORCE PARTICULARLY IN FLEXION D. THE LATERAL COLLATERAL LIGAMENT ASSISTS IN PROVIDING VARUS STRESS PROTECTION MORE IN FULL EXTENSION E. ALL OF THESE

14. WHICH OF THESE STATEMENTS IS INCORRECT ABOUT THE PCL? A. THE PCL IS THICKER AND STRONGER COMPARED TO THE ACL B. THE PCL IS INTRACAPSULAR BUT EXTRASYNOVIAL C. IN CLOSED CHAIN MOTION IT HELPS PREVENT ANTERIOR DISPLACEMENT OF THE FEMORAL CONDYLES ON THE TIBIAL CONDYLES D. SEVERANCE OF THE PCL ALLOWS POSTERIOR DISPLACEMENT OF THE FEMUR ON THE TIBIA E. NONE OF THESE

15. TERMINAL ROTATION OF THE KNEE OR THE SCREW HOME MECHANISM IS PURELY A MECHANICAL EVENT THAT OCCURS WITH BOTH PASSIVE AND ACTIVE KNEE EXTENSION AND CANNOT BE PRODUCED OR PREVENTED VOLUNTARILY. IN RISING FROM A CHAIR, TERMINAL ROTATION OCCURS IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING? A. MEDIAL ROTATION OF THE FEMUR, CKC B. MEDIAL ROTATION OF THE TIBIA, CKC C. LATERAL ROTATION OF THE FEMUR, CKC D. LATERAL ROTATION OF THE TIBIA, OKC E. LATERAL ROTATION OF THE FEMUR, OKC

16. TRUE ABOUT Q ANGLE, EXCEPT: A. WOMEN HAVE BEEN SHOWN TO HAVE CONSISTENTLY LARGER Q ANGLES THAN MEN B. Q ANGLES MAY BE LARGER IN THOSE INDIVIDUALS WHO EXPERIENCE PATELLOFEMORAL PAIN SYNDROME C. IT IS THE ANGLE CREATED BY DRAWING A LINE FROM THE ASIS TO THE CENTER OF THE PATELLA AND EXTENDING ANOTHER INTERSECTING LINE FROM THE TIBIAL TUBEROSITY TO THE CENTER OF THE PATELLA UPWARD D. AN EXCESSIVE Q ANGLE IS REFERRED TO AS GENU VARUM OR BOWLEG E. NONE OF THESE

17. THE QUADRICEPS FEMORIS MUSCLE GROUP EXTENDS THE KNEE AND INCLUDES FOUR MUSCLES. HOWEVER, THERE IS A PORTION OF THE MUSCLE THAT DOES NOT FUNCTION IN KNEE EXTENSION BUT SERVES ONLY AS A PATELLAR STABILIZER. IDENTIFY THIS MUSCLE. A. RECTUS FEMORIS B. VASTUS LATERALIS C. VASTUS MEDIALIS LONGUS D. VASTUS MEDIALIS OBLIQUE E. VASTUS INTERMEDIUS

18. TRUE ABOUT THE HAMSTRING MUSCLE TORQUE, EXCEPT: I. THE GREATEST TORQUE ORCUS WHEN MUSCLES ARE ELONGATED AT BOTH THE HIP AND KNEE (HIP FLEXION AND KNEE EXTENSION) II. THE LOWEST TORQUE OCCURS WHEN THE MUSCLE CONTRACT IN ITS SHORTENED POSITION OF THE HIP EXTENSION AND KNEE FLEXION III. THE PEAK TORQUE OF THE QUADRICEPS MUSCLES ARE GREATER THAN THOSE OF THE KNEE FLEXORS IV. KNEE FLEXION COMBINED WITH HIP FLEXION RESULTS IN FAVORABLE LENGTH-TENSION RELATIONS AND EFFICIENCY OF TORQUE PRODUCTION OF HAMSTRINGS A. ALL OF THESE B. I, II AND III C. I AND III D. II AND IV E. NONE OF THESE

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS DOES NOT APPLY CORRECTLY TO THE PRETIBIAL GROUP? A. THE TIBIALIS ANTERIOR IS THE PRIMARY DORSIFLEXOR OF THE ANKLE B. THE TIBIALIS ANTERIOR IS ALSO AN INVERTER OF THE FOOT AND PLAYS AN IMPORTANT ROLE DURING THE STANCE PHASE OF GAIT C. THE PRETIBIAL GROUP ALSO MOVES THE FOOT AND TOES IN MANY IMPORTANT OPEN CHAIN MOTIONS D. OPEN CHAIN MOTIONS OF THE FOOT REQUIRE LITTLE MUSCLE FORCE BECAUSE THE MUSCLES HAVE GOOD LEVERAGE E. NONE OF THESE

E. NONE OF THESE

THE GASTROCNEMIUS AND SOLEUS BELONG TO THE SUPERFICIAL POSTERIOR GROUP OF THE LEG. THESE TWO MUSCLES TOGETHER ARE ALSO CALLED THE TRICEPS SURAE. THE FOLLOWING DESCRIPTIONS ARE CORRECT, EXCEPT: A. THE SOLEUS HAS BEEN FOUND TO CONTAIN A HIGHER PROPORTION OF SLOW TWITCH MUSCLE FIBERS THAN THE GASTROCNEMIUS B. THE SOLEUS IS MORE CONCERNED WITH STABILIZATION AT THE ANKLE AND CONTROL OF POSTURAL SWAY THAN IS THE GASTROCNEMIUS C. THE GASTROCNEMIUS AND SOLEUS ARE BOTH INVOLVED IN ACTIVITIES REQUIRING FORCEFUL PLANTARFLEXION OF THE ANKLE D. WHEN THE GASTROCNEMIUS-SOLEUS GROUP IS PARALYZED, THE INDIVIDUAL CANNOT RISE ON TIPTOES AND GAIT IS SEVERELY AFFECTED E. NONE OF THESE

E. NONE OF THESE

21. WHICH OF THESE LIGAMENTS STABILIZE THE ANKLE DURING EVERSION TO PROTECT AGAINST VALGUS STRESSES TO THE TALOCRURAL, SUBTALAR, AND TALONAVICULAR JOINTS? A. ANTERIOR TIBIOFIBULAR LIGAMENTS B. TIBIOCALCANEAL LIGAMENTS C. TIBIONAVICULAR LIGAMENTS D. POSTERIOR TIBIOFIBULAR LIGAMENTS E. ALL OF THESE

E. ALL OF THESE

22. TIBIOFIBULAR LATERAL ROTATION HAPPENS IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FOOT MOTIONS? A. SUPINATION, WEIGHT-BEARING B. SUPINATION, NON-WEIGHT BEARING C. PRONATION, WEIGHT BEARING D. PRONATION, NON-WEIGHT BEARING

A. SUPINATION, WEIGHT-BEARING

23. THE CALCANEUS IS A BONY COMPONENT OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARCHES OF THE FOOT? A. MEDIAL LONGITUDINAL ARCH B. LATERAL LONGITUDINAL ARCH C. TRANSVERSE ARCH D. A AND B E. ALL OF THESE

D. A AND B

24. THE FOOT HAS THE SAME INTRINSIC MUSCLES AS THE HAND. THE DESCRIPTIONS GIVEN BELOW ARE CORRECT ABOUT THE INSTRINSIC MUSCLES, EXCEPT: A. FOUR LAYERS OF INTRINSIC MUSCLES ARE ON THE PLANTAR SURFACE OF THE FOOT B. THE EXTENSOR DIGITORUM BREVIS AND EXTENSION HALLUCIS BREVIS ARE THE ONLY INTRINSIC MUSCLES ON THE DORSUM OF THE FOOT C. THE INTRINSIC MUSCLES ARE USED MAINLY FOR STABILITY OR BALANCE AND FOR PROVIDING SUPPORT AND ASSISTANCE TO THE FOOT DURING ACTIVITY D. THE NERVE SUPPLY OF ALL THE INTRINSIC MUSCLES OF THE FOOT COME FROM THE LATERAL PLANTAR NERVE, A TERMINAL BRANCH OF THE TIBIAL NERVE E. NONE OF THESE

D. THE NERVE SUPPLY OF ALL THE INTRINSIC MUSCLES OF THE FOOT COME FROM THE LATERAL PLANTAR NERVE, A TERMINAL BRANCH OF THE TIBIAL NERVE

25. IN THIS FOOT DEFORMITY THE MEDIAL BORDER OF THE FOOT IS OFF THE GROUND SO THE BODY WEIGHT IS TRANSFERRED TO THE OUTSIDE OF THE FOOT A. PES CAVUS B. CLUBFOOT C. PES PLANUS D. HALLUX VALGUS E. A AND B

E. A AND B

1. The fluids outside and inside the cell is important to maintain the homeostasis. Which of the following is true about extracellular fluids and intracellular fluids? a. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, chloride ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and phosphate ions b. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, sodium. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and phosphate ions c. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, phosphate ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and chloride ions d. NOTA

c. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, phosphate ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and chloride ions

Which of the following describes the positive feedback? a. Most common feedback in the body b. this type of feedback triggers when some factors of the body is deficient or excessive c. Vicious cycle d. changes that return the factor toward certain mean value

c. Vicious cycle

3. All of the following describe the organelles, Except a. Little organs in the cytoplasm b. subcellular structures specialized for specific functions such as manufacturing proteins or producing ATP c. Organelles can be thought of as individual workstations within the cell, each responsible for performing specific tasks d. NOTA

d. NOTA

4. Simple Diffusion and facilitated diffusion share which of the following characteristics? a. Can be blocked by specific inhibitors b. Do not require ATP c. Require transport protein d. Saturation kinetics

b. Do not require ATP

5. Which of the following describes the diffusion? I. Diffusion through the cell membrane is divided into two subtypes, called simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion II. Simple Diffusion means that kinetic movement of molecules or ions through a membrane opening or through intermolecular spaces without any interaction with carrier proteins in the membrane III. Facilitated diffusion requires interaction of a carrier protein. IV. The carrier protein in facilitated diffusion aids passage of the molecules or ions through the membrane by binding chemically with them. a. I,II,III b. I,II,III c. I,II,III,IV d. Only I

c. I,II,III,IV

6. _________ migration of each set of chromosomes is complete. The chromosomes unravel to become less distinct chromatin threads. The nuclear envelope forms from the endoplasmic reticulum. The nucleoli form, and cytokinesis continues to produce two cells. a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Telophase

d. Telophase

7. All of the following describes about the Blood, EXCEPT: a. Type of connective tissue consisting of a liquid matrix containing cells and cell fragments b. Plasma is the liquid matrix c. The formed elements make up 45% of the total blood volume d. Blood makes up about 55% of the total weight of the body.

d. Blood makes up about 55% of the total weight of the body.

8. Erythropoietin a. inhibits the production of red blood cells. b. production increases when blood oxygen decreases. c. production is inhibited by testosterone. d. All of these are correct.

b. production increases when blood oxygen decreases.

9. Whenever a vessel is severed or ruptured, hemostasis is achieved by several mechanisms. All of the following describes the hemostasis, EXCEPT a. Vascular constriction b. Formation of a platelet plug formation c. In this mechanism there is activation of all clotting factors d. NOTA

d. NOTA

10. Each muscle fiber contains several hundred to several thousands_________ a. myofilament b. myofibrils c. muscle fiber d. fascicle

b. myofibrils

11. All of the following are true about the skeletal muscle fiber, EXCEPT a. A cross-bridge forms when the myosin binds to the actin. b. muscle fiber is a single cell consisting of a plasma membrane (sarcolemma), cytoplasm (sarcoplasm), several nuclei, and myofibrils c. Sarcomeres are bound by Z disks that hold actin myofilaments. d. NOTA

d. NOTA

12. Which of the following describe the muscle fibers? a. Slow twitch fibers are small rich in myoglobin and responsible for maintaining the posture. Fast oxidative glycolytic fibers use aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration in creating ATP. Fast Glycolytic fibers are large in diameter and resistance to fatigue is low. b. Slow twitch fibers are small rich in myoglobin and responsible for sprinting and walking. Fast oxidative glycolytic fibers use aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration in creating ATP. Fast Glycolytic fibers are large in diameter and resistance to fatigue is low. c. Slow twitch fibers are small rich in myoglobin and responsible for maintaining the posture. Fast oxidative glycolytic fibers use aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration in creating ATP. Fast Glycolytic fibers are large in diameter and resistance to fatigue is high. d. NOTA

a. Slow twitch fibers are small rich in myoglobin and responsible for maintaining the posture. Fast oxidative glycolytic fibers use aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration in creating ATP. Fast Glycolytic fibers are large in diameter and resistance to fatigue is low.

13. The membrane becomes permeable to sodium ions, allowing tremendous numbers of positively charged ions to flow to the interior of the axon. The normal polarized state is lost. a. Resting Stage b. Depolarization stage c. Repolarization stage d. AOTA

b. Depolarization stage

14. Iron ions are actively absorb in the a. large intestine b. small intestine c. stomach d. pancreas

b. small intestine

15. Sacral pain occurs when _________ is stimulated such as during a bowel movement or when passing a gas and relieved after each of these events a. Stomach b. Rectum c. Esophagus d. Small intestine

b. Rectum

16. Which of the following are true about Disaccharide? a. Compose of two monosaccharide unit b. Compose of two polysaccharides c. molecules of the monosaccharides glucose and fructose combine to form a molecule of the disaccharide lactose d. molecules of the monosaccharides

a. Compose of two monosaccharide unit

17. Stimulate the release of Aldosterone a. A II b. Renin c. Angiotensinogen d. ANP

a. A II

18. All of the following are true about the nephron, EXCEPT I. proximal tubular membranes are highly permeable to water II. As fluid flows down the descending loop of Henle, water is absorbed into the cortex III. The thin ascending limb is essentially impermeable to water but reabsorbs some sodium chloride IV. The thick part of the ascending loop of Henle is also virtually impermeable to water, but large amounts of sodium, chloride, potassium, and other ions are actively transported from the tubule into the medullary interstitium V. The concentration of fluid in the medullary collecting ducts also depends on ADH a. II,III,IV b. II,III c. Only IV d. Only II e. NOTA

d. Only II

19. urine formation begins with a. tubular secretion b. tubular reabsorption c. glomerular filtration d. AOTA

c. glomerular filtration

20. Place the route of blood flow through the kidney in the correct order: I. Renal Artery, II. Segmental Artery III. Interlobar Artery IV. Interlobular Artery V. Afferent Arterioles VI. Peritubular Capillaries VII. Efferent Arterioles VIII. Arcuate Arterioles IX. Glomerular Capillaries a. I, II, III, VIII, IV, V, IX, VII, VI b. I, II, III, VIII, V, IV, IX, VII, VI c. I, II, III, VII, IV, V, IX, VIII, VI d. I, II, III, VIII, IV, VI, IX, VII, V

a. I, II, III, VIII, IV, V, IX, VII, VI

21. Which of the following describe the Pituitary Gland? a. lies in the sella turcica, a bony cavity at the base of the brain, and is connected to the hypothalamus by the pituitary (or hypophysial) stalk. b. secretes two major hormones, thyroxine and triiodothyronine, commonly called T4 and T3, respectively. c. composed of two major parts, the adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex d. AOTA

a. lies in the sella turcica, a bony cavity at the base of the brain, and is connected to the hypothalamus by the pituitary (or hypophysial) stalk.

The Zona Fasciculata a. secretes the glucocorticoids cortisol b. the inner zone of the cortex, secretes the adrenal androgens c. capable of secreting significant amounts of aldosterone d. AOTA

a. secretes the glucocorticoids cortisol

23. this gland contains parafollicular cells that secrete calcitonin, a hormone that contributes to regulation of plasma calcium ion concentration a. Adrenal Gland b. Parathyroid gland c. Pituitary gland d. Thyroid gland

d. Thyroid gland

24. composed of two major types of tissues, the acini, which secrete digestive juices into the duodenum, and the islets of Langerhans, which secrete insulin and glucagon directly into the blood. a. Adrenal gland b. Thyroid gland c. Pancreas d. Adenohypohpysis

c. Pancreas

25. Excess activity of this gland causes rapid release of calcium salts from the bones, with resultant hypercalcemia in the extracellular fluid a. Parathyroid gland b. Thyroid gland c. Adrenal gland d. Anterior pituitary gland

a. Parathyroid gland

1. This test is used to assess the integrity of hearing using a tuning fork. The base of the fork is place at the midline vertex of the skull. Patient must hear the vibration equally on both ears. a. Weber b. Schwabach c. Rine d. Ticking watch

a. Weber

2. What is the resting position of the temporomandibular joint? a. Mouth slightly open, lips together, teeth not in contact b. Clenched teeth c. Limitation in mouth opening d. None of these

a. Mouth slightly open, lips together, teeth not in contact

3. The following vital sign values are normal for an adult, except: a. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmhg b. Respiratory rate of 18 cpm c. Pulse rate of 69 bpm d. Temperature of 39.9 degrees celcius

d. Temperature of 39.9 degrees celcius

4. This type of end feel occurs sooner or later in the ROM than is usual, or in a joint that normally has a firm or hard end. This may feel boggy with fluid shift a. Springy b. Empty c. Hard d. Soft

d. Soft

6. Which of the following is widely considered the MOST accurate body composition assessment? a. hydrostatic weighing b. eyeballing method c. electrical impedance d. anthropometric measurements

a. hydrostatic weighing

7. All of the following are functional test for geriatric patients, EXCEPT: a. Performance oriented Mobility assessment b. Get up and go test c. Functional reach test d. Dynamic gait index e. None of these

e. None of these

8. A first degree ligament sprain is described as ____. a. Minimal pain and swelling b. Protective bracing indicated c. Structural instability d. Pain that interferes with exercise

a. Minimal pain and swelling

9. Which special test is used to rule in bicipital tendinitis? a. Yergason and Speed b. Phalen’s Test c. Finkelstein Test d. Neer and Hawkins’ e. Crank Test

a. Yergason and Speed

10. All of the following are provocative tests performed in the cervical area, except: a. Jackson Compression Test b. Scalene Cramp Test c. Pettman’s distraction Test d. Spurling’s Test

c. Pettman’s distraction Test

11. The patient requires moderate assistance and expends 50-75 % of the effort. What is the patient’s FIM level? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

b. 3

12. Which score is applicable when there is a slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch followed by a minimal resistance throughout the remainder of the range of motion a. 1 b. 1+ c. 2 d. 2+ e. 3

b. 1+

13. This is a specific classification for epiphyseal plate fractures a. Salter Harris b. Garden c. Gustillo Anderson d. Le Fort

a. Salter Harris

14. Lifting a 20 kg weight with the back straight and knees bent constitutes how much percentage in disc pressure at L3? a. 150 b. 73 c. 169 d. 40

b. 73

15. This reflex is elicited by flicking the terminal phalanx of the index, middle or ring finger. A positive sign indicates increased irritability of sensory nerves in tetany and pathology in the pyramidal tract a. Rossolimo b. Schaeffer c. Piotrowski d. Hoffman

d. Hoffman

16. An active medial hamstrings reflex would mean an intact ____ segments a. L5-S1 b. L4-L5 c. S2-S3 d. S1-S2

a. L5-S1

17. For the Chaddock’s test to rule in as positive, what response should be observed? a. Big toe extension and fanning of the toes b. Big toe extension only c. Fanning of the toes with big toe flexion d. Big toe extension and opposition of the toes

a. Big toe extension and fanning of the toes

18. A burning, pressure-like pain may arise from which of the following structure? a. Nerve root b. Nerve c. Sympathetic Nerve d. Cranial Nerve

c. Sympathetic Nerve

19. Which grade would describe a muscle test that can perform complete range of motion against gravity with minimal resistance? a. 3 b. 3+ c. 3- d. 4

b. 3+

20. What is the normal range of flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints? a. 90 degrees b. 100 degrees c. 150 degrees d. 180 degrees

a. 90 degrees

21. This tests the structures around the PIP joint. The proximal interphalangeal joint is held in a neutral position while the DIP is flexed by the examiner. If the DIP joint does not flex, the retinacular ligaments or the PIP capsule are taut. If PIP joint is flexed and DIP is flexed easily, the retinacular ligaments are taut and the capsule is normal. a. Haines-Zancolli Test b. Bunnel Littler Test c. Sweater Finger Sign d. Froment Sign

a. Haines-Zancolli Test

22. This special test is performed by the examiner locating the radial pulse and applies downward traction on the test extremity with the patient’s neck hyperextended and head is rotated on the opposite side. Absence or disappearance of pulse indicates thoracic outlet syndrome. a. EAST test b. Military Brace Test c. Adson test d. Halstead e. Allen’s Test

d. Halstead

23. This test is also known as the Lasegue’s Test a. Upper limb tension b. Prone knee bending test c. Slump test d. Straight leg raising test

d. Straight leg raising test

24. Wagner classification which describes partial foot or forefoot gangrene a. Grade 1 b. Grade 2 c. Grade 3 d. Grade 4

d. Grade 4

25. A special test for upper motor neuron lesion where it assesses patient’s balance. As the patient stands with eyes closed the examiner notes for postural sway. A positive test indicates which of the following? a. Romberg’s Test b. Barre-Lieou test c. Brudzinski-Kernig test d. Marcus Gunn pupil

a. Romberg’s Test

1. The parasympathetic outflow originating from the S2 to S4 spinal segments is primarily responsible for mediating reflexogenic erection. The sympathetic output is primarily responsible for regulating ejaculation and psychogenic component of penile erection. a. Both statements are correct b. Both statements are incorrect c. First statement is correct, second statement is incorrect d. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct

a. Both statements are correct

2. The following statements are true about location of lesions in visual field defects, EXCEPT: a. Lesion to the right optic tract will manifest as left homonymous hemianopsia b. Lesion to the optic radiation in the right temporal lobe will manifest as left superior quarantanopsia c. Lesion to the optic radiation in the right parietal lobe will manifest as left inferior quarantanopsia d. Lesion to the optic chiasm caused by pituitary tumor will manifest as bitemporal hemianopsia e. None of these

e. None of these

3. The following statements are true regarding the cranial nerves innervating the extraocular muscles, EXCEPT: i. The oculomotor nerve provides innervation to the superior, inferior, medial recti, and the inferior oblique muscles of the eye. ii. The lateral rectus muscle is supplied by the abducens nerve iii. An isolated lesion of the trochlear nerve results in vertical diplopia iv. Lesion at the midbrain will result to inability of the eyes to move downward a. All of these b. I, II and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. None of these

e. None of these

4. True about the trigeminal nerve, EXCEPT: a. It is a mixed nerve supplying the muscles of mastication and divides into three major branches, ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. b. Mediates the reflex arc in the jaw reflex involving the masseter and temporalis muscles c. If the motor root of the trigeminal nerve is injured, paralysis occurs in the tensor tympani, mylohyoid and anterior belly of the digastric. d. Taste impulses from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is mediated by the trigeminal nerve e. None of these

d. Taste impulses from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is mediated by the trigeminal nerve

5. The following statements are correct concerning the facial nerve: i. The muscles of facial expression including the buccinator is supplied by the facial nerve ii. It supplies the stylohyoid, posterior belly of the digastric muscles of the neck and the stapedius muscles of the middle ear iii. It emerges as two roots from the anterior surface of the hindbrain between the pons and the medulla oblongata iv. Injury to the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen will result in facial palsy, hyperacusis, impaired lacrimation and loss of taste on anterior 2/3 of the tongue. v. Lesion of the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen presents with inability to close the eye on the side of the paralysis a. All of these b. I, II and III c. I, II, III and IV d. I, II, III and V e. I, III and V

d. I, II, III and V

6. The vagus nerve is the great parasympathetic nerve that innervates the thorax and the abdomen. These statements correctly describe this nerve, EXCEPT: i. Stimulation of the vagus nerve may result to vasodilation and bradycardia ii. Branches from the vagus nerve supply the intrinsic muscles of the larynx iii. Dysphagia, dysphonia and regurgitation of food into the nose on swallowing is a result of bilateral lesion to this nerve iv. In testing for phonation by having the patient say “AH”, deviation of the uvula to the right suggests involvement of the right vagus nerve a. I and IV b. II and IV c. All of these d. None of these e. Only IV

e. Only IV

7. True about spinal nerve, EXCEPT: a. There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves b. There are 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar and 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pairs of spinal nerves c. While there are eight nerves that exit the cervical spine, there are only seven cervical vertebrae d. The first thoracic spinal nerve exits below the first thoracic vertebra e. None of these

e. None of these

8. One pair of spinal nerves supply a strip-like area of skin known as a dermatome. The following descriptions are correct, EXCEPT: i. The middle finger is supplied by the C7 dermatome ii. The fourth thoracic segment is at the nipple level iii. The L3 neurologic level spans the anterior thigh immediately at and above the knee joint iv. The umbilicus is at T10 level v. The anterior neck and upper shoulders are innervated by the cervical plexus largely by C3 a. All of these b. I, II, III and IV c. II, III, IV and V d. Only V e. None of these

d. Only V

9. The following are key muscles represented by the C5, C6 myotomes i. Biceps ii. ECRL iii. ECRB iv. ECU v. FCR a. All of these b. I, II and III c. I, II, III and IV d. I, II, III and V e. II, III, IV and V

b. I, II and III

10. A patient with a diagnosis of cervical radiculopathy reports numbness of the right little finger. The therapist will most likely find a diminished tendon reflex in: a. Deltoid b. Brachioradialis c. Biceps brachii d. Triceps

d. Triceps

11. Which of these structures arise from the prosencephalon? i. Cerebral cortex ii. Basal ganglia iii. Thalamus iv. Hypothalamus a. All of these b. I, II and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. None of these

a. All of these

12. Lobes of the brain concerned with memory i. Temporal ii. Frontal iii. Limbic iv. Occipital a. All of these b. I, II and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. Only IV

a. All of these

13. The prefrontal cortex is represented by brodmann’s area: a. 6 b. 8 c. 3, 1, 2 d. 9, 10, 11, 12 e. 4

d. 9, 10, 11, 12

14. A patient with left hemiplegia is expected with the following manifestations, EXCEPT: i. Hemineglect ii. Ideomotor apraxia iii. Impaired insight and judgment iv. Broca’s aphasia a. All of these b. I, II and IV c. I and III d. II and IV e. Only IV

d. II and IV

15. Patient is non-fluent, has good repetition and excellent comprehension: a. Broca’s aphasia b. Wernicke’s aphasia c. Anomic aphasia d. Global aphasia e. Transcortical aphasia

e. Transcortical aphasia

16. To examine a patient with suspected deficit in barognosis, the therapist should ask the patient to shut his/her eyes and identify: a. Different objects placed in the hand and palpated b. A series of letters traced in the hand c. Differently weighed, identically shaped cylinders placed in the hand d. The vibrations of a tuning fork when placed on a bony prominence

c. Differently weighed, identically shaped cylinders placed in the hand

17. A patient who exhibits a slow, involuntary continuous writhing movements has a lesion in what area of the brain? a. Cerebral cortex b. Anterior limb of internal capsule c. Basal ganglia d. Corpus callosum e. None of these

c. Basal ganglia

18. Stimulation of the anterior hypothalamus causes all of the following, EXCEPT: i. Sweating ii. Increased respiration iii. Cutaneous vasodilation iv. Shivering a. All of these b. I, II and III c. I and III d. Only IV e. None of these

d. Only IV

19. The vomiting center is found in what part of the brain? a. Midbrain b. Cerebral cortex c. Cerebellum d. Basal ganglia e. Medulla oblongata

e. Medulla oblongata

20. Functional limitations observed in patients with cerebellar dysfunction may include the following, EXCEPT: i. Dysmetria ii. Gait ataxia iii. Fatigability and weakness iv. Hypertonicity v. Resting tremor a. All of these b. I, II, III and IV c. III and IV d. IV and V e. None of these

d. IV and V

21. Cavities within the brain filled with cerebrospinal fluid: a. Subarachnoid space b. Ventricles c. Meninges d. Sinuses

b. Ventricles

22. This artery gives rise to the tiny ophthalmic artery which accompanies the optic nerve and the anterior and middle cerebral arteries that supply most of the cerebral hemispheres: a. External carotid artery b. Internal carotid artery c. Common carotid artery d. Vertebrobasilar artery e. Subclavian artery

b. Internal carotid artery

23. The following statements are true about the spinal cord, EXCEPT: i. The spinal cord in the adult ends inferiorly at the lower border of the first lumbar vertebra ii. The normal diameter of the spinal cord is 10-15mm iii. The normal length of the spinal cord is between 42-45 cm iv. The tip of the spinal cord is attached to the coccyx via leptomeninx a. All of these b. I, II and III c. None of these d. II and IV e. Only IV

c. None of these

24. The following are true of upper motor neurons, EXCEPT: i. Synonymous to corticospinal tract ii. Completely contained within the central nervous system iii. Synapse directly on alpha, beta and gamma motor neurons in the spinal cord and cranial nerve nuclei iv. Lesion results to exaggerated deep tendon reflexes v. Provide final direct link with muscles through myoneural junctions a. All of these b. I, II, III and IV c. III, IV and V d. none of these e. only V

e. only V

25. The dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway is responsible for the following sensations: i. Stereognosis ii. Two-point discrimination iii. Precise localization iv. Fine intensity gradiations a. All of these b. I, II and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. None of these

a. All of these

1. What reflex is the latest to persist? a. STNR b. ATNR c. Moro d. Parachute

d. Parachute

What will be the response when you elicit ATNR on a spastic hemiplegic patient? a. Extend b. Fully extend c. Slight flexion d. No flexion

a. Extend

2. An infant demonstrates that the ATNR is NOT obligatory when he/she can turn the head: a. To both sides and open the hand b. To one side and look at the extended arm on that side c. To one side and bring the opposite hand to mouth d. And bring the hand to mouth on the same side

d. And bring the hand to mouth on the same side

You are completing a development assessment of a 7-month-old infant with normal development. The reflex that would NOT be integrated is: a. Moro b. STNR c. Landau d. ATNR

c. Landau

3. A Pediatric patient with an IQ level scoring of 96 came to your clinic. Under what category will it fall: a. Average d. Below average b. Borderline e. Mild MR c. Moderate MR

a. Average

4. In terms of cognitive development, the 5-year-old child would be expected to: a. Use magical thinking b. Think abstractly c. Understand conservation of matter d. Be unable to comprehend another person's perspective

a. Use magical thinking

The preoperational stage of piaget spans what age: a. 3-5 years old b. 1-3 years old c. 2-3 years old d. 2-7 years old

d. 2-7 years old

5. The Bayley Scales of Infant Development is a standardized assessment for: a. Deviation from normal development b. Mental and motor scale c. Current development level d. Milestones e. None of these

b. Mental and motor scale

6. The nurse teaches parents how to help their children learn impulse control and cooperative behaviors. This would occur during which of the stages of development defined by Erikson? a. Trust vs mistrust b. Initiative vs guilt c. Industry vs inferiority d. Autonomy vs. Shame and doubt

b. Initiative vs guilt

According to Erikson, the psychosocial task of adolescence is developing: a. Intimacy b. Initiative c. Identity d. Independence

b. Initiative

In what stage is anal sphincter control present? a. Autonomy vs shame and doubt b. Initiative vs guilt c. Industry vs inferiority d. Identity vs identity confusion

a. Autonomy vs shame and doubt

7. A therapist is ordered to evaluate and treat a full-term infant. After reviewing the chart, the therapist discovers that at 1 minute after birth the infant exhibited the following symptoms. Acrocyanosis, heart rate of 105 beats per minute, slow respirations, slight response to reflex irritability, and some resistance of the extremities to movement. What was the infant’s APGAR score at 1 minute after birth? a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7

c. 6

8. TRUE about APGAR scoring, EXCEPT: a. A score of 3 needs oxygen supplement b. Usually done thrice c. Little predictive significance for the development of neurological problem d. Quickly identify the newborn infant in need of resuscitation e. None of these

e. None of these

Normal head circumference at 12 months is: a. 35 cm b. 41 cm c. 47cm d. 57 cm

c. 47cm

The nurse knows that an infant's birth weight should be tripled by: a. 9 months b. 1 year c. 18 months d. 2 years

b. 1 year

9. Earliest age at which an infant is able to sit steadily alone is _____ months. a. 4 b. 5 c. 8 d. 15

c. 8

10. Earliest age at which the infant should be able to walk independently is _____ months. a. 8 to 10 b. 12 to 15 c. 15 to 18 d. 18 to 21

b. 12 to 15

11. In terms of gross motor development, what would the nurse expect a 5-month-old infant to do? a. Roll from abdomen to back. b. Roll from back to abdomen. c. Sit erect without support. d. Move from prone to sitting position.

a. Roll from abdomen to back

Most infants begin to fear strangers at age: a. 2 months b. 4 months c. 6 months d. 12 months

c. 6 months

12. Trisomy 18: a. Arachnodactyly b. Edward’s syndrome c. Patau’s syndrome d. Down’s syndrome

b. Edward’s syndrome

This syndrome is the result of a deletion of material from the short arm of chromosome 5, which causes many problems, including growth retardation, microcephaly and severe mental retardation a. Cri-du-chat syndrome b. William syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Prader Willi syndrome

a. Cri-du-chat syndrome

XXY chromosome: a. Klinefelter b. Turner’s syndrome c. Superwoman d. Cri-du-chat e. None of these

a. Klinefelter

13. This condition is characterized by progressive neurological deficits resulting from traction of the conus medullaris and cauda equina: a. Connus medullaris syndrome b. Hydromyelia c. Tethered cord syndrome d. Spina bifida aperta

c. Tethered cord syndrome

14. Spina bifida may be associated with the deficiency of which vitamin? a. Iron b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin E d. Folic acid

d. Folic acid

When reviewing a patient’s chart, the therapist determines that the patient has a condition in which the cauda equine is in a fluid-filled sac protruding from the back. What form of spina bifida does the patient most likely have? a. Meningocele b. Meningomyelocele c. Spina bifida occulta d. None of the above

b. Meningomyelocele

15. A 5-year-old child with a T10 level spina bifida is now ready for ambulation training having good sitting balance. The best orthosis for him is: a. RGO b. Parapodium c. KAFO d. Supramalleolar orthosis

b. Parapodium

16. A patient with spina bifida has various manifestations/ orthopedic complications. What is the lowest limit of level with severe hip dislocation? a. T12 b. L1 c. L2 d. L3

d. L3

17. Most common type of CP with seizure? a. Spastic diplegia c. Spastic Quadriplegia b. Spastic Hemiplegia d. Dyskinetic CP

c. Spastic Quadriplegia

18. The most severe type of cerebral palsy caused by periventricular leukomalacia: a. Spastic diplegia b. Spastic quadriplegia c. Spastic hemiplegia d. CP athetoid type

b. Spastic quadriplegia

The therapist is evaluating a patient with a diagnosis of cerebral palsy. The therapist notes that all of the extremities and the trunk are involved. Further assessment also reveals that the lower extremities are more involved than the upper extremities and that the right side is more involved than the left. This patient most likely has which classification of CP? a. Spastic hemiplegia b. Spastic triplegia c. Spastic quadriplegia d. Spastic diplegia

d. Spastic diplegia

19. The therapist presents an educational seminar on cerebral palsy, where he discusses its numerous etiologies. The following are congenital etiology of cerebral palsy, EXCEPT: a. Meningitis c. Syphilis b. Rubella d. Toxoplasmosis

a. Meningitis

Most common cause of Cerebral Palsy a. Infection c. Trauma b. Idiopathic d. prematurity

d. prematurity

You are asked by your senior staff about the types of CP that has good prognosis. The type of CP has good prognosis is: a. Athetoid c. Spastic hemiplegia b. Spastic quadriplegia d. Rigid

d. Rigid

20. All of the following are tight muscles in patients with DMD, EXCEPT: a. Iliopsoas c. quadriceps b. Gastrocnemius d. hamstrings

c. quadriceps

Most common cause of death in patients with DMD? a. Respiratory failure c. Renal failure b. Multiple organ failure d. Cardiac failure

d. Cardiac failure

21. Clinically, what criterion can be used to differentiate between Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD)? a. Utilization of gower’s maneuver b. The ability to ambulate past the late teenage years c. Pseudohypertrophy of the calves d. Neck flexor weakness

b. The ability to ambulate past the late teenage years

22. Which of the following has presents with (+) gower sign? I. DMD II. BMD III. LGMD IV. FSHD a. I, II d. only IV b. I, II, III e. NOTA c. II, III

b. I, II, III

Muscular dystrophy with congenital heart disease a. DMD c. BMD b. Emery dreifuss d. fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy

b. Emery dreifuss

23. This syndrome is characterized by brittle bones, blue sclerae, and deafness: a. Osteogenesis imperfecta b. Osteitis deformans c. Osteosclerosis d. Osteomalacia

a. Osteogenesis imperfecta

24. A 6-year-old child was born with no physical deformities but suddenly started to have multiple deformities such as shortening of right lower limb, valgus of left knee, and enlargement of hand and foot. Radiograph reveals multiple radiolucent lesions in the bones due to excessive proliferation of cartilages. He was later diagnosed with: a. Mafucci’s syndrome b. Angelman c. Ollier’s disease d. Paget’s disease

c. Ollier’s disease

25. You are seeing a 7-year-old boy for stiffness. His legs are stiff, and he has difficulty relaxing muscles after contracting them. He cannot release objects easily once grasped with his hands, and when he closes his eyes, it takes a few seconds before he is able to open them completely. If he performs the same motor task multiple times, it becomes easier. When his thenar eminence is percussed, there is prolonged contraction and delayed relaxation. Family history is remarkable of his father and grandfather have similar clinical features that started around the same age. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Paramyotonia congenita b. Myotonia congenita c. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis d. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis

b. Myotonia congenita

1. MC subluxed vertebral level in RA: a. C1-C2 b. C2-C3 c. C4-C5 d. C5-C6

a. C1-C2

2. True hip pain in rheumatoid involvement of the hip produces pain on the: a. Lateral aspect of the thigh b. Groin c. Acetabular area d. Medial aspect of thigh e. Posterior aspect of the thigh

b. Groin

A 60-year-old woman had a recent fall, seen on her X-ray: (+) asymmetrical osteophytes. What is her possible diagnosis? a. Osteoarthritis c. RA b. Lupus d. MPS

a. Osteoarthritis

3. A patient reports a chronic history of widespread muscular pain, multiple tender points throughout her body, and excess fatigue. Upon examination, the therapist observes that the patient’s tender points are distributed throughout the body and do not refer pain when pressure is applied. What diagnosis would be MOST accurate for this patient? a. Myofascial pain syndrome b. Chronic regional pain syndrome c. Fibromyalgia d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

c. Fibromyalgia

An older adult patient complains of persistent pain, weakness, and stiffness affecting their shoulders and pelvis. Additionally, the patient has a higher than normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). What medical condition is MOST consistent with the described presentation? a. Pseudogout b. Gout c. Polymyalgia rheumatic d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

c. Polymyalgia rheumatic

5. A 30-year-old male with history of pain and swelling of the right knee presents with the following synovial fluid findings: synovial fluid aspiration showed yellow color, opaque appearance, variable viscosity, WBC: 150,000, 80% poor mucin clot. What is the likely diagnosis? a. Gout b. Meniscal tear c. RA d. Septic arthritis e. Pseudogout

d. Septic arthritis

6. This surgical procedure is an advantageous consideration if only one side of the knee is worn. This involves removal of a bone wedge to shift weight bearing surfaces and is indicated in the early stages of DJD before motion has been lost. a. Displacement Osteotomy b. Arthrodesis c. Double-cup Arthroplasty d. Femoral prosthesis e. Muscle Release

a. Displacement Osteotomy

7. The last step in fracture healing: a. Hematoma formation d. callus formation b. Consolidation e. demineralization c. Remodeling

c. Remodeling

What are the principles of fixation in fracture healing? These are the following EXCEPT . a. A small amount of movement at a fracture site may actually encourage fracture healing b. Rigid fixation may lessen the stimulus for callus formation c. Adequate fixation prevents impairment of the blood supply necessary for fracture healing d. Any amount of movement is not allowed to maintain fracture fixation

d. Any amount of movement is not allowed to maintain fracture fixation

8. True about Volkmann’s ischemic contracture: a. FPL and FDP are spared b. Affects the radial artery c. Involves fracture of the forearm, radius, or ulna d. Commonly seen in weightlifter and clerical jobs

c. Involves fracture of the forearm, radius, or ulna

9. The 14-year-old male patient came into the clinic with a referral from the orthopedic service. His diagnosis is a Monteggia fracture. What does this comprise? a. Fracture of the ulna with ulnar subluxation b. Fracture of the ulna with radial head subluxation c. Fracture of the radius with radial head subluxation d. Fracture of the radius with subluxation of the ulna

b. Fracture of the ulna with radial head subluxation

FOOSH is the MOI. Your patient was referred for an x-ray but then wasn’t diagnosed of any condition since nothing was seen in the x-ray. There is still pain and swelling. What bone commonly manifests with this type of presentation? a. Distal radius b. Scaphoid c. Trapezium d. Ulna

b. Scaphoid

10.On palpation of the foot, tenderness on both plantar and dorsal aspect of the forefoot is a common finding in: a. Osteoarthritis b. Deltoid strain c. Bursitis d. Tendonitis e. Rheumatoid arthritis

e. Rheumatoid arthritis

11.Around 25-40 years old and presents with fibrosis, bursitis, and tendinitis, this is most likely what stage of Neer impingement? a. Stage 1 c. Stage 3 b. Stage 2 d. Stage 4

b. Stage 2

12.Which of the following is Bicipital tendonitis LEAST frequently involved? a. Anterior laxity of the humerus b. AC joint sprain c. Rotator cuff pathology d. Posterior laxity of the humerus

d. Posterior laxity of the humerus

13.Frozen shoulder stage: 22-25 months, no pain, has significant LOM: a. Freezing b. Frozen c. Thawing d. Pre-adhesive

c. Thawing

14.A patient with a crush injury to the foot developed reflex sympathetic dystrophy. Now, two months into the RSD, the clinical presentation you would expect is: a. edema and osteoporosis with decreased sweating and nail growth b. a cool, dry extremity with the beginning of ankylosis c. causalgia with vasomotor reflex spasm resulting in warm, dry skin with increased nail growth d. pain on motion with trophic skin changes and osteoporosis

c. causalgia with vasomotor reflex spasm resulting in warm, dry skin with increased nail growth

15.Medial Epicondylitis may occur in golfers. Which of the following instructions should be advised to prevent this from occurring? a. improve trunk rotation b. lessen trunk rotation c. use a smaller and tight grip d. strike the ground with more force

a. improve trunk rotation

16.A mother complains of sharp pain on radial styloid when carrying her baby. The pain increases with extension of the thumb against resistance. What is the likely diagnosis? a. Osteoarthritis of radial styloid b. De Quervain Tenosynovitis c. Dupuytren’s contracture d. Scaphoid fracture

b. De Quervain Tenosynovitis

17.Dupuytren’s contracture involves flexion contractures of the _______________ digits of the hand, MP, and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints.: a. 2nd and 3rd b. 3rd and 4th c. 4th and 5th d. 1st and 2nd

c. 4th and 5th

18.If the distal insertion of the extensor digitorum communis has been torn away from the distal phalanx with an attendant avulsion of a bone fragment, a bony excrescence become palpable on the dorsal surface of the DIP joint: a. Boutonniere deformity b. Mallet finger c. Swan neck deformity d. Ulnar drift

b. Mallet finger

19.A 40-year-old obese diabetic patient came to the clinic complaining of 6 weeks painful numbness over the lateral aspect of the right thigh. No weakness is noted. Advice may be given to help relieve the symptom. Which is least likely to help? a. Weight loss b. Stretching exercises c. Avoidance of tight clothing d. Pain medications and creams

b. Stretching exercises

20.In the anterior approach in total hip replacement, the position of maximal instability is: I. Abduction II. Adduction III. External rotation IV. Internal rotation V. Circumduction a. I and IV b. I and III c. II and III d. II and IV

c. II and III

21.Which of the following is true about acquired hip dislocations? a. Anterior d/l is also called dashboard injury of the hip b. Posterior hip d/l is most common c. Anterior hip d/l is most common d. Posterior d/l is caused by flexion, adduction, and ER

b. Posterior hip d/l is most common

22.Upon examination of your patient with quadriceps contusion, you note that he has deep bruising, pain, swelling, and discoloration along the injury site. His active knee ROM is recorded to be 45 degrees. You classify his injury as: a. Mild b. Moderate c. Severe d. Malingering

b. Moderate

23.The following conditions apply to chondromalacia patella, except: a. A common degenerative condition involving a softening of the patella’s articular surface b. Quadriceps femoris muscle wasting, particularly of the oblique fibers of the vastus medialis, is common c. Intermittent pain is attributed to the quadriceps femoris muscles as they pull the tender patella tightly against the trochlear surface of the femur d. Surgical intervention with debridement, realignment, or patellectomy may be necessary as the condition progresses e. Calliet describes second degree chondromalacia as erosion of the cartilage to subchondral bone and possible involvement of the posterior femoral cartilage

e. Calliet describes second degree chondromalacia as erosion of the cartilage to subchondral bone and possible involvement of the posterior femoral cartilage

24.The following treatments are helpful for plantar fasciitis during the initial stages. Which should be done in the subacute and more chronic stages? a. stretching of the Achilles tendon and plantar fascia b. icing and deep massage c. cortisone injection d. Taping

c. cortisone injection

25.On examination of the toes, what is hyperextension of the MTP joints and flexion of the other phalangeal joints? a. hammer toe b. clawing c. mallet toe d. hallux valgus

b. clawing

1. Diagnostic Criteria for Hand Osteoarthritis include the following, EXCEPT? a. All of the choices b. Joint space narrowing in any finger joint c. Age > 40 years old d. Presence of heberden's nodes e. None of these

e. None of these

Characteristics of grade 1 chondromalacia patella? a. Softening and swelling b. Fissuring c. Crab-meat appearance d. Full thickness fibrillation

a. Softening and swelling

3. Fx of 1st metacarpal a. Morton’s toe b. Boxer’s Fx c. Bennet’s Fx d. March Fx e. Jones Fx

c. Bennet’s Fx

4. Boxers Fx: a. 3rd & 5th MCP b. 4th & 5th MCP c. 1st & 2nd MCP d. 3rd & 4th MCP

b. 4th & 5th MCP

5. Rockwood classification 2: a. AC sprain, CC intact b. Deltotrapezial fascia tear c. AC and CC torn d. AC torn, CC sprained

d. AC torn, CC sprained

6. A 16-year-old female dancer complains of subpatellar pain after 2 weeks of vigorous rehearsal for a hip-hop competition. Evaluation shows a large Q angle, pain on palpation at the inferior pole of the patella and mild swelling at both knees. The BEST strategy for this condition is: a. Vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening b. taping to increase lateral patellar tracking c. hamstring strengthening d. vastus lateralis strengthening

a. Vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening

7. Upon extraction of synovial fluid in the knee of OA patient, what is the characteristic of the synovial fluid if it is gray, cloudy, and opaque? a. Normal b. Hemorrhagic c. Inflammatory d. Non-inflammatory

c. Inflammatory

8. Fracture at the base of 5th MTT a. Freibergs b. Nutcracker c. Jones d. Boxers

c. Jones

9. A patient with phocomelia would demonstrate: a. Absence of an entire limb b. Absence of wrist and hand c. Absence of phalanges d. Absence of 2nd to 4th CMC e. A seal limb

e. A seal limb

10. The x-ray of a patient diagnosed with Poland syndrome revealed skin union between the digits of the hand. This is called: a. Syndactyly b. Camptodactyly c. Clinodactyly d. Macrodactyly e. Simian Hand

a. Syndactyly

11. Osteochondrosis of the inferior pole of the patella, in skeletally immature patients is: a. Sinding Larsen Johansson disease b. Hoffa's disease c. Quadriceps tendonitis d. Osgood-Schlatter disease

a. Sinding Larsen Johansson disease

12. A 50-year-old golfer complains of pain on getting up that eases with ambulation. There’s also pain when running and upon palpation of the distal end of calcaneus. Evaluation also reveals pes planus. You suspect that patient has plantar fasciitis. Initial strategy would include: ____________. a. Use of night resting splint b. Strengthening of ankle dorsiflexors c. Modalities to reduce pain d. Use of customized orthosis

a. Use of night resting splint

13. Among the elderly, humeral fractures at the surgical neck are common where this nerve is in direct contact. a. Ulnar b. Axillary c. Median d. Radial

b. Axillary

14. What is the splint that may be used in stable fractures of the phalanges, which fixes the injured finger to the adjacent finger and gives support while allowing some movement? a. Buddy strap b. Finger Spica c. Gutter d. Cock-up

a. Buddy strap

15. Muscle causing avulsion fracture of patella: a. Sartorius b. Quads c. Hams d. TFL

b. Quads

17. A patient diagnosed with Adhesive Capsulitis stage 3 was referred to you for treatment. She has decreased ROM of the shoulder with severely restricted glenohumeral joint motions. She probably has had the symptoms for the past how many months? a. 3-6 weeks b. 1-3 mos c. 6-7 days d. 9-12 mos

d. 9-12 mos

18. A therapist works with a child with Legg-Calve- Perthes disease. Which medical condition is MOST often associated with this condition? a. avascular necrosis b. congenital hip dysplasia c. osteomyelitis d. septic arthritis

a. avascular necrosis

19. One of the following parameters is not an essential component in the Eccentric strengthening of Achilles tendinitis: a. Speed b. Length c. Load d. Agility

d. Agility

20. A congenital deformity where the ulna is prominent and wrist and hand are displaced anteriorly: a. Mannerfelt Syndrome b. Madelung’s deformity c. Macrodactyly d. NOTA

b. Madelung’s deformity

21. Rheumatoid arthritis stage 3, except: a. Extensive muscle atrophy b. Nodules c. Bony ankylosis d. Tenosynovitis

c. Bony ankylosis

22. Rheumatoid arthritis: Limited in ability to perform usual self-care, vocational, and avocational activities a. class I b. class II c. class III d. class IV

d. class IV

23. 1st stage of bone healing: a. Inflammation b. Hematoma c. Soft callus d. Hard callus e. Remodeling

b. Hematoma

24. Tri-malleolar fracture is an unstable type of fracture affecting the lateral malleolus, medial malleolus, and ________. a. tarsal malleolus b. posterior tibial malleolus c. calcaneus d. talus

b. posterior tibial malleolus

25. Medial winging of the scapula is caused by which of the following nerve injuries? a. Weakness of serratus anterior due to spinal accessory nerve injury b. Trapezius weakness due to long thoracic nerve injury c. Serratus anterior weakness due to long thoracic nerve injury d. Trapezius weakness due to thoracodorsal nerve injury e. Weakness of trapezius due to spinal accessory nerve injury

c. Serratus anterior weakness due to long thoracic nerve injury

16. On palpation of the foot, tenderness at the articular surface of the talus is a common finding in: a. Deltoid strain b. Bursitis c. Tendonitis d. Osteoarthritis

d. Osteoarthritis

1. Upper extremity orthosis for Swan neck deformity? a. Cock-up splint c. PIP sleeve b. Silver ring splint d. Thumb spica

b. Silver ring splint

2. What is the type of orthoses used by scoliotic patients for curves with apex below T8? a. Miami c. William b. Boston d. Milwaukee

b. Boston

3. A 16 y/o patient suffered fractures of C4 and C5 following trauma received in a motor vehicle accident. Maximum stabilization of his cervical spine can be BEST be achieved with: a. Soft collar c. Milwaukee orthosis b. Four poster orthosis d. Halo orthosis

d. Halo orthosis

4. An external shoe modification that would be appropriate for a patient exhibiting flexible subtalar valgus deformity is: a. cushion heel c. lateral sole wedge b. medial heel wedge d. lateral heel wedge

b. medial heel wedge

5. A LATERAL buckled insert attached to an ankle-foot orthosis is used to correct: a. Ankle varus deformity b. Ankle valgus deformity c. Medial longitudinal arch depression d. Forefoot varus deformity

a. Ankle varus deformity

What is the ankle joint in short leg brace for patients with foot drop? a. Total control b. Anterior ankle stop c. Partial control d. Posterior ankle stop

d. Posterior ankle stop *best answer: DF assist

This special purpose orthosis is used for total elimination of weight-bearing on whole lower limb, no ankle joints & toe suspended in mid-air? a. Patellar tendon-bearing orthoses b. Ischial weight-bearing c. Patten-Bottom orthoses d. Tibial orthoses

c. Patten-Bottom orthoses

9. Is a variation of a typical KAFO, which is designed to help spinal cord injured patients to stand & walk? a. Parapodium b. Scott-Craig orthoses c. Denise-Brown splint d. A-frame orthosis

b. Scott-Craig orthoses

10. It is designed for clubfoot, pronated foot & abnormal tibial torsion? a. Denis-Browne splint b. A-Frame orthoses c. Torsion-shaft d. Internal rotation control strap

a. Denis-Browne splint

11. You are instructing a patient on how to use a reciprocating gait orthosis (RGO) with a walker. What is the correct sequence? a. She should shift her weight onto her walker, extend the upper trunk, and swing both legs forward together to approach the walker b. She should shift her weight onto one leg, and swing her other leg through while leaning on the walker c. She should shift her weight onto her walker & one leg, extend the upper trunk, and swing her other leg through d. You should not be teaching a patient to use a reciprocating gait orthosis with a walker

c. She should shift her weight onto her walker & one leg, extend the upper trunk, and swing her other leg through

12. A lumbosacral orthosis that restricts extension and lateral flexion? a. William b. Cowhorn c. Knight d. Chairback

a. William

13. Horizontal section through calcaneus: a. Syme’s b. Pirogoff’s c. Boyd’s d. AKA

c. Boyd’s

14. Standard transtibial amputation: a. 20-50% c. > 50% b. 35-60% d. > 60%

a. 20-50%

15. At what speed for the average individual as the worth of walking at a minimum? a. 2 mph c. 4 mph b. 3 mph d. 5 mph

b. 3 mph

16. The MOST commonly used non-articulated components is: a. SAFE b. SACH c. Quantum d. Flex-foot

b. SACH

17. Which of the following describes an awareness of a non-painful sensation in the amputated part? a. Allodynia b. Phantom sensation c. Phantom pain d. Hyperalgesia

b. Phantom sensation

18. The most commonly used type of shank for a below-knee prosthesis: a. Endoskeletal c. Steel shank b. Exoskeletal d. A and B

a. Endoskeletal

19. This is a pressure tolerant area of the leg in prosthetic fitting: a. Tibial crest c. Fibular head b. Medial tibial flare d. Hamstring tendons

b. Medial tibial flare

20. A therapist is performing a prosthetic checkout on patient with transfemoral amputation. The prosthesis has been fitted with a quadrilateral socket. A checkout of the walls of the socket should reveal that the: a. Height of the posterior wall is 2 inches less than all the other walls b. Anterior & lateral walls are 2 1⁄2 inches higher than the posterior & medial walls c. Medial wall is 2 1⁄2 inches higher than the posterior wall while the anterior & lateral walls at the same height d. Posterior & lateral walls are 2 inches higher than the medial & anterior walls *AK Prosthesis Knee Assembly/Jt. 1) Axes 3.) Extension

b. Anterior & lateral walls are 2 1⁄2 inches higher than the posterior & medial walls

21. The Silesian belt, total elastic suspension belt, and pelvic band are all types of suspension for which type of prosthesis? a. Below knee amputation (transtibial) b. Above knee amputation (transfemoral) c. Hip disarticulation d. Syme's amputation

b. Above knee amputation (transfemoral)

22. For a transtibial amputee, insufficient knee flexion during stance may be caused by any of the following. Which one may NOT be a cause? a. Excessive dorsiflexion at the prosthetic ankle b. Excessive plantarflexion at the prosthetic ankle c. Socket discomfort d. Poor hip and knee control

a. Excessive dorsiflexion at the prosthetic ankle

23. When compared with normal walking without a prosthesis or assistive device, which condition requires the greatest increase in energy expenditure? a. Transtibial amputation b. Transfemoral amputation c. Bilateral transtibial d. Wheelchair use

b. Transfemoral amputation

24. For a transfemoral amputee who ambulates with circumduction of the prosthesis during swing, one may think of causes and this may include which of the following? a. Prosthesis too short b. Weak hip flexors c. Weak hip abductors d. Inadequate suspension

d. Inadequate suspension

25. Exaggerated lordosis of a patient with prosthesis in stance phase may be due to: a. Weak abdominals c. Weak hip flexors b. Weak trunk extensors d. Insufficient socket extension

a. Weak abdominals

The time for upper limb prosthetic fitting for successful prosthetic restoration: a. 8-12 mos b. 1-3 mos c. 2-3 weeks d. 4-6 mos

d. 4-6 mos

1. A PT is working in an elementary school system with a child who demonstrates moderate to severe extensor spasticity and limited hand control. The MOST appropriate positioning device would be a: a. Wheelchair with adductor pommel b. Wheelchair with a back wedge and head supports c. Supine stander with abduction wedge d. Prone stander with abduction wedge

b. Wheelchair with a back wedge and head supports

2. A patient with complete C6 tetraplegia should be instructed to initially transfer with a sliding board using: a. Shoulder depressors and triceps, keeping the hands flexed to protect tenodesis grasp b. Pectoral muscles to stabilize elbows in the extension and scapular depressors to lift the trunk c. Shoulder extensors, external rotators, and anterior deltoid to position and lock the elbow d. Serratus anterior to elevate the trunk with elbow extensors stabilizing

c. Shoulder extensors, external rotators, and anterior deltoid to position and lock the elbow

3. A therapist recommends a wheelchair for a patient rehabilitating from a CVA with the goal of independent mobility. The left upper and lower extremities are flaccid and present with edema. There is normal strength on the right, however, the patient’s trunk is hypotonic. The patient is cognitively intact. The MOST appropriate wheelchair for the patient is: (Giles p. 926) a. Sling seat, sling back, arm board, and elevating leg rests b. Light weight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and standard footrests c. Solid seat, solid back, elevating leg rests, and anti-tippers d. Lightweight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and elevating leg rests

d. Lightweight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and elevating leg rests

4. Resting platform on ramps should be provided with measurement of: a. 36 " x 36" c. 1 m x 1m b. 60" x 60" d. At least 60 inches

b. 60" x 60"

5. When evaluating a client for a wheelchair, a therapist determines that the client’s hip width in sitting and the measurement from the back of the buttock to the popliteal space are each 16 inches. Given the measurements, which of the following wheelchair sizes would best fit this client? a. Seat depth 14 inches, seat width 18 inches b. Seat depth 14 inches, seat width 16 inches c. Seat depth 18 inches, seat width 18 inches d. Seat depth 18 inches, seat width 16 inches

a. Seat depth 14 inches, seat width 18 inches

6. A therapist uses a manual wheelchair during a training session with a patient with C5 quadriplegia. Which wheelchair would be the most appropriate based on the patient’s level of injury? a. Manual wheelchair with sip and puff controls b. Manual wheelchair with oblique handrim projections c. Manual wheelchair with friction surface handrims d. Manual wheelchair with standard handrims

b. Manual wheelchair with oblique handrim projections

7. You have been asked to provide an assistive device to a 90-year-old female who lives alone and is partial weight bearing on the right lower extremity. Her upper extremity strength is 3+/5. Which assistive device would you recommend for this patient? a. Lofstrand crutches c. Large base quad cane b. Walker d. Axillary crutches

b. Walker

8. Which ambulation aid requires coordination? a. Walker c. Axillary crutches b. Cane d. Parallel bars

c. Axillary crutches

9. The following are possible means of fitting a patient for adjustable axillary crutches EXCEPT to: a. Subtract 16 inches lateral to the foot b. Place the patient supine and measure from the anterior axillary fold to the bottom of the foot and add 2 inches c. Place the patient supine & measure from the anterior axillary fold to the lateral heel and add two inches d. Place the patient in standing with their shoes on, with the crutches placed 6 inches lateral to the foot

d. Place the patient in standing with their shoes on, with the crutches placed 6 inches lateral to the foot

10. Forearm cuff of a Loftstrand crutch should be placed approximately: a. 1-1.5 inches distal to the olecranon process b. 1-2 inches proximal to the olecranon process c. 1-2 inches distal to the olecranon process d. 1-1.5 inches proximal to the olecranon process

a. 1-1.5 inches distal to the olecranon process

11. A patient with muscle weakness and compromised balance uses a four-point gait pattern with two canes. The therapist would like to instruct the patient to ascend and descend the stairs according to the normal flow of traffic. When ascending stairs, the MOST practical method is: a. Use the handrail with the right hand and place the two canes in the left hand b. Use the handrail with the left hand and place the two canes in the right hand c. Place one cane in each hand and avoid using the handrail d. Place the two canes in the left hand and avoid using the handrail

a. Use the handrail with the right hand and place the two canes in the left hand

NOTE: "GOOD leg goes to heaven, BAD leg goes to hell" 12. A patient has a complete SCI at the level of L1. His primary goal is to walk again. The therapist describes it would be MOST appropriate to recommend that this patient use: a. A RGO and walker b. A wheelchair, because ambulation is unrealistic c. Bilateral KAFOs with thoracolumbosacral extension control d. Bilateral AFOs and Loftstrand crutches

a. A RGO and walker

13. A patient with Parkinson’s disease demonstrates a highly stereotyped gait pattern characterized by impoverished movement. The intervention that would be LEAST appropriate to use with this patient is: a. Standing, using body weight support from a harness b. Sidestepping and cross stepping using light touch-down support of hands c. Gait training using a rolling walker d. Rhythmic stepping using a motorized treadmill

c. Gait training using a rolling walker

14. To prepare a patient with an incomplete T12 paraplegia for ambulation with crutches, the upper quadrant muscles that would be MOST important to strengthen include the: a. Upper trapezius, rhomboids, and levator scapulae b. Deltoid, triceps, and wrist flexors c. Middle trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps d. Lower trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps

d. Lower trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps

15. A therapist measures a patient for a straight cane prior to beginning ambulation activities. Which gross measurement method would provide the BEST estimate of cane length? a. Measuring from the greater trochanter straight to the floor b. Measuring from the head of fibula straight to the floor and multiplying by two c. Measuring from the iliac crest straight to the floor d. Dividing the patient’s height by two and adding 3 inches

a. Measuring from the greater trochanter straight to the floor

16. You are teaching a patient how to use a cane to assist with ambulation. The cane is usually placed: a. On the involved side b. Opposite the involved side c. Only during the stance phase d. As needed

b. Opposite the involved side

17. A wheelchair borne patient presents with adductor spasticity. As a therapist, you would most likely attach a/an: a. Anti-tipper c. Adductor pommel b. Seat belts d. Seat wedge

c. Adductor pommel

18. A patient with a SCI at the level of T1 is in the community phase of his mobility training. In order for him to navigate a standard height curb with his wheelchair, the therapist tells him to: a. Descend backward with the trunk upright and arms hooked around the push handles b. Ascend backwards with the large wheels first c. Lift the front casters and ascend in a wheelie position d. Place the front casters down first during descent

c. Lift the front casters and ascend in a wheelie position

19. What is the usual hanger angle? a. 20-30 degrees c. 60-70 degrees b. 30-50 degrees d. 100-110 degrees

c. 60-70 degrees

20. A 60-year-old wheelchair bound patient is being discharged home from your hospital. In preparation for discharge, you visit the home & find he has 3 standard height steps going into his home, requiring a ramp to be constructed for his wheelchair. The recommended length for his ramp should be: a. 72 inches (6 feet) c. 252 inches (21 feet) b. 96 inches (8 feet) d. 240 inches (20 feet)

c. 252 inches (21 feet)

21. What should be the therapist’s position while assisting a CVA patient during sessions of descending stairs? a. Posterolateral and to patient’s weak side b. Anterolateral and to patient’s weak side c. Posterolateral and to patient’s strong side d. Anterolateral and to patient’s strong side

b. Anterolateral and to patient’s weak side

22. A therapist works on transfer training with a patient & her family in preparation for discharge. The patient can occasionally complete a wheelchair to bed transfer independently, however often requires assistance to initiate the transfer. The most appropriate classification of the patient’s transfer status is: a. Contact guard assistance c. Moderate assistance b. Minimal assistance d. Maximal assistance

b. Minimal assistance

23. What is the appropriate assistive device for a patient provided that he/she carries 80% of his/her body weight? a. Walker c. Axillary crutches b. Cane d. Forearm crutches

b. Cane

24. A patient with a complete T10 paraplegia is receiving initial ambulation training. The patient has received bilateral Craig-Scott knee ankle foot orthoses and is being trained with axillary crutches. Because a reciprocal gait pattern is problematic, the best initial gait pattern to teach is a: a. Four-point b. Two-point c. Swing-to d. Swing-through

c. Swing-to

25. When measuring for a wheelchair seat height / leg length, measure from the user's: a. toes to the fibular head. b. height and divide by two. c. heel to the fibular head and add 4 inches to clear the footrest. d. heel to the greater trochanter, divide by three add 2 inches to allow clearance of the footrest e. heel to the popliteal fold and add 2 inches to allow clearance of footrest

e. heel to the popliteal fold and add 2 inches to allow clearance of footrest

A 55-year-old patient was referred for therapy after suffering from a stroke 5 weeks ago. Which of the following will you NOT expect in a Wallenberg syndrome? a. I/L nystagmus b. I/L ataxia c. I/L loss of pain and temperature sensation in the face d. I/L loss of pain and temperature sensation in the body

d. I/L loss of pain and temperature sensation in the body

2. A CVA in the primary visual area of the left cerebral hemisphere results in: a. I/L homonymous hemianopsia b. Binasal heteronymous hemianopsia c. C/L homonymous hemianopsia d. Bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia

c. C/L homonymous hemianopsia

3. A 70-year-old male patient experienced CVA 2 weeks ago. The patient has motor and sensory impairments primarily in the left lower extremity; the left upper extremity shows only mind impairment. There is some confusion and perseveration. Based on these findings, what type of stroke syndrome does this patient present with? a. Posterior cerebral artery stroke b. Internal carotid syndrome c. Anterior cerebral artery syndrome d. Middle cerebral artery syndrome

c. Anterior cerebral artery syndrome

4. Neurologic deficits suggestive of lacunar infarction: a. Pure motor or pure sensory stroke b. Monocular blindness c. UE weakness greater than LE weakness d. LE weakness greater than UE weakness

a. Pure motor or pure sensory stroke

5. A therapist is obtaining a subjective history from a new patient diagnosed with right-sided hemiplegia. The therapist notes that the patient can understand spoken language but cannot speak well. Most of the patient’s words are incomprehensible. The patient also has difficulty in naming simple objects. What type of aphasia does the patient most likely have? a. Anomic aphasia b. Broca’s aphasia c. Crossed aphasia d. Wernicke’s aphasia

b. Broca’s aphasia

6. A 47-year-old female patient sustained a spinal cord injury from a severe whiplash injury in a train accident. Physical examination reveals preserved motor function in both upper and lower extremities, intact pain and temperature sensation, and loss of proprioception in both lower extremities. What incomplete SCI syndrome is this? a. Posterior cord b. Anterior cord c. Cauda equina d. Brown Sequard

a. Posterior cord

7. While you are treating a T4 level SCI male patient, he suddenly had an autonomic dysreflexia. The following are the signs and symptoms of AD, except: a. Pounding headache b. Increased BP c. Increased HR d. Miosis

c. Increased HR

8. An SCI patient has intact biceps, deltoids, and rotator cuff muscles. Independent transfer with a sliding board is possible. What is his SCI level? a. C3-C4 b. C8-T1 c. C5-C6 d. C7-C8

c. C5-C6

9. A patient sustains a spinal cord injury. He has the following motor examination: C5: 5/5 bilateral C6: 5/5 bilateral C7: 3/5 bilateral C8: 2/5 bilateral T1: 2/5 bilateral L1-L3: 1/5 bilateral L4-L5: 0/5 bilateral Sensation: intact to pinprick and light touch to the armpit; impaired (1/2) from armpit to rectum with pinprick and light touch sparing at S4-S5 and rectal tone. What is the ASIA classification for this patient? a. ASIA A b. ASIA B c. ASIA C d. ASIA D

c. ASIA C

10. A male T4 ASIA C patient begins to get flushed. You checked his blood pressure and found that it is elevated with a decreased pulse. What should you do next? a. Sit the person up and loosen any clothing b. Catheterize the individual c. Perform fecal disimpaction d. Administer nifedipine

a. Sit the person up and loosen any clothing

11. Your TBI patient is a 20-year-old male who had a motor vehicle accident 24 hours ago. You have read on his chart that his mechanism of injury was high acceleration and deceleration force which led to the affectation of the corpus callosum visible on the CT scan. Given this information, it can be concluded that: a. The patient suffered from cerebral contusion affecting the superficial layer of the cerebrum b. The patient suffered from concussion due to shaking of the brain c. The patient suffered from diffuse axonal injury with shearing of the subcortical axons d. The patient suffered from secondary brain injury

c. The patient suffered from diffuse axonal injury with shearing of the subcortical axons

12. A male TBI patient was able to open his eyes upon verbal command, pull the therapist’s hand when the anterior forearm was pinched, and speak inappropriate words when asked about how he was feeling in the past few hours. His GCS score is a. 10 b. 12 c. 13 d. 11

a. 10

13. You reviewed the chart of your 24-year-old male TBI patient and noticed that he has retrograde amnesia. As his therapist scheduled to treat him in the afternoon, you modified your treatment because you are well aware that he has: a. Inability to recall events before the injury b. Inability to acquire new knowledge c. Inability to remember schedules d. All of these

a. Inability to recall events before the injury

14. While evaluating the reflexes of your TBI patient, you noticed that the patient's right eye turns to the right when you suddenly turn his head to the right and turns upward when you suddenly lift his head. What reflex could be impaired in this patient? a. Pupillary light reflex b. Vertical/diagonal oculocephalic reflex c. Doll’s eye reflex d. Fronto-orbital reflex

c. Doll’s eye reflex

15. Your 26-year-old male patient sustained TBI from MVA 5 weeks ago with CN 1 injury. As a therapist, you anticipate that he will most likely present with which of the following? a. Loss of appetite b. Anosmia c. Sialorrhea d. Loss of hearing

a. Loss of appetite

16. You are interviewing your 35-year-old female patient with MS when you find out that her symptoms started with just nystagmus which happens in a typical pattern of discrete attacks followed by full recovery in subsequent weeks. Given this information, you conclude that: a. The patient has poor prognosis secondary to the pattern of disease progression b. The patient has a good prognosis secondary to sensory symptom at onset and the pattern of disease progression. c. The patient has an unpredictable prognosis secondary to incomplete set of symptoms present d. The patient prognosis cannot be determined this time

b. The patient has a good prognosis secondary to sensory symptom at onset and the pattern of disease progression.

17. Your female MS patient complains of shooting pains in the arms that are brief but take her breath away each time it occurs. Some spasms cause sudden tightening of her limbs followed by burning and aching sensation. As a therapist, you recognize that she is suffering from what type of pain? a. Hyperpathia b. Paroxysmal limb pain c. Trigeminal neuralgia d. Hyperesthesia

b. Paroxysmal limb pain

18. What happens to the axons after plaque formation in patients with multiple sclerosis? a. The axons become interrupted and undergo anterograde degeneration b. The axons become interrupted and undergo retrograde degeneration c. The axons are not interrupted but undergo anterograde degeneration d. The axons are not interrupted but undergo retrograde degeneration

b. The axons become interrupted and undergo retrograde degeneration

19. Your 65-year-old male patient presents with resting tremor and sustained resistance to passive movement in both upper and lower extremities. You checked his chart and found out that his symptoms subsided momentarily after a dose of Ropinirole was injected 2 days ago. What could be the patient’s diagnosis? a. Patient has schizophrenia b. Patient has multiple sclerosis c. Patient has Parkinson’s disease d. Patient has ALS

c. Patient has Parkinson’s disease

20. Patients with Parkinson’s disease typically present with (+) striatal hand. As a therapist, you know that this type of hand is characterized by: a. MCP extension, IP joints flexion, and wrist flexion b. MCP extension, IP joint extension, and wrist extension c. MCP flexion, IP joint flexion, wrist extension d. MCP flexion, IP joint extension, wrist flexion

d. MCP flexion, IP joint extension, wrist flexion

21. Which of the following signs and symptoms would suggest that the patient is LEAST likely to have amyotrophic lateral sclerosis? a. Spasticity on one extremity b. Clumsiness c. Decrease in balance d. Normal bladder function

d. Normal bladder function

22. In the absence of pathological evidence, the diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is classified in three types. Which of the following types has the characteristic of both upper motor neuron and lower motor neuron findings in at least 3 of 4 regions or upper motor neuro and lower motor neuron signs in the bulbar region and at least two spinal regions a. Clinical probable b. Clinical probable, laboratory support c. Clinical definite d. Clinical possible

c. Clinical definite

23. Which of the following is not a characteristic of myasthenic syndrome or Lambert-Eaton myasthenic Syndrome? a. Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell lung cancer b. Involves antibodies to presynaptic Calcium ion channels c. Proximal muscle weakness that improves with further exertion d. Extraocular weakness

d. Extraocular weakness

24. A 15-year-old male student comes into your office complaining that, as of late, he has been “walking” up his own body from a position of squatting using his hands and arms. He claims that aside from that, he was able to stand and walk onhis own, has been doing well in school, and intends to attend college. Which lower motor neuron illnessis most likely tobe present in him? a. SMA type I b. SMA type II c. SMA type III d. Amyotrophic lateralsclerosis(ALS)

c. SMA type III

25. A 42-year-old woman presents with a noticeable prominence of her right scapula and weakness in her shoulder. On examination, her right scapula appears to be abnormally protruded and displaced towards the spine. She has difficulty pushing against a wall and cannot maintain a stable shoulder position. There is no sensory deficit noted. Which nerve ismost likely affected in this patient’s medial winging of the scapula? a. Long thoracic nerve b. Axillary nerve c. Thoracodorsal nerve d. Spinal accessory nerve

a. Long thoracic nerve

1. A typ ical cervical vertebra has the following characteristics: I. The body is small. II. The vertebral foram ina are largest and triangular. III. The spinous processes are short and bifid IV. The transverse processes are long and slender. V. The articular surfaces of the superior articular processes face posteriorly and laterally, and those of the inferior articular processes face anteriorly and m edially. a. I, II and III b. I, III and V c. I, II, III and IV d. I, II, IV and V e. I, II, III, IV and V

a. I, II and III

2. The cervical and lum bar curves are known as ____________________ because they begin to form later, several m onths after birth. a. Prim ary curves b. Secondary curves c. A and B d. None of the above

b. Secondary curves

3. This im portant landm ark of the skull is located between the 2 superciliary ridges? a. Nasion c. Glabella b. Inion d. Fontanelles

c. Glabella

4. The lam bdoid suture of the skull is found: a. between two parietal bones b. between parietal and occipital bones c. between parietal and frontal bones d. between parietal and tem poral bones

b. between parietal and occipital bones

5. Congenital m uscular torticollis is a m usculoskeletal anom aly with the following characteristics EXCEPT: a. A surgical treatm ent approach is lengthening of the involved m uscle b. The children referred to PT before 1 ye ar of age have better outcom es than those referred later c. The conservative treatm ent approach is a stretching program to lengthen the involved m uscle d. The restricted neck range of m otion secondary to a spastic sternocleidom astoid

d. The restricted neck range of m otion secondary to a spastic sternocleidom astoid

6. In which position is a person with a herniated disc in the low back usually m ost com fortable? a. Standing b. Lying prone with a pillow under the head c. Lying supine with support under the knees d. Sitting

c. Lying supine with support under the knees

7. The X-ray of an 11/F gym nast shows a “scottie dog” which represents a fracture of the pars interarticularis of the lum bar spine. This exercise should be avoided with her: a. Trunk lateral flexion b. Trunk flexion c. Trunk rotation d. Trunk hyp erextension

d. Trunk hyp erextension

8. A patient was diagnosed to have spondylolisthesis with a forward displacem ent of his upper lum bar vertebra by 40%. He has a: a. Grade I spondylolisthesis b. Grade II spondylolisthesis c. Grade III spondylolisthesis d. Grade IV spondylolisthesis

b. Grade II spondylolisthesis

9. The intervertebral discs are the m ain structures that bind together the vertebral bodies, and they extend: a. from C1 to the sacrum b. from C2 to L5 c. from C2 to the sacrum d. from C1 to L5

c. from C2 to the sacrum

10. A 42-year-old patient is experiencing TMJ dys function. He stated that there is a (+) click upon m outh opening. As a therapist, yo u m ight give an expression that the patient is suffering from : a. Disc displacem ent b. TMJ displacem ent c. TMJ syn ovitis d. TMJ capsulitis

a. Disc displacem ent

11. Contraction of the (R) superior oblique and (L) inferior rectus is best represented of which of the following? a. Looking at the person seated next to yo u b. Looking at yo ur (L) shoulder c. Looking at yo ur (R) shoulder d. Looking up as yo u ascend the stairs

b. Looking at yo ur (L) shoulder

12. W hich of the following are responsible for m andibular protrusion? I. Masseter II. Lateral pterygoid III. Medial pteryg oid IV. Tem poralis V. Digastric VI. Infrahyoid m uscle a. I and III d. I, II, III and IV b. II and IV e. V and VI c. I, II and III f. All are correct

c. I, II and III

13. The alar ligam ents lim it _________________________ and play a m ajor role in stabilizing C1 and C2. a. Flexion and rotation c. Flexion and extension b. Extension and rotation d. Rotation and lateral flexion

a. Flexion and rotation

14. The height of a specific vertebrae m ay be used to determ ine landm arks. W hich of the following are true? I. C2 - level with hyoid bone II. C4-C5 - level with thyroid cartilage III. T4 - height of the m anubrium and body of sternum IV. T12 body- tip of the xiphoid process V. L4 spinous process- level with the highest portion of the crest of the ilium VI. S2- height of posterior superior iliac spine a. I, II, III and IV d. III, IV, V and VI b. II, IV, V and VI e. II, III, V and VI c. I, II, III and VI

e. II, III, V and VI

15. Also known as “Senile” osteoporosis”? a. Typ e I c. Typ e III b. Type II d. None of these

b. Type II

16. This condition refers to typ e of disc herniation, wherein the nucleus pulposus herniates posteriorly to a COMPLETE defect of the annulus fibrosus? a. Sequestration d. Bulging b. Prolapsed e. Protrusion c. Extrusions

c. Extrusions

17. W hich of the following is/are considered innervated structure/s of the spine? a. All of these b. Transversospinalis c. Inner of annulus d. Intertransverse ligam ent e. Zyg apophyseal joint

e. Zyg apophyseal joint

18. All of the following statem ents describe the joints of Von Luschka, EXCEPT: a. Are called uncovertebral joints b. Are called uncinate process c. No syn ovium ; so not considered as true joints d. Not present at birth; develop by end of first decade e. Unique articulation seen in upper cervical vertebrae

e. Unique articulation seen in upper cervical vertebrae

20. The m ost com m on typ e of Idiopathic Scoliosis is ____. a. Adolescent onset c. Infantile onset b. Adult onset d. Juvenile onset

a. Adolescent onset

Scoliosis Screening: Girls - Boys - 21. W hen reviewing a patient’s chart, the therapist determ ines that the patient has a condition in which the cauda equina is in a fluid-filled sac protruding from the back. W hat form of spina bifida does the patient m ost likely have? a. Meningocele b. Meningom ye locele c. Spina bifida occulta d. None of the above

b. Meningom ye locele

22. This structure provides hum ans the ability to lift heavy weights overhead; it also stabilizes the trunk for throwing objects with high velocities. a. Brachioradialis b. Quadriceps c. Strong rectus abdom inis d. Thoracolum bar fascia e. Sacrospinalis group

d. Thoracolum bar fascia

23. Patients with a poking chin or forward head posture is a result of them following EXCEPT: (Tidy’s page 225) a. overactivity of the SCMs b. weakness of the deep cervical flexors c. overactivity of the levator scapulae d. overactivity of the deep cervical flexors

d. overactivity of the deep cervical flexors

24. Flexion-extension of the thoracic spine totals how m uch: a. 30 degrees c. 65 degrees b. 60 degrees d. 40 degrees

a. 30 degrees

25. The MOST lim ited m otion in the lum bar spine is: a. rotation b. flexion c. lateral flexion d. extension

a. rotation

Final coaching questions Flashcards

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