final revision Flashcards
1
Q
function of plasmid
A
extra genetic chromosomes to provide bacteria with genetic advantages such as antibiotic resistance
2
Q
the function of pilus
A
elongated hollow appendages used to transfer DNA from one cell to another.
3
Q
the function of fimbriae
A
stiff fibres that adhere them to surfaces such as host cells. Allows bacterium to gain access to the body.
4
Q
the function of flagella
A
helps the bacteria to move
5
Q
the function of ribosomes
A
site of protein synthesis
6
Q
the function of nucleiod
A
essential for controlling the activity of the cell and reproduction. it is where transcription and replication of DNA takes place
7
Q
the function of capsule
A
protects bacteria cell from ingestion and phagocytosis and helps to stick to surfaces
8
Q
what is a gram staining
A
a technique used to differentiate bacteria based on their cell wall/peptidoglycan constituents
9
Q
definition of sanitization
A
mechanically removes microorganisms and other debris to reduce contamination to safe level
10
Q
examples of sanitization
A
soaps/detergents
11
Q
definition of disinfection
A
destroys vegetative pathogens but not endospores
12
Q
examples of disinfection
A
heat, iodine, bleach, chlorhexidine handwash
13
Q
definition of sterilization
A
destroys and removes all microorganisms including endospores and viruses
14
Q
definition of antisepsis
A
process that reduces number of microorganisms
15
Q
what is the chain of infection?
A
infectious agent reservoir portal of exit mode of transmission portal of entry susceptible host
16
Q
chain of infection of streptococcal pharyngitis
A
infectious agent- streptococcus pygones
reservoir- infected human
portal of exit- respiratory tract
mode of transmission- direct contact : droplets
portal of entry- respiratory tract
susceptible host- children, immunosuppressed individuals
17
Q
chain of infection of pneumonia
A
infectious agent- streptococcus pneumoniae
reservoir- infected humans
portal of exit- respiratory tract
mode of transmission- direct: droplets indirect: airbone, formites
portal of entry: respiratory tract
susceptible host: newborns, immunosuppresed individuals, elderly
18
Q
chain of infection of urinary tract infection
A
infectious agent- escherichia coli
reservoir- infected humans
portal of exit- gastrointestinal tract
mode of transmission- endogenous transfer
portal of entry- urinary tract
susceptible host- women
19
Q
detection for streptococcal pharyngitis
A
throat swabs
throat culture
20
Q
detection for pneumonia
A
chest x-ray
culture and sensitivity test of sputum sample
21
Q
detection for urinary tract infection
A
urine culture
22
Q
what is a culture and sensitivity test?
A
refers to a lab test that determines what bacterial yeast may be present in a sample and what drug can kill that bacteria
23
Q
what is the range of actions of antibiotic?
A
broad-spectrum and narrow-spectrum
24
Q
what are the mechanisms of antibiotic actions
A
- inhibition of cell wall synthesis
- inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
- inhibition of protein synthesis
- disruption of cell membrane permeability
- inhibition of metabolic processes
25
describe and explain what happens during the inhibition of cell wall synthesis (antibiotics)
Bacterial cell walls are made of peptidoglycan which protects the cells against rupture
Actively growing cells continuously produce new peptidoglycan.
Drugs such as penicillin and cephalosporin interrupt the completion of the cell wall
Cells rupture (lyse) due to the weakened cell wall
26
what is the function of a neuron?
cells that communicate and carry information
27
what is the function of a cell body?
it contains the nucleus and organelles. The cell body carries genetic information, maintains the neuron's structure, and provides energy to drive activities
28
what is the function of the axons?
it conducts electrical signals
29
axon terminals
Bulb-shaped endings that form a synapse with the next cell. It also produces neurotransmitters such as GABA, ACH and dopamine
30
multipolar neurons are commonly found in the ____________ and __________ neurons
CNS and efferent neurons
31
Unipolar neurons are most abundant in the _________ division
afferent
32
Bipolar neuron are found in ____________ organs
special sensory organs
33
sensory neurons are also known as _______ neurons
afferent
34
the function of sensory/afferent neurons
it receives information from sensory receptors
35
the function of interneuron
receives information in the CNS and sends it to a motor neuron
36
the function of motor/efferent neuron
carry information to peripheral targets called effectors
37
what are the neuroglia cell found in CNS ?
- astrocytes
- ependymal cells
- microglia
- oligodendrocytes
38
what are the glial cell found in PNS?
- satellite cells
| - schwann cells
39
functions of astrocytes ?
Star-shaped cells that provide physical and nutritional support for neurons and maintains the blood-brain barrier
40
functions of ependymal cells
Related to cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) production and circulation
41
functions of microglia
Microglia are the resident Phagocytic cells derived from white blood cells and provide a first line of defence against invading pathogens. Found to be increased during CNS infections
42
function of oligodendrocytes
Produce an insulating membranous wrapping around axons called myelin
43
function of the Satellite cells
surround and support neuron cell bodies
44
function of the Schwann cells
Produce an insulating membranous wrapping around axons called myelin
45
what is a synapse
a functional junction between a neuron and another cell
46
neurotranmitters are stored in the ________ the axon terminal
synaptic vesicles
47
what are the 6 major regions in the brain?
cerebrum
cerebellum
diencephalon
midbrain
pons
medulla oblongata
48
functions of the cerebral cortex
primary motor area- voluntary control of skeletal muscle
primary somatosensory area- for sensory information from skeletal muscle and skin
processing centres- perform higher-level analytical functions including Wernicke's and Broca's area both involved in speech
49
what is contralateral control?
the motor cortex of each cerebral hemisphere is mainly responsible for control of movements of opposite side of the bodu
50
After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe
left frontal lobe
51
the function of the general interpretive area or Wernicke's area
Integrates sensory information to form visual and auditory memory
52
the function of the speech center or Broca's area
Regulates vocalization, the motor skills needed for speaking
53
what is aphasia?
Language disorder that affects the ability to communicate.
| Aphasia does not impair the person's intelligence.
54
what is Wernicke's Aphasia (receptive)?
ability to grasp the meaning of spoken words is chiefly impaired. It is commonly associated with dominant temporal lobe CVA
55
Wernicke aphasia is commonly associated with
dominant temporal lobe CVA
56
what is Broca's Aphasia (expressive)?
Individuals with Broca’s aphasia have trouble speaking fluently but their comprehension can be relatively preserved. It is associated with frontal lobe/motor disorders
57
broca's aphasia is commonly associated with
frontal lobe/motor disorders
58
Global aphasia
both Wernicke's and Broca's aphasia
59
what are the 3 layers of meninges
dura mater
arachnoid
pia mater
60
epidural space is a potential space between.....?
the bone and the dura
61
subdural space is a potential space between...?
dura mater and arachnoid mater
62
subarachnoid space is a potential space between....
the arachnoid space and the pia mater
63
The procedure in which the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is drawn from the subarachnoid space is termed as
lumbar puncture/ spinal tap
64
what is meningitis
inflammation of the meningeal layers
65
symptoms the patient with meningitis presents
fever, headache, projectile vomiting and neck stiffness
66
what is an epidural haemorrage
blood leaks out between dura and cranium
67
what is a subdural haemorrhage?
collection of blood between the dura and arachnoid
68
what is a subarachnoid haemorrhage?
bleeding/ extravasation of blood into the subarachnoid space between the pia mater and arachnoid membranes
69
function of the oculomotor nerves
innervate (supply an organs with neves) four extrinsic eye muscles - eye movements
70
function of the trochlear nerves
innervate superior oblique
71
function of the abducens nerves
innervate lateral rectus
72
function of the trigeminal nerves
sensory over the face
muscles - mastications
73
function of the glossopharyngeal nerves
monitors taste on the posterior third of the tongue and monitors BP and blood gases
controls pharyngeal muscles used in swallowing
74
function of the vagus nerves
sensory input vital to autonomic control of the viscera
motor control includes the soft palate, pharynx , and esophagus
ANS output to cardia mucles, smooth muscles, and digestive glands
75
what is a monosynaptic reflex?
simple reflex
a sensory neuron directly synapses on a motor neuron.
have a delay between sensory input and motor output
examples : stretch reflex (knee jerk)
76
what is a polysnaptic reflex
complex reflex with at least one interneuron
are slower than monosynaptic reflexes, but can activate more than one effector
-withdrawal reflexes
77
what is cranial reflexes?
automatic responses that involve the sensory and motor fibers of cranial nerve.
Light / pupillary reflex
Salivary reflex
Gag reflex
Corneal reflex
78
Lack of the pupillary reflex or an abnormal pupillary reflex can be caused by
optic nerve damage, oculomotor nerve damage, brain stem death and depressant drugs
79
types of sensory receptors
1. chemoreceptors ----- nocicpetors
2.photoreceptors
3.thermoreceptors
4.mechanoreceptors ------ tactilce receptors
barorecptors
proprioceptors
80
receptors that respond to chemical are known as
chemoreceptors ( taste, small, blood pH)
81
describe what happens when our tissues are damaged
When tissues are damaged by toxins or mechanical, thermal, or electrical stimuli, they release chemicals called prostaglandins, which bind to nociceptors.
Aspirin and ibuprofen reduce pain by inhibitingthe enzymes that synthesize prostaglandins.
82
sensory receptors called nociceptors are responsive to
pain
83
Your uncle was just diagnosed with a heart attack. One of his major symptoms is left arm pain. You are not surprised because you are familiar with the phenomenon of ________ pain.
referred
84
what is a referred pain
stimulation of nociceptors in internal organs is felt as pain in the skin also
Nerve impulses from the nociceptors in internal organs synapse with neurons also receiving impulses from the skin.
85
examples of referred pain
liver and gallbladder - pain felt on right shoulder
heart- pain on left arm
colon, appendix, small intestine pain felt on stomach
86
describe and explain how glaucoma arises
drainage ducts are blocked and aqueous humor builds up. the resulting pressure compresses the arteries that serve the retina, where photoreceptors are located. gradual loss of vision occurs and may eventually lead to total blindness
87
What structure changes the shape of the lens for far and near vision?
suspensory ligament
88
The jellylike vitreous body is found in the ___________ of the eye.
posterior cavity
89
function of sclera
portects and support the eye
90
function of cornea
refracts light rays
91
function of pupil
admit lights
92
function of choroids
absorbs stray light
93
function of ciliary body
holds the lens in place
94
retina
contains sensory receptors for sight
95
rod cells
make black and white vision possible
96
cone cells
make colour vision possible
97
fovea centralis
makes acute vision possible
98
lens
refracts and focuses light rays
99
humors
transmit light rays and support the eye
100
optic nerve
transmit impulses to the visual cortex
101
difference between an ovarian cycle and uterine cycle
ovarian cycle- series of changes in ovaries associated with oocyte maturation
controlled by FSH or LH
uterine cycle- changes in the endometrial lining of the uterus
controlled by estrogen and progesterone
102
phases of ovarian cycle
follicle phase, ovulation and luteal phase
103
how long does a follicular phase takes?
14 days
104
how long does ovulation takes
in an instant
105
how long does a luteal phase takes
about 14 days
106
function of an uterine cycle
prepares uterine lining for implantation of fertilized ovum, called a zygote
107
phases of uterine cycle
menses, proliferative phase, secretory phase
108
what are the anterior pituitary hormones that control the uterine cycle
FSH AND LH
109
what happen when a fallopian tube is blocked due to infections (endometriosis)
scar tissue formation preventing the sperm from meeting the ova which hinders fertilization to occur thus leading to infertility
110
what are fibriods?
non malignant tumours commonly found at the uterus, prevents from implantation
111
the function of testes
produce sex hormones
112
function of epididymis
ducts where spem mature and some are stored
113
function of vas deferens
conduct and store sperm
114
function of seminal vesicles
contribute nutrients and fluid to semen
115
function of prostate glands
contribute fluid to semem
116
function of the urethra
conducts sperm
117
bulbourethral glands
contribute mucus-containing fluid to semen
118
route of sperm through male reproductive structures
1. seminiferous tubules
2. epididymis
3. ductus deferens
4. ejaculatory duct
5. penis
119
enlarged prostatic gland is known as
benign prostatic hyperplasia
120
how can benign prostatic hyperplasia be treated
transurethral prostatectomy
121
pH of seminal gland secretion
alkaline
122
pH of prostate gland secretion
acidic
123
pH of bulbourethral glands secretion
alkaline
124
melanocyte produce
melanin, a pigment that colors the skin
125
melanin is brown, yellow-brown or black
absorbs ultraviolet protecting deeper layers
126
describe and explains the synthesis of vitamin D3
When exposed to sunlight, cholesterol-related sunlight in the epidermis triggers the production of Vitamin D3.
The inactive form is modified in the liver and kidneys to an active form known as calcitriol which is essential for calcium and phosphorus absorption in the small intestine.
127
functions of testosterone
maintain libido and stimulates aggression
stimulates bone and muscle growth
establishes and maintains male secondary sex characteristics
Maintains accessory glands and organs of the male reproductive system
128
what are the accessory glands of the male reproductive system
seminal gland, prostate gland, bulbourethral gland
129
functions of the bulbourethral glands
it buffers acidic environment and lubricate glands of the penis
130
what are the components of the prostate glands secretion
prostate glands secretion composes of seminiplasmin which prevents urinary tract infections
131
what are the components of seminal gland secretion
fructose, prostaglandins, fibrinogen
132
function of fructose in seminal gland secretion
for metabolism by sperm
133
functions of prostaglandins in seminal gland secretion
stimulate smooth muscle in tract
134
functions of fibrinogen in seminal gland
forms semen clot in vagina
135
functions of the CSF
Surrounds and bathes the exposed surfaces of the CNS and cushions and protects the CNS.
It also transports nutrients, chemicals, and wastes
136
3 layers of the uterine wall
perimetrium , myometrium,
| endometrium
137
which muscle layer of the uterine wall contracts during labor and delivery
myometrium
138
what congenital hypothyroidism (cretisim)?
underdeveloped thyroid at birth ---> undersecretion of thyroid hormone
139
what is myxedema ?
hypothyroidism in adults.
140
what are the symptoms of myxedema
lethargy, weight gain, loss hair, lowered body temperature
141
what is exophthalmic goiter?
oversecretion of thyroid hormone.
142
symptoms of exophthalmic goiter
hyperactivity, nervousness, irritability
